Superpage
Stains (IHC & special) & CD markers

Authors: Heba Abdelal, M.D., Monica Abdelmalak, M.D., Maryam Aghighi, M.D., Zubair Ahmad, M.B.B.S., Di (Andy) Ai, M.D., Ph.D., Mir Alikhan, M.D., Nicole K. Andeen, M.D., Tatjana Antic, M.D., Susan M. Armstrong, M.D., Ph.D., Jaya Ruth Asirvatham, M.D., Sapna Balgobind, M.B.B.Ch., Nick Baniak, M.D., Harsh Batra, M.B.B.S., D.C.P., D.N.B., Narendra Bhattarai, M.D., Samuel Bidot, M.D., Jan Bosch-Schips, M.D., Joshua R. Bradish, M.D., Till Braunschweig, M.D., Frido Bruehl, M.D., Klaus J. Busam, M.D., Aurelia Busca, M.D., Ph.D., Natalia Buza, M.D., Chunyu Cai, M.D., Ph.D., Chiara Caraccio, B.A., Angela M.Y. Chan, M.Sc., Alison Lavinia Cheah, M.B.B.S., Yao-Tseng Chen, M.D., Ph.D., Wei Chen, M.D., Ph.D., Heather I-Hsuan Chen-Yost, M.D., Liang Cheng, M.D., Veronica Cheung, M.Ch.D., Qurratulain Chundriger, M.B.B.S., Andrew J. Colebatch, M.B.B.S., Ph.D., Genevieve M. Crane, M.D., Ph.D., Bre Ana M. David, M.D., Jessica L. Davis, M.D., Simona De Michele, M.D., Brendan C. Dickson, M.D., M.Sc., Qingqing Ding, M.D., Ph.D., Anna Dusenbery, M.D., Austin Ellis, M.D., John Yahya I. Elshimali, M.D., Emeka Enwere, M.D., Ph.D., Jonathan I. Epstein, M.D., Ana Félix, M.D., Ph.D., Elena M. Fenu, M.D., Leonie Frauenfeld, M.D., Wafaey Gomaa, M.D., Ph.D., Silvija P. Gottesman, M.D., Meenakshi Vij Gupta, M.D., Raavi Gupta, M.D., Leila Haghi, M.D., Kara Hamilton, M.S., Lewis A. Hassell, M.D., Rui Henrique, M.D., Ph.D., Anjelica Hodgson, M.D., Derek Hoerres, M.D., Zhihong Hu, M.D., Ph.D., Aaron R. Huber, D.O., Aliya N. Husain, M.D., Kenneth A. Iczkowski, M.D., Fatima Iqbal, M.D., Sawsan Ismail, M.D., M.Sc., Gina Johnson, M.D., Julie M. Jorns, M.D., Achim A. Jungbluth, M.D., Ph.D., Roula Katerji, M.D., Arbaz M. Khan, Joseph Khoury, M.D., Felix K.F. Kommoss, M.D., Kemal Kösemehmetoğlu, M.D., Sofia Lérias, M.D., Cecilia Lezcano, M.D., Xiaoxian (Bill) Li, M.D., Ph.D., Joshua J.X. Li, M.B.Ch.B., Xiaoyan Liao, M.D., Ph.D., Cullen M. Lilley, M.D., M.S., M.A., Antonio Llombart-Bosch, M.D., Ph.D., João Lobo, M.D., Thomas H. Long, M.D., Claudio Luchini, M.D., Ph.D., Thai Yen Ly, M.D., Kirill A. Lyapichev, M.D., Isidro Machado, M.D., Ph.D., Shikha Malhotra, M.D., Kruti P. Maniar, M.D., Jose G. Mantilla, M.D., Danielle Lameirinhas Vieira Maracaja, M.D., Mario L. Marques-Piubelli, M.D., William McDonald, M.D., Kelsey E. McHugh, M.D., Vikas Mehta, M.D., Michael Michal, M.D., Ph.D., Roberto N. Miranda, M.D., Mariel Molina Nunez, M.D., Luca Morelli, M.D., Ata Moshiri, M.D., M.P.H. , Urooba Nadeem, M.D., Nariman Atif M. Nawar, M.D., Cameron Neely, M.D., Phuong Nhat Nguyen, M.D., M.Sc., Numbereye Numbere, M.D., Farres Obeidin, M.D., Rebecca Obeng, M.D., Riuko Ohashi, M.D., Carlos Parra-Herran, M.D., Anil Parwani, M.D., Ph.D., M.B.A., Avani Pendse, M.D., Ph.D. , Sven Perner, M.D., Ph.D., Nat Pernick, M.D., Maria M. Picken, M.D., Ph.D., Mirna B. Podoll, M.D., Madiha Bilal Qureshi, M.B.B.S., Shabina Rahim, M.B.B.S., Muhammad Raza, M.B.B.S., Emily S. Reisenbichler, M.D., Helen E. Remotti, M.D., Maurice Richardson, M.D., Lisa Rooper, M.D., Monika Roychowdhury, M.D., Navid Sadri, M.D., Ph.D., Rola Saleeb, M.D., Ph.D., Iryna Samarska, M.D., Ph.D., Laveniya Satgunaseelan, M.B.B.S., Arzu Sağlam, M.D., Christian M. Schürch, M.D., Ph.D., Alessandra C. Schmitt, M.D., Saba Shafi, M.D., Joo-Shik Shin, M.B.B.S., Ph.D., Bradford Siegele, M.D., J.D., Oscar Silva, M.D. Ph.D., Charanjeet Singh, M.D., Valeriya Skorobogatko, B.A., Benjamin F. Smith, M.D., M.S., Wiebke Solass, M.D., Gustav Stålhammar, M.D., Ph.D., Lauren N. Stuart, M.D., M.B.A., Narittee Sukswai, M.D., Mihaly Sulyok, M.D., Ph.D., Robert Terlević, M.D., Satbir Thakur, Ph.D., Lars Tharun, M.D., Arthur A. Topilow, M.D., Gary Tozbikian, M.D., Patricia Tsang, M.D., M.B.A., Gary M. Tse, M.B.B.S., Nasir Ud Din, M.B.B.S., Veronica Ulici, M.D., Ph.D., Brandon Umphress, M.D., Laseena Vaisyambath, M.B.B.S., Mieke R. Van Bockstal, M.D., Ph.D., A. Cristina Vargas, M.B.B.S., Ph.D., Ashley Keller Volaric, M.D., Moiz Vora, M.D., Semir Vranić, M.D., Ph.D., Monika Vyas, M.D., David Wachter, M.D., Noreen M. Walsh, M.D., Sa A. Wang, M.D., Li Juan Wang, M.D., Ph.D., Jian-Jun Wei, M.D., Mark R. Wick, M.D., Pamela Wirth, Ph.D., Sara Wobker, M.D., M.P.H., Rong Xia, M.D., Ph.D., Youheng (Henry) Xie, M.D., Shaofeng Yan, M.D., Ph.D., Chen Yang, M.D., Y. Albert Yeh, M.D., Ph.D., Jennifer Yoest, M.D., Sheren Younes, M.D., Ph.D., Dongwei Zhang, M.D., Ph.D., Ling Zhang, M.D., Fang Zhou, M.D., Jonathan E. Zuckerman, M.D., Ph.D.
Resident / Fellow Advisory Boards: David B. Chapel, M.D., Mario L. Marques-Piubelli, M.D.
Board of reviewers: Frido Bruehl, M.D.
Editorial Board Members: Borislav A. Alexiev, M.D., Nicole K. Andeen, M.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D., Wei Chen, M.D., Ph.D., Elizabeth Courville, M.D., Genevieve M. Crane, M.D., Ph.D., Julie Feldstein, M.D., Raul S. Gonzalez, M.D., Catherine E. Hagen, M.D., Aaron R. Huber, D.O., Julie M. Jorns, M.D., Ricardo R. Lastra, M.D., Kelly Magliocca, D.D.S., M.P.H., Jose G. Mantilla, M.D., Mario L. Marques-Piubelli, M.D., Maria Martinez-Lage, M.D., Roberto N. Miranda, M.D., Meaghan Morris, M.D., Ph.D., Anamarija M. Perry, M.D., Maryam Kherad Pezhouh, M.D., M.Sc., Lisa Rooper, M.D., Christian M. Schürch, M.D., Ph.D., Jefree J. Schulte, M.D., Alexa J. Siddon, M.D., Lauren N. Stuart, M.D., M.B.A., Maria Tretiakova, M.D., Ph.D., Patricia Tsang, M.D., M.B.A., Gulisa Turashvili, M.D., Ph.D., Nasir Ud Din, M.B.B.S., Brandon Umphress, M.D., Monika Vyas, M.D., Bin Xu, M.D., Ph.D., Jonathan E. Zuckerman, M.D., Ph.D., Debra L. Zynger, M.D.
Deputy Editors-in-Chief: Borislav A. Alexiev, M.D., Jennifer A. Bennett, M.D., Chunyu Cai, M.D., Ph.D., Genevieve M. Crane, M.D., Ph.D., Raul S. Gonzalez, M.D., Catherine E. Hagen, M.D., Kelly Magliocca, D.D.S., M.P.H., Gary Tozbikian, M.D., Maria Tretiakova, M.D., Ph.D., Patricia Tsang, M.D., M.B.A., Debra L. Zynger, M.D.
Editor-in-Chief: Debra L. Zynger, M.D.

Copyright: 2002-2024, PathologyOutlines.com, Inc.

IHC related: Jobs, Conferences, CME, Board Review

Related chapters: Molecular markers

Editorial Board oversight: Christian M. Schürch, M.D., Ph.D. (last reviewed January 2023), Brandon Umphress, M.D. (last reviewed January 2023),
Page views in 2024 to date: 28

CD80-89
CD80
  • Also called B7-1, BB1
  • T cells need 2 signals for activation; the first signal is antigen peptide presented on MHC class II through the T cell receptor
  • The second (costimulatory) signal is delivered by CD80 or CD86, expressed on surface of antigen presenting cells, which interact with either CD28 or CD152 (CTLA-4)
  • Has critical role in autoimmune, humoral and transplant responses
  • Increased expression may cause excessive antigen presentation in fulminant hepatic failure, as an early step in its pathogenesis before the onset of tissue damage (Am J Pathol 1999;154:1711)
  • Receptor for some adenovirus species (Virus Res 2006;122:144)
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining - normal: activated B cells, T cells, macrophages and dendritic cells
  • Reference: OMIM: 112203 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
CD81
  • Also called Target of an Anti-Proliferative Antibody (TAPA1)
  • Receptor for Hepatitis C Virus E2 protein in B cells (J Virol 2006;80:8695)
  • Also required for Plasmodium falciparum infectivity (Nat Med 2003;9:93)
  • Upregulation on HIV1+ B cells may ultimately cause lymphoproliferative disorders (Clin Exp Immunol 2007;147:53)
  • On B cells, is complexed with CD21, CD19 and Leu13; facilitates complement recognition
  • Member of tetraspanin family; has close associations with major histocompatibility complex class I/II proteins
  • Appears to promote muscle cell fusion and support myotube maintenance
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining - normal: lymphocytes, endothelial cells and epithelial cells
  • Positive staining - tumors:
  • Negative staining: erythrocytes, platelets and neutrophils
  • Reference: OMIM: 186845 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
CD82
CD83
CD84
CD85
  • Previously entire Immunoglobulin-like Transcript (ILT) family was clustered as CD85; now subclassified as CD85a to CD85m
  • Also called Leukocyte Immunoglobulin-like Receptors (LIR) and Monocyte / Macrophage Immunoglobulin-like Receptors (MIR)
  • CD85 itself is now called CD85J
  • Family of immunoreceptors expressed on monocytes and B cells; lower levels on dendritic cells and NK cells
  • Prevents NK / T cell killing and inhibits B cells by negative signaling receptors
  • Note: some family members have activating functions (see specific family members below)
  • References: Nat Immunol 2001;2:661, J Biol Chem 2006;281:19536
CD85A
  • Also called ILT5, LIR3, LILRB3 (leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor subfamily, member 3), HL9
  • Involved in NK mediated cytotoxicity
  • An inhibitory receptor for MHC class I molecules
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: myeloid cells, monocytes / macrophages, B cells, T cells (some), NK cells, basophils, eosinophils, dendritic cells (weak) (Blood 2004;104:2832, Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2003;100:1174)
  • Reference: OMIM: 604820 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
CD85B
  • Also called ILT8, LILRA6 (formerly LILRB6)
  • Involved in the activation of NK mediated cytotoxicity
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: NK and T cell subsets, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells and B lymphocytes
CD85C
  • Also called LIR8, LILRB5
  • May act as receptor for class I MHC antigens
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: NK cells
  • Reference: OMIM: 604814 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
CD85D
  • Also called ILT4, LIR2, MIR10, LILRB2
  • Down regulates the immune response; involved in the development of tolerance
  • Upregulated by HLA-G in antigen-presenting cells, NK cells and T cells (FASEB J 2005;19:662)
  • Interacts with human leukocyte antigen A, B and G molecules and transmits negative signals that interfere with the activation of monocytes and dendritic cells (Hum Immunol 2004;65:700)
  • Also competes with CD8A for binding to class I MHC antigens
  • IL-10 renders dendritic cells hypostimulatory by upregulating cell surface CD85D and by inhibiting soluble CD85D in vitro; similar effect on endothelial cells (Eur J Immunol 2004;34:74, Eur J Immunol 2006;37:177)
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: NK cells, T cells, monocytes / macrophages, dendritic cells, eosinophils (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2003;100:1174)
  • Reference: OMIM: 604815 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
CD85E
  • Also called ILT6, LIR4, LILRA3
  • May act as soluble receptor for class I MHC antigens
  • Homozygous deletions associated with multiple sclerosis (7% vs 4% of normals) (Genes Immun 2005;6:445)
  • 85% of Japanese lack functional CD85E alleles (Hum Genet 2006;119:436)
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: B cells, NK cells, peripheral blood monocytes, lung
  • Reference: OMIM: 604818 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
CD85F
  • Also called ILT11, LILRB7, LIR9
  • May play a role in triggering innate immune responses (Blood 2003;101:1484)
  • Membrane bound and secreted
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: neutrophils, monocytes
  • Negative staining: B cells, T cells, NK cells
  • Reference: OMIM: 606047 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
CD85G
  • Also called ILT7, LILRA4
  • May act as receptor for class I MHC antigens
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: plasmacytoid dendritic cells (J Exp Med 2006;203:1399)
  • Negative staining: myeloid dendritic cells, other white blood cells
CD85H
CD85I
  • Also called LIR6, CD85i
  • Note: since some biologists use lower case, CD85l [CD85L] may be confused with CD85i
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: B cells, monocytes
  • Negative staining: dendritic cells, NK cells, T cells
  • References: OMIM: 604810 [Accessed 3 May 2021], J Immunol 2003;171:3056
CD85J
  • Also called CD85, LIR1, ILT2, MIR7, LILRB1
  • Transduces negative signals that prevent killing of MHC class I expressing cells
  • Binds classical (HLA-A and HLA-B) and non-classical (HLA-G, HLA-E and HLA-F) MHC class I molecules
  • Upregulated by HLA-G in antigen presenting cells, NK cells and T cells (FASEB J 2005;19:662)
  • Receptor for CMV UL18 protein, which resembles MHC class I molecules (J Virol 2005;79:2251)
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: B cells, monocytes, dendritic cells (low), T cells (some), NK cells (some)
  • Reference: OMIM: 604811 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
CD85K
CD85L
CD85M
  • Also called ILT10, LILRA5
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining: T cell subsets, monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells and B lymphocytes (Washington State University)
CD86
  • Also called B7-2
  • T cells need 2 signals for activation: the first signal is antigen peptide presented on MHC class II through the T cell receptor
  • The second (costimulatory) signal is delivered by CD80 or CD86, expressed on surface of antigen presenting cells, which interact with either CD28 or CD152 (CTLA-4)
  • CD80 and CD86 appear to have opposing functions on regulatory T cells (J Immunol 2004;172:2778)
  • Polymorphisms are associated with:
  • Increased expression may cause excessive antigen presentation in fulminant hepatic failure as an early step in its pathogenesis before the onset of tissue damage (Am J Pathol 1999;154:1711)
  • High circulating soluble levels are poor prognostic factor in myeloma (Br J Haematol 2006;133:165)
  • Receptor for some adenovirus species (Virus Res 2006;122:144)
  • Associated with H. pylori dependent early stage high grade MALT lymphoma of stomach (World J Gastroenterol 2005;11:4357)
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining - normal:
    • B cells, thymocytes (J Immunol 2001;167:3668)
    • Mature T cells, memory T cells (high, Tissue Antigens 2004;64:132)
    • Monocytes / macrophages, platelets, dendritic cells, granulocytes and CD34+ hematopoietic progenitor cells (Exp Hematol 2003;31:798)
    • Interdigitating dendritic cells in T zones of secondary lymphoid organs, Langerhans cells, peripheral blood dendritic cells, memory B cells, germinal center B cells, monocytes, endothelial cells, activated T cells
  • Positive staining - disease:
  • Negative staining: immature dendritic cells
  • Reference: OMIM: 601020 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
CD87
CD88
CD89
  • Also called FCAR, FCalphaR
  • IgA Fc receptor, binds IgA and eliminates IgA coated targets
  • Induces phagocytosis, degranulation, respiratory burst and killing of microorganisms
  • Pathogenic group A and group B streptococci produce virulence factors that block the binding of IgA to CD89, inhibiting IgA-mediated immunity (J Biol Chem 2006;281:1389)
  • No significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining - normal: neutrophils, monocytes / macrophages, activated eosinophils, alveolar and splenic macrophages, interstitial dendritic cells
  • Negative staining: mesangial cells (J Am Soc Nephrol 2000;11:241)
  • Reference: OMIM: 147045 [Accessed 3 May 2021]
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:
Missing Image

CD88: C5A and its effects

Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:
Missing Image

CD82: endometrial carcinoma

Missing Image

CD82: oral cavity (normal and malignant)

Missing Image

CD82: breast carcinoma (D-F)

Missing Image

CD83: infantile hemangioma endothelium

Missing Image

CD83: decidua

Missing Image

CD83+ dendritic cells in breast tumor


Missing Image Missing Image

CD87: endometrial adenocarcinoma

Missing Image

CD87: pancreatic adenocarcinoma (figures B, D)

Missing Image Missing Image

CD88: normal and Alzheimer brain


ABCC2
Definition / general
  • Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) binding cassette subfamily C member 2 (ABCC2) belongs to the C subfamily of the ABC transmembrane protein transporters
  • ABCC transporters are involved in active drug transportation
  • Contributes to chemotherapy resistance in some tumors by what is thought to be drug efflux mechanisms
  • Recent publications show that ATP transporters contribute to cancer aggressiveness beyond the drug efflux effect (Cancer Biol Med 2020;17:253)
    • Also called multidrug resistant protein 2 (MRP2)
Essential features
  • ABCC2 staining patterns could potentially be used as prognostic biomarkers in papillary renal cell carcinomas (PRCC); the brush border staining pattern was shown to predict disease progression on both univariate and multivariate disease free survival analysis (Hum Pathol 2022;120:57, Mod Pathol 2022;35:657)
  • ABCC2 has prognostic significance in some tumors, particularly papillary renal cell carcinoma, as well as breast, colon, pancreas, ovary and fallopian tube
  • Might have predictive significance as it has been implicated in chemotherapy resistance
Terminology
  • Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) binding cassette subfamily C member 2 (ABCC2)
  • Multidrug resistance associated protein 2 (MRP2)
  • Canalicular multispecific organic anion transporter 1 (CMOAT1)
  • Canalicular multidrug resistance protein (cMRP)
  • ABC30
  • Dubin-Johnson syndrome (DJS)
Pathophysiology
Clinical features
  • Germline mutations in ABCC2 are associated with autosomal recessive Dubin-Johnson syndrome
    • It is characterized by impaired secretion of conjugated bilirubin by hepatocytes
    • Grossly, the liver is black in appearance
    • Microscopically, there is accumulation of dark, PASD positive, coarsely granular pigment in the centrilobular zone
    • Electron microscopy shows the pigment accumulating in lysosomes
    • These patients are usually asymptomatic, with incidental detection of hyperbilirubinemia (StatPearls: Dubin Johnson Syndrome [Accessed 25 July 2023])
Interpretation
Uses by pathologists
Prognostic factors
Microscopic (histologic) description
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Rola Saleeb, M.D., Ph.D.
Normal ABCC2 in tubules

Normal ABCC2 in tubules

Negative ABCC2 in PRCC

Negative ABCC2 in PRCC

PRCC HE cytoplasmic

PRCC cytoplasmic

Cytoplasmic ABCC2 in PRCC

Cytoplasmic ABCC2 in PRCC

PRCC HE low

PRCC low


Low brush border pattern ABCC2

Low brush border pattern ABCC2

Papillary RCC, prominent atypia

Papillary RCC, prominent atypia

High brush border ABCC2 expression High brush border ABCC2 expression

High brush border ABCC2 expression

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Molecular / cytogenetics description
Sample pathology report
  • Kidney, mass, nephrectomy:
    • Papillary renal cell carcinoma (see comment)
    • Comment: ABCC2 brush border staining pattern > 50% shown by immunohistochemistry.
Board review style question #1

A 56 year old man has an incidentally discovered renal mass, 4 cm in size. He was treated with partial nephrectomy. Microscopic examination shows a papillary renal cell carcinoma (PRCC). An immunopanel including ABCC2 IHC stain is ordered. Which pattern of staining may predict a poor clinical outcome?

  1. Brush border staining in ≥ 50% of the PRCC cells
  2. Complete absence of ABCC2 staining in the tumor with preserved staining in renal tubules
  3. Concurrent ABCC2 and GATA3 expression in PRCC cells
  4. Weak patchy cytoplasmic ABCC2 staining in the PRCC cells
Board review style answer #1
A. Brush border staining in ≥ 50% of the PRCC cells. Brush border ABCC2 staining in the tumor is shown to be a poor prognostic feature in papillary renal cell carcinoma ≤ 4 cm in size. Brush border pattern also correlates with higher ABCC2 RNA transcript by ISH. Answers B and D are incorrect because completely negative or cytoplasmic expression shows a relatively better prognosis. Answer C is incorrect because GATA3 positive papillary renal cell carcinoma is known as the entity of papillary renal neoplasm of reverse polarity which is quite indolent.

Comment Here

Reference: ABCC2

Acid fast / Auramine-rhodamine
Definition / general
Methods
  • Ziehl-Neelsen (classic): common method; bacteria stain bright red due to retention of carbol-fuchsin dye; background is methylene blue counterstain; procedure involves heat (#1, #2)
  • Ziehl-Neelsen (modified bleach): may be more sensitive than classic stain (Acta Cytol 2008;52:325,J Cytol 2012;29:165)
  • Ziehl-Neelsen (modified for stool specimens): does not require heating (Centers for Disease Control)
  • Kinyoun: common method; uses more concentrated fuchsin dye and lipid solvent, but no heat; bacteria stain bright red against green background (#1, #2)
  • Fite: to detect M. leprae (leprosy) and Rhodococcus (Diagn Cytopathol 2001;24:244); combines peanut / vegetable oil with xylene to minimize exposure of bacteria cell wall to organic solvents and protect precarious acid-fastness of organism (#1, #2)
  • Ellis and Zabrowarny: protocol excludes phenol; procedure (J Clin Pathol 1993;46:559)
  • Auramine-rhodamine: mixture of Auramine O and Rhodamine B dyes, auramine binds to mycolic acid in cell wall; detection requires a fluorescence microscope (mercury vapor lamp or LED), but is most sensitive stain for mycobacteria (Hum Pathol 1984;15:1085, PLoS One 2011;6:e22495); saves time in searching for microorganisms (Clin Infect Dis 2008;47:203); procedure
  • Water filters are recommended to reduce false positives due to non-TB mycobacteria (Appl Environ Microbiol 2007;73:6296)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Cryptosporidium:

Oocysts: modified acid-fast stain

Stool specimen (Ziehl-Neelsen)

Oocysts: auramine-rhodamine stain


Isospora:

Acid-fast stain


Mycobacterium leprae:

Liver (Fite stain)



Mycobacterium tuberculosis:

Ziehl-Neelsen stains

Auramine stain of lung

Skin biopsies



Mycobacterium avium complex:

Site-unknown, breast and colon (Ziehl-Neelsen)


Nocardia:

Fite-Faraco modified acid fast stain of lung


Other:

Tuberculous lymphadenopathy (Ziehl-Neelsen)

Pleural fluid

Videos

Acid fast stain


Acid phosphatase
Definition / general
  • Acid phosphatase is not a single enzyme but rather a group of enzymes that hydrolyze and release phosphate group from different substrates
  • By definition, they function best in an acidic environment and are normally localized in the lysosomes (Mol Pathol 2002;55:65)
  • In muscle biopsies, the acid phosphatase stain is an enzyme histochemical stain that relies on endogenous acid phosphatase activity in the muscle specimen to hydrolyze the artificial naphthol AS-B1 phosphate substrate into naphthol, producing a brick red reaction product (Dubowitz: Muscle Biopsy: A Practical Approach, 4th Edition, 2013)
    • Therefore, the acid phosphatase stain must be performed on cryosections of snap-frozen fresh muscle tissue
  • Acid phosphatase should be differentiated from the antibody based immunohistochemical stains Prostatic Acid Phosphatase (PAP or PSAP) and Tartrate Resistant Acid Phosphatase (TRAP)
Essential features
  • In muscle biopsies, acid phosphatase stain is mainly used to highlight macrophages, red rimmed vacuoles in inclusion body myositis, lysosome storage disorders and other hereditary or acquired vacuolar myopathies associated with abnormal lysosomal activity
Terminology
  • Nonspecific acid phosphatase(s)
Interpretation
  • Lysosomes
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) description
  • Staining of lipofuscin in myofiber is punctate granular, predominantly subsarcolemmal (Dubowitz: Muscle Biopsy: A Practical Approach, 4th Edition, 2013)
  • Staining of lysosomes or lysosomal vacuoles in myofiber is punctate and predominantly sarcoplasmic; see disease specific references under Positive staining - disease section
  • Staining of degenerating myofibers and paraspinal myofibers is a weak diffuse blush in the sarcoplasm
  • Staining of macrophages is strong cytoplasmic
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Chunyu "Hunter" Cai, M.D., Ph.D.
Missing Image

Adult onset acid maltase deficiency

Missing Image

Central core myopathy

Missing Image

Cystinosis distal myopathy

Missing Image

Degenerating myofibers

Missing Image

Hydroxychloroquine myopathy


Missing Image

Inclusion body myositis

Missing Image

Infant onset acid maltase deficiency

Missing Image

Lupus myositis

Missing Image

Myophagocytosis

Missing Image

Normal muscle

Positive staining - normal
  • Stains lysosomes in myofibers, which are inconspicuous in normal fibers
  • Stains lipofuscin in muscle fibers, which are usually subsarcolemmally located and increase with age
  • Increased in paraspinal muscles (Muscle Nerve 2015;52:45)
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Board review style question #1
    Which of the following components in muscle fiber stains acid phosphatase?

  1. Lipid droplet
  2. Lysosome
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Myosin filament
  5. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Board review style answer #1
B. Lysosome

Comment Here

Reference: Acid phosphatase

ACTH (pending)
[Pending]

Actin - general / cardiac
Definition / general
  • Globular protein that forms microfilaments; found in all eukaryotic cells except nematode sperm (Wikipedia)
  • Highly conserved, differs by at most 20% between algae and humans
  • Participates in more protein-protein interactions than any known protein
Pathophysiology
  • The monomeric subunit of microfilaments, one of 3 major components of cytoskeleton (also microtubules and intermediate filaments); also a component of thin filaments (part of contractile apparatus of muscle cells)
  • Can transition between monomeric (G-actin) and filamentous (F-actin) states under control of nucleotide hydrolysis, ions, and actin-binding proteins (Annu Rev Biophys 2011;40:169)
  • Mammalian muscle cells contain alpha and gamma smooth muscle actin, alpha cardiac actin and alpha skeletal actin
  • Mammalian nonmuscle cells contain beta cytoplasmic actin and gamma cytoplasmic actin
  • Functions in all cells:
    • Forms part of cytoskeleton, which gives mechanical support to cell and is part of signal transduction
    • Assists with motility and phagocytosis
    • Helps myosins transport organelles and other substances through cell
    • Actin cytoskeleton may act as sensor and mediator of apoptosis (Bioarchitecture 2012;2:75)
  • Function in muscle cells: contraction
  • Actin cap: recently characterized cytoskeletal organelle composed of thick and highly contractile acto-myosin filaments anchored to apical surface of interphase nucleus (Soft Matter 2013;9:5516)
Clinical features
  • Persistence of high titers of anti-actin serum antibodies is associated with disease activity in autoimmune hepatitis (Hepatology 2013;59:592)
Alpha cardiac actin
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:

Helical structure of F-actin

G-actin to F-actin transition

Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Various images


Actin - muscle specific
Definition / general
  • Discovered in 1987 (Am J Pathol 1987;126:51); also called HHF35, MSA
  • Recognizes all alpha actins (skeletal, smooth, cardiac) and gamma smooth muscle actin; but not beta cytoplasmic or gamma cytoplasmic actin (the latter is also called non-muscle actin)
  • Recognizes actin expressed in all cells with muscle differentiation (cardiac, smooth and skeletal muscle), myoepithelial cells, myofibroblasts, pericytes and myogenic tumors (Am J Clin Pathol 1991;96:32)
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Endometriosis

Myofibroblastoma: breast (fig d)


Myofibroblastoma: lymph node

Rhabdomyo-sarcoma: CNS, embryonal (fig 4)

Rhabdomyo-sarcoma: oral cavity

Positive staining - normal
  • Cardiac muscle, decidua, myoepithelial cells (although calponin and vimentin may be better, Braz Dent J 2007;18:192), myofibroblasts, pericytes, skeletal muscle, smooth muscle and vascular smooth muscle
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining

Actin, alpha smooth muscle type
Definition / general
  • Actin is a 43000 kDa ubiquitous protein found in all cells
  • Actins are involved in cell motility (alpha, smooth muscle) and the maintenance of the cytoskeleton (beta and gamma, all cells)
  • Antibodies to alpha smooth muscle actin do not detect the other actin isoforms
Essential features
  • Involved in cell motility
  • Identifies pericytes, myoepithelial cells, smooth muscle cells and myofibroblasts in normal, reactive or neoplastic tissue
  • Myofibroblastic staining (tram track) versus smooth muscle staining (block cytoplasmic)
Terminology
  • Also called smooth muscle actin, SMA; clone ASM1 / 1A4 or sm 1
Pathophysiology
  • 3 types: alpha, beta and gamma
  • Alpha actins are found in muscle tissues and required for contraction, whereas the beta and gamma actins function as components of the cytoskeleton in many cells
  • Expression correlates with the activation of myofibroblasts (Mol Cell Biochem 2008;308:201)
  • May play a role in epithelial mesenchymal transition of carcinomas (Rom J Morphol Embryol 2014;55:1383)
Clinical features
Interpretation
  • Membranous or cytoplasmic staining
Uses by pathologists
Prognostic factors
  • Myogenic differentiation (either only SMA or SMA+ desmin) in dedifferentiated liposarcoma significantly decreases 5 year disease free survival (Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:799)
Microscopic (histologic) description
  • Myofibroblastic staining (tram track) versus smooth muscle staining (block cytoplasmic)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Kemal Kösemehmetoğlu, M.D.

Leiomyoma

SMA expression in leiomyoma

Leiomyosarcoma

Diffuse cytoplasmic block SMA expression

Nodular fasciitis

SMA in nodular fasciitis


Myxofibrosarcoma

Focal SMA expression in myxofibrosarcoma

Glomus tumor

SMA in glomus tumor

Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma

Focal SMA in undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma


Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor

Myofibroblastic type SMA in IMT

Atypical apocrine adenosis

SMA in myoepithelial layer of breast adenosis

Radial scar / complex sclerosing lesion

SMA in radial scar / complex sclerosing lesion


Sclerosing papilloma

Pseudoinvasion in sclerosing papilloma

SMA positive myoepithelial layer

Tram track (myofibroblastic) staining pattern

Block (smooth muscle-like) staining pattern

Virtual slides

Images hosted on other servers:
Missing Image

SMA decorating vessels of tufted hemangioma

Missing Image

Glomangioma with diffuse and strong SMA expression

Missing Image

SMA expression in embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Sample pathology report
  • Right 3rd intercostal space, wide excision:
    • Leiomyosarcoma, grade 3 (see comment)
    • Comment: Immunohistochemically, neoplastic cells showed diffuse strong cytoplasmic staining for SMA, desmin and h-caldesmon.
  • Right thigh, excisional biopsy:
    • Nodular fasciitis (see comment)
    • Comment: Immunohistochemically, neoplastic cells were positive for SMA in myofibroblastic pattern (tram track staining) and negative for desmin.
Board review style question #1

Which statement is correct about the SMA immunostaining shown above?

  1. Consistent with the diagnosis of nodular fasciitis
  2. Demonstrates smooth muscle type of SMA staining
  3. Demonstrates tram track SMA staining
  4. Excludes the diagnosis of spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma
Board review style answer #1
B. Demonstrates smooth muscle type of SMA staining

Comment Here

Reference: Actin, alpha smooth muscle type

Adenovirus
Definition / general
  • Antiadenovirus is a cocktail of mouse monoclonal antibodies derived from cell culture supernatant
  • Though there are numerous genera within the Adenoviridae family, the antigen targeted (group specific hexon antigen) in commercially available antiadenovirus cocktails has been selected to detect all known, clinically important adenovirus serotypes
Essential features
  • Antiadenovirus is a cocktail of mouse monoclonal antibodies with nuclear and cytoplasmic staining pattern developed to detect all known serotypes of adenovirus
  • False positives are extremely uncommon
  • Most false negatives (cases with positive viral cytopathic effect and negative IHC) result from exhaustion of the diagnostic tissue
Pathophysiology
  • Double stranded, nonenveloped DNA viruses with a single, nonsegmented linear genome capped by covalently bound terminal proteins at either end of the genome
  • Adenovirus produces nuclear inclusions without cytomegaly
  • Virus binds to coxsackie adenovirus receptor, CD46 (complement regulatory protein), desmoglein 2 or sialic acid (primary receptor used depends on the viral serogroup), followed by viral internalization (Rev Med Virol 2009;19:165, Nat Med 2011;17:96)
  • Viral replication cycle takes ~32 - 36 hours and up to 10,000 virions can be produced; new virions remain in the cell until it degenerates and lyses (Tille: Bailey & Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology, 13th Edition, 2013)
Clinical features
  • Adenoviruses are spread via aerosols, in fecal matter or through close contact
  • Adenovirus infection is especially common in military barracks and college dormitories
  • Children under 14 and immunocompromised patients (including transplant recipients) are especially vulnerable
  • Though certain viral subclasses exhibit seasonality, adenovirus infections occur all year round
  • Reference: Trends Mol Med 2023;29:4
Interpretation
  • Nuclear and cytoplasmic
  • False positives are extremely uncommon
  • Most false negatives (cases with positive viral cytopathic effect and negative IHC) result from exhaustion of the diagnostic tissue (Am J Clin Pathol 2017;147:96)
  • Other limitations of this and other IHC tests are fixation time of tissues, dilution factor of antibody, retrieval method utilized and incubation time; optimal performance should be established through positive and negative controls
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Vikas Mehta, M.D., Maria M. Picken, M.D., Ph.D. and Cullen Lilley, M.S., M.A.

Small bowel adenovirus infection

Coagulative hepatocyte necrosis


Lung biopsy

Renal parenchyma

Positive staining - disease
Electron microscopy images

Contributed by Maria M. Picken, M.D., Ph.D.

Crystalline array

Molecular / cytogenetics description
  • Gene amplification or DNA in situ hybridization can be used for identification
Sample pathology report
  • Kidney, needle core biopsy:
    • Adenovirus nephritis (see comment)
    • Comment: Renal parenchyma with necrotizing tubulointerstitial nephritis is consistent with adenovirus nephritis. Immunohistochemical stain for adenovirus shows nuclear and cytoplasmic expression in affected cells.

  • Liver, needle core biopsy:
    • Adenovirus hepatitis (see comment)
    • Comment: Liver parenchyma with necrotizing hepatitis is consistent with adenovirus hepatitis. Immunohistochemical stain for adenovirus shows nuclear and cytoplasmic expression in affected cells.
Board review style question #1

What is the immunohistochemical staining pattern of adenovirus in adenovirus nephritis?

  1. Cytoplasmic
  2. Dot-like
  3. Nuclear
  4. Nuclear and cytoplasmic
Board review style answer #1
D. Nuclear and cytoplasmic. Of the choices listed, nuclear and cytoplasmic staining is seen in IHC for adenovirus. However, a virus specific diagnosis cannot be made based on the pattern of stain alone, as other stains can show nuclear and cytoplasmic staining. For example, diffuse and strong nuclear or nuclear and cytoplasmic staining involving the basal and parabasal layers of squamous epithelium is seen in p16 testing for HPV (block-like staining). Thus, the diagnosis is based on the antibody specificity while the pattern of stain is helpful. Moreover, the type of infected cell can be helpful in the differential diagnosis (e.g., CMV typically infects endothelium while adenovirus infects epithelial cells, as illustrated in this topic). Cytoplasmic stain is typically seen in IHC for several keratins or other intracytoplasmic proteins; stain for CK20 in Merkel cell carcinoma is an exception. Dot-like stain is typically seen for CK20 in Merkel cell carcinoma. Nuclear stain is positive in IHC for polyoma virus.

Comment Here

Reference: Adenovirus

Adipophilin (pending)
[Pending]

Albumin
Definition / general
  • Most common serum protein
    • 65K protein produced by ALB gene on #4, by liver (Wikipedia)
    • 50% of total plasma protein content; usual serum concentration of 40 g/L
    • Binds to water, bilirubin, calcium, fatty acids, hormones (acts as carrier protein), potassium, sodium, and various drugs
    • Main function of serum albumin is to regulate blood colloidal osmotic pressure
    • Bovine serum albumin (BSA): plasma protein from cows that maintains osmotic pressure in blood plasma for proper distribution of body fluids between intravascular compartments and body tissues
  • Rarely used as IHC marker for liver
Clinical features
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Left: normal liver; right: negative control

Liver and hepatocellular carcinoma


Alcian blue
Definition / general
  • Common "routine" stain (not an immunohistochemical stain) to detect mucins (Wikipedia: Alcian Blue Stain [Accessed 8 August 2018])
  • At pH 2.5, detects acidic mucins
  • At pH 1.0, detects highly acidic mucins
  • Stained parts are blue to bluish green
  • Note: all references below are to pH 2.5 unless otherwise indicated
Uses by pathologists
  • Stains acid-simple, nonsulfated and acid-simple mesenchymal mucins at pH 2.5, acid-complex sulfated mucins at pH 1.0 and acid-complex connective tissue mucins at pH 0.5; does NOT stain neutral mucins
  • PAS-Alcian blue may be best pan mucin combination; PAS also stains glycogen, but predigestion with diastase will remove the glycogen
  • Alcian blue-high iron diamine detects sulfomucins (brown) and sialomucins (blue)
Clinical features
Microscopic (histologic) images

AFIP images and Cases #78, 94 and 110

Bladder: urothelial
carcinoma with
gland-like lumina

Esophagus

Mucin stains of Barrett mucosa


Mucin stains of Barrett mucosa


Heart: myxoma with glandular structures

Kidney: adenocarcinoma (AB-PAS)

Sacrum, Chordoma: stroma stains with Alcian blue

Scrotum: Paget disease

Thyroid gland: signet ring cell variant



Images hosted other servers:

Breast:
mucoepidermoid
carcinoma
(Alcian blue-PAS)

Esophagus, Barrett: GE junction

Eye: macular corneal dystrophy

Gallbladder: pyloric metaplasia

Kidney: mucinous
tubular and
spindle cell
carcinoma

Soft tissue: proliferative fasciitis - AB-PAS

Positive staining - normal
  • Colloid of thyroid gland, goblet cells and mucous glands
Positive staining - disease
  • Adenocarcinoma, adenosquamous carcinoma, mast cell leukemia (Acta Med Croatica 2013;67:61)
  • Mucinous tumors, myxedema (dermal mucin), myxoma (mucoid matrix), nodular mucinosis (breast, other) and Paget disease of scrotum
Negative staining
  • Lipids / lipid entities (lipoma, liposarcoma), Paget disease of esophagus, squamous cell carcinoma (acantholytic variant-breast & other sites, pseudoglandular variant-penis & other sites), xanthelasma

ALK
Definition / general
Essential features
  • ALK overexpression occurs as a result of diverse alterations, including translocation, mutation and amplification / polysomy, among others
  • Tumors harboring ALK translocations are potentially sensitive to ALK inhibitors
  • Pathologists should be aware of the frequency of ALK overexpression and translocations according to tumor type to maximize ALK screening in the appropriate clinical setting
  • Understanding the limitations of testing methodologies is important to avoid pitfalls in interpretation
  • ALK expression in itself is a defining feature of specific entities, which when present, enables tumor classification and subtyping in routine pathology practice.
Pathophysiology
  • Activation of ALK receptor requires ligand binding, which triggers homodimerization and transphosphorylation of its tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) domain
  • ALK is an orphan receptor with no known ligand; heparin is one of the known activating ligands, which promotes ALK signaling through heparin sulfation, leading to ALK dimerization (Science Signaling 2015;8:ra6)
  • Downstream signaling pathways triggered by ALK include STAT3, ERK1 / ERK2, PLC and PI3K / AKT, which upon activation lead to cell proliferation and survival
  • In the inactive state, the ALK receptor promotes apoptosis via caspase 3 activation, leading to kinase inactivation
  • In ALK chromosomal rearrangements, the 3' portion of ALK, which contains the TKI domain, fuses with the 5' of a partner gene that provides the N-terminus with the dimerization domain
  • Fusion chimeric oncoproteins result in constitutive autophosphorylation of the ALK kinase, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation and survival
  • References: Oncol Lett 2019;17:2020, Cancers (Basel) 2019;11:275
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:

ALK signalling pathway

Clinical features
  • Large group of unrelated malignant and benign tumors express ALK; its expression is not a marker of malignant phenotype
  • Prognostic significance of ALK expression depends on tumor type, the underlying molecular mechanism of ALK expression and sensitivity to ALK inhibitors
  • ALK rearrangement predicts response to ALK inhibitors
  • Testing for ALK rearrangements is recommended in all patients with lung adenocarcinomas to guide therapy
  • ALK inhibitors are offered to any ALK rearranged tumor in the advanced or metastatic setting
  • Therapeutic inhibition of ALK fusion oncoproteins is achieved through small molecule TKI, with crizotinib being the first ALK TKI approved by the FDA
  • ALK driven resistance occurs due to secondary mutations in the kinase domain or gene amplification
  • Second (i.e. ceritinib and alectinib) and third (i.e. lorlatinib) generation TKI are used to overcome resistance, including emerging new targets of the ALK signaling pathway (i.e. STAT3, PI3K or ERK / MEK)
  • References: Cancers (Basel) 2019;11:275, Oncol Lett 2019;17:2020
Interpretation
Uses by pathologists
  • ALK immunohistochemistry (IHC) is used as a predictive biomarker of an underlying ALK translocation (or other gene alteration), to identify patients who can potentially benefit from ALK inhibitors
  • Presence of ALK positivity by IHC in the context of specific histological features allows tumor classification in routine pathology practice
  • References: J Clin Pathol 2021 Apr 19 [Epub ahead of print], Arch Pathol Lab Med 2018;142:321
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by A. Cristina Vargas, M.B.B.S., Ph.D., Patricia Guzman, M.D., Fiona Bonar, M.B.B.Ch., Alison Cheah, M.B.B.S. and Martin Jones, M.B.B.S.

ALK rearranged lung adenocarcinoma

ALK IHC in lung adenocarcinoma

Anaplastic large cell lymphoma

ALK IHC in ALCL

Anaplastic large cell lymphoma


ALK IHC in ALCL

Uterine IMT

ALK IHC on uterine IMT

ALK-EML4 spindle cell tumor

ALK-EML4 spindle cell tumor ALK

Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma with ALK


Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma-like ALK

Epithelioid fibrous histiocytoma

ALK IHC in epithelioid fibrous histiocytoma

FUS-TFCP2
rearranged
rhabdomyosarcoma

ALK IHC on
FUS-TFCP2
rhabdomyosarcoma

Positive staining - normal
  • ALK expression in normal tissue is limited to restricted zones of the brain, peripheral nervous system and testis
Positive staining - disease

Table: ALK gene fusion partners according to tumor entity

Tumor type Most common ALK gene fusion partners References
Lung adenocarcinoma EML4 (80%), NPM1, CLTC, TPM3, RANBP2, STRN, ATIC, KIF5B, TPM4, TFG, HIP1, SQSTM1, A2M, KLC1, TPR J Clin Pathol 2021 [Epub ahead of print], Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1226, Oncol Lett 2019;17:2020
Anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL) NPM1 (80%), TPM3, ATIC, TFG, CLTC, MSN, TPM4, MYH9, ALO17, TRAF1, EEF1G, PAPBC1, SQSTM1 Science 1994;263:1281, Semin Diagn Pathol 2020;37:57, Oncol Lett 2019;17:2020
ALK+ primary cutaneous ALCL NPM1, TRAF1, ATIC, TPM3 Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:776
Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor (IMT) TPM3, TPM4, RANBP2, TFG, CARS, ATIC LMNA, PRKAR1A, CLTC, FN1, SEC31A, EML4, DCTN1, PPFIBP1, FN1 Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:957, Oncol Lett 2019;17:2020
Epithelioid IMT RANBP2 Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:135
Spitz tumors DCTN1, TPM3, NPM1, TPR Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:581
Thyroid carcinoma STRN, EML4, TFG, GTF2IRD1, CCDC149, ITSN2, CTSB, PPP1R21, DCTN1 Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:652, Endocr Relat Cancer 2019;26:803, Oncol Lett 2019;17:2020
Renal cell carcinomas TPM3, EML4 , STRN, VCL Genes Chromosomes Cancer 2016;55:442, Oncol Lett 2019;17:2020
Peritoneal mesothelioma STRN, ATG16L1, TPM1 JAMA Oncol 2018;4:235, Am J Surg Pathol 2021;45:653
ALK+ histiocytosis TPM3, KIF5B Mod Pathol 2019;32:598, Am J Surg Pathol 2021;45:347
Salivary gland carcinomas MSN (myoepithelial), CTNNA1 (secretory), STRN, MYO18A (intraductal), HNRNPH3, EML4 (salivary duct) Virchows Arch 2021;478:933, Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:962
Colorectal adenocarcinoma EML4, TPM4, CAD, SPTBN1, SLMAP, DIAPH2, LOC101929227, DIAPH2, STRN Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:1224, Oncol Lett 2019;17:2020
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma EML4, STRN J Natl Compr Canc Netw 2017;15:555
Leiomyosarcoma STK32B, IGFBP5, ACTG2, TNS1, KANK2 Mol Cancer Res 2019;17:676
Mesenchymal spindle cell tumors (S100+ / SOX10- / CD34+) EML4, PPP1CB, CLIP1 Genes Chromosomes Cancer 2021;60:282, Genes Chromosomes Cancer 2018;57:611
Non neural granular cell tumor (NNGCT) DCTN1, SQSTM1 Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:1133
Epithelioid fibrous histiocytoma VCL, SQSTM1 Mod Pathol 2015;28:904
ALK+ large B cell lymphoma CLTC, NPM1, SEC31A, SQSTM1, RANBP2, IGL Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:25

  • ALK overexpression as a result of mutations or other gene alterations
    • Medulloblastomas can harbor ALK somatic or germline mutations (e.g. p.M1199L, c.3605delG), amplification or increased mRNA expression (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:781)
    • Subset of acral melanoma harbors the so called ALKATI isoform, arising from an alternative transcription initiation (Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:786)
Molecular / cytogenetics description
  • Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
    • FISH using break apart (BA) probes is the most widely available technology for detection of ALK gene rearrangements in routine clinical practice
    • Currently, the Vysis ALK Break Apart FISH Probe Kit (Abbott Molecular, Des Plaines, Illinois, USA) is the only approved companion diagnostic tool for crizotinib based treatment eligibility
    • FISH BA positive result is established using a threshold of 15% tumor cells showing either signals separated by at least 2 probe diameters or 3’ isolated red signals (due to deletion of the 5' probe)
    • Isolated 3’ red signal pattern and other atypical signal patterns (5’ green signals or red doublet) can result in false positive and negative results when compared with detection by next generation sequencing
    • Polysomy including increased copy number or amplification detected by FISH does not predict response to therapy with targeted ALK inhibitors
    • Issues associated with discordant IHC and FISH or false negative FISH: complex deletions / rearrangements, cryptic insertions, alterations of ALK promoter and gene amplification
  • Next generation sequencing and mutation testing
Molecular / cytogenetics images

Contributed by A. Cristina Vargas, M.B.B.S., Ph.D.

ALK break apart FISH



Images hosted on other servers:

Break apart signal patterns for ALK rearrangement

Sample pathology report
  • ALK should be reported following the guidelines established for lung adenocarcinoma (e.g. template for biomarker testing established by the College of American Pathologists: Lungbiomarker v1.3.0.2). An example report following this template includes the following:
    • ALK rearrangement by molecular methods
      • Rearrangement identified
        • EML4-ALK
    • Polysomy:
      • Absent
    • ALK by immunohistochemistry
      • Positive: cytoplasmic and nuclear expression (Clone D5F3)
    • ALK rearrangement testing method(s)
      • In situ hybridization (fluorescence [FISH])
      • Immunohistochemistry
        • Ventana ALK (D5F3) immunohistochemistry (IHC) assay
  • Full template of report (College of American Pathologists: Lungbiomarker v1.3.0.2) available in CAP: Cancer Protocol Templates [Accessed 30 June 2021]
Board review style question #1

What is the expected diagnosis for a uterine spindle cell tumor with this histological appearance? The tumor displayed focal smooth muscle expression, strong ALK overexpression on IHC and an ALK translocation was confirmed by FISH.

  1. Endometrial stromal sarcoma
  2. Epitheliod myofibroblastic sarcoma
  3. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor
  4. Leiomyoma
  5. Spindle cell tumor (S100+ / SOX10- / CD34+) with ALK translocations
Board review style answer #1
C. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor

Comment Here

Reference: ALK
Board review style question #2
What are the most common tumors harboring ALK translocations?

  1. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, Spitz tumors, thyroid carcinomas and renal cell carcinomas
  2. Colorectal adenocarcinoma, inflammatory myofibroblastic tumors, anaplastic large cell lymphoma and Merkel cell carcinoma
  3. Lung adenocarcinoma, breast cancer, inflammatory myofibroblastic tumors, rhabdomyosarcoma and Spitz tumors
  4. Lung adenocarcinoma, inflammatory myofibroblastic tumors, anaplastic large cell lymphoma and Spitz tumors
  5. Melanoma, lung adenocarcinoma, inflammatory myofibroblastic tumors and diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Board review style answer #2
D. Lung adenocarcinoma, inflammatory myofibroblastic tumors, anaplastic large cell lymphoma and Spitz tumors

Comment Here

Reference: ALK

Alkaline phosphatase
Definition / general
  • An enzyme histochemical stain that relies on endogenous alkaline phosphatase activity to hydrolyze exogenous alpha naphthyl acid phosphate substrate to form naphthol, which in turn reacts with fast blue RR salt to form a black reaction product (Zhou: A Case-Based Guide to Neuromuscular Pathology, 1st Edition, 2020)
  • Alkaline phosphatase reaction generates air bubbles if the section is cover slipped prematurely; to minimize this, it is advisable to wait at least 45 minutes before placing the coverslip over the stained section
Essential features
Terminology
  • Other names: Gomori alkaline phosphatase stain, nonspecific alkaline phosphatases
Interpretation
  • Assess for black reaction product
Uses by pathologists
Prognostic factors
Microscopic (histologic) description
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Chunyu "Hunter" Cai, M.D., Ph.D.

Normal muscle

Dermatomyositis Mi2

Dermatomyositis NXP2

Antisynthetase syndrome PL7


Antisynthetase syndrome Jo1

Necrotizing autoimmune myopathy HMGCR

Reducing body myopathy

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
  • Myofibers undergoing active necrosis or phagocytosis
  • Duchene muscular dystrophy, limb girdle muscular dystrophy or experimental ischemic myopathy do not show perimysial connective tissue reactivity (Am J Pathol 1980;101:159)
Board review style question #1


In a normal muscle biopsy specimen, which of the following components stains for alkaline phosphatase?

  1. Arterioles
  2. Capillaries
  3. Connective tissue
  4. Muscle fibers
  5. Venules
Board review style answer #1
A. Arterioles

Comment Here

Reference: Alkaline phosphatase

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
Definition / general
  • Alpha fetoprotein is a marker related to embryonic development (yolk sac), mainly used for diagnosing germ cell tumors and liver tumors
  • Overall specific but not sensitive marker
Essential features
  • Positive immunostaining in a subset of hepatocellular carcinomas and hepatoblastomas but also found to be positive in other liver diseases
  • Positive immunostaining can be found in the various patterns of yolk sac tumor but also can be positive in teratoma
  • Positive in various tumors with hepatoid differentiation
Terminology
Pathophysiology
Clinical features
  • High serum levels in several conditions:
  • Specific serum isoforms: L1, in nonneoplastic liver disease; L2, in yolk sac tumor; L3, in liver cancer
    • Both L2 and L3 can be elevated in pediatric yolk sac tumor, reflecting both yolk sac and hepatic differentiation (J Pediatr Surg 1989;24:350)
  • Elevations in maternal serum and amniotic fluid may indicate fetal abnormalities, including neural tube defects (Am J Obstet Gynecol 2006;195:1623)
  • Serum levels drop after birth (still elevated until around 6 months of age, needing care in interpretation); small amounts still produced in adults (Annu Rev Med 1977;28:453)
  • Serum AFP increases in 50 - 70% of patients with nonseminoma germ cell tumors; half life is 5 to 7 days; prominent elevations in pure seminomas usually indicate yolk sac differentiation in metastatic locations; patients should be treated as having mixed germ cell tumor (Nat Rev Urol 2020;17:201)
Interpretation
  • Membranous or cytoplasmic staining is expected; granular
Uses by pathologists
  • Supporting the diagnosis of germ cell tumors (testicular, ovarian or extragonadal), especially those with identifiable yolk sac tumor foci (Mod Pathol 2005;18:S61)
  • Supporting the diagnosis of hepatocellular disease (including nonneoplastic diseases such as chronic hepatitis, and neoplastic diseases such as hepatocellular carcinoma and hepatoblastoma) (World J Gastroenterol 2005;11:5015)
  • Confirming suspected hepatoid foci within other neoplasms or confirming that tumor cells produce AFP in case of remarkable elevations of this marker in patient serum (Mod Pathol 1997;10:686)
Prognostic factors
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by João Lobo, M.D., Rui Henrique, M.D., Ph.D.

Prepubertal testicular yolk sac tumor

Prepubertal testicular yolk sac tumor, AFP

Prepubertal testicular yolk sac tumor

Prepubertal testicular yolk sac tumor, AFP

Metastatic yolk sac tumor

Metastatic yolk sac tumor, AFP


Testicular mixed germ cell tumor

Testicular mixed germ cell tumor, AFP

Fetal liver

Fetal liver, AFP

Hepatoblastoma

Hepatoblastoma, AFP

Virtual slides

Images hosted on other servers:

Ovarian yolk sac tumor, AFP

Yolk sac tumor in undescended testis, AFP

Positive staining - normal
  • Well fixed and nonautolyzed embryonal liver is a reliable positive control
  • Early gut, yolk sac; nonspecific background reaction frequent in necrotic and cystic areas, since it is a protein secreted in serum (Int J Dev Biol 2012;56:755)
  • Low expression in normal adult liver (EBioMedicine 2018;33:57)
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
  • Germ cell neoplasia in situ (GCNIS)
  • Seminoma
  • Embryonal carcinoma
  • Choriocarcinoma
  • Gonadoblastoma
  • Spermatocytic tumor
  • Teratoma: can be positive in some epithelial components (20%) (Acta Pathol Microbiol Immunol Scand A 1983;91:165)
  • Hepatoblastoma (15%): not significantly associated with subtype (Eur J Cancer 2012;48:1853)
  • Cholangiocarcinoma
  • Metastatic adenocarcinomas to the liver (5%)
Board review style question #1

Which of the following is true about the immunohistochemical expression of AFP?

  1. It can be positive in other liver diseases besides hepatocellular carcinoma and hepatoblastoma
  2. It is more sensitive than glypican 3 for diagnosing yolk sac tumor
  3. Nuclear staining is expected
  4. Seminomas are typically positive
  5. Teratomas are invariably negative
Board review style answer #1
A. It can be positive in other liver diseases besides hepatocellular carcinoma and hepatoblastoma. It is a specific marker but less sensitive than glypican 3. Seminomas are typically negative. Cytoplasmic or membrane staining is expected. Teratomas may show positivity in certain epithelial elements. Other liver diseases and liver tumors can show positive immunostaining, including metastatic disease to the liver.

Comment Here

Reference: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

Alpha-1 antitrypsin
Definition / general
Essential features
  • Intracytoplasmic globules in hepatocytes, preferentially in zone 1 near the portal tracts; can be patchy
  • Alpha-1 antitrypsin positive globules will also be highlighted by periodic acid-Schiff diastase (PASD) stain
  • Presence of alpha-1 antitrypsin globules does not differentiate between homozygous versus heterozygous deficiency states (J Hepatol 2000;32:406)
  • Expressed in a variety of tumors and pathologic processes, though not commonly used for diagnostic purposes in such entities
Terminology
  • Sometimes abbreviated AAT or A1AT
Pathophysiology
Clinical features
  • See Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency in Liver & intrahepatic ducts chapter
  • AAT deficiency is highly underdiagnosed
    • Due to overlap of clinical symptoms, testing should be performed in individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), liver disease, poorly responsive asthma, cANCA vasculitis, panniculitis or bronchiectasis, in addition to first degree relatives of people with AAT deficiency (N Engl J Med 2020;382:1443)
Interpretation
Uses by pathologists
  • To diagnose alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency in the appropriate clinical context
    • Initial laboratory test is serum AAT, which is decreased in AAT deficiency (< 1.1 g/L)
    • Correlation with enzyme phenotype (e.g., PiMZ or PiZZ) is recommended to confirm the diagnosis and determine heterozygous versus homozygous deficiency state
    • Note: there is no direct correlation between the serum AAT value, the Pi phenotype and the presence or absence of immunoreactive periportal AAT granules; thus, IHC alone cannot confirm or exclude AAT deficiency (J Clin Pathol 1986;39:58)
  • Can be used to study AAT protein expression within the human liver or exogenous AAT that is delivered through gene therapy (Methods Mol Biol 2017;1639:139)
Prognostic factors
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Avani Pendse, M.D., Ph.D.
Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic globules

Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic globules

PASD positive intracytoplasmic globules

PASD positive intracytoplasmic globules

lpha-1-antitrypsin IHC

Alpha-1 antitrypsin IHC

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
  • A1AT globules seen in the livers of patients with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol 2012;10:575)
  • Pitfall: globules can sometimes also be seen in cirrhotic livers of any etiology
  • Various tumor types have been shown to have positive AAT staining; however, such immunohistochemistry is currently not used for diagnosis of specific tumor types
Negative staining
Molecular / cytogenetics description
Sample pathology report
  • Liver, random, ultrasound guided needle core biopsy:
    • Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (see comment)
    • Comment: Scattered hepatocytes with PAS diastase positive intracytoplasmic globules, highlighted by immunohistochemistry for alpha-1 antitrypsin, suggestive of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Correlation with laboratory testing for serum levels and alpha-1 antitrypsin phenotype is recommended.
Board review style question #1

A 38 year old man with clinical concern for early onset liver fibrosis has longstanding mild to moderate elevation in transaminases. Viral hepatitis serology is negative and there is no recent history of medication changes or herbal supplement use. A liver biopsy was performed and showed mild portal inflammation with no significant interface activity. A trichrome stain showed bridging fibrosis. Many hepatocytes showed periodic acid-Schiff diastase (PASD) positive cytoplasmic globules. What is the likely etiology of the patient's liver disease and the confirmatory immunohistochemistry that would aid with diagnosis?

  1. Alcohol; glutamine synthetase
  2. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency; alpha-1 antitrypsin
  3. Autoimmune hepatitis; CD138
  4. Steatohepatitis; heat shock protein
  5. Viral hepatitis; hepatitis B surface antigen
Board review style answer #1
B. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency; alpha-1 antitrypsin. Answers A, C, D and E are incorrect because although liver fibrosis has a variety of etiologies, intracytoplasmic globules that express alpha-1 antitrypsin in hepatocytes are compatible with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.

Comment Here

Reference: Alpha-1 antitrypsin

Alpha-1-antichymotrypsin
Definition / general
  • Also called α1-ACT
  • Acute phase protein / plasma protease inhibitor, mainly produced by liver in response to cytokines such as oncostatin M
  • May limit tissue damage produced by excessive inflammation associated proteolysis
  • Also localizes to nuclei of hepatic cells to control chromatin condensation and proliferation (Gastroenterology 2013;144:818)
  • Homologous to alpha-1-antitrypsin
  • Chymotrypsin is digestive enzyme produced by pancreas
Clinical features
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Breast: primary acinic cell carcinoma (fig F)

Skin: nevi and melanoma

Stomach: hepatoid
adenocarcinoma
(fig C)

Positive staining - normal
  • Histiocytes, reticulum cells
Positive staining - tumors
  • Acinic / acinar cell carcinomas of breast, pancreas, salivary gland tumors
  • Hepatoid adenocarcinoma of stomach (World J Gastroenterol 2013;19:4437)
  • Solid-pseudopapillay neoplasm of pancreas

Alpha-synuclein
Definition / general
  • Member of the synuclein family of soluble proteins (alpha-synuclein, beta-synuclein and gamma-synuclein) that are commonly present in CNS of vertebrates
  • Expressed in the neocortex, hippocampus, substantia niagra, thalamus and cerebellum
  • Main location is within the presynaptic terminals of neurons in both membrane-bound and cytosolic free forms
  • Can be seen in neuroglial cells and melanocytic cells; highly expressed in the neuronal mitochondria of the olfactory bulb, hippocampus, striatum and thalamus
  • Three isoforms have been isolated by alternative splicing
    • Most research is the full length isoform with 140 amino acids
    • Others are alpha-synuclein-112 and alpha-synuclein-126 (Wikipedia)
Uses by pathologists
  • Diagnosis of (a) Parkinson disease (PD) / brainstem predominant type of Lewy body disease, and (b) dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), the two most frequent synucleinopathies.
Clinical features
  • Forms insoluble aggregates in the group of pathological disorders known as synucleopathies, characterized by:
    • Formation of neuronal Lewy bodies and Lewy neurites in idiopathic Parkinson disease and dementia with Lewy bodies
    • Oligodendroglial cytoplasmic inclusions in multiple system atrophy
    • Large axonal spheroids in several rarer neuroaxonal dystrophies
  • Both the sporadic and the familial form of Alzheimer disease also demonstrate alpha-synuclein protein
  • In recent years, several studies have shown that alpha-synuclein aggregation can also be detected outside the central nervous system, particularly in the enteric nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract of PD patients using immunohistochemistry
  • This has the potential to enable an early diagnosis of the disease as well as enhance the neuroprotective effects of the available therapeutic modalities
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Meenakshi Vij Gupta, M.D.

Lewy body in Parkinson disease

Cellular inclusions and neuritis plaques

Positive stains
  • Brain tissue: neocortex, hippocampus, substantia niagra, thalamus and cerebellum (within the presynaptic terminals of neurons in both membrane bound and cytosolic free forms)
    • Olfactory bulb, hippocampus, striatum and thalamus (highly expressed in mitochondria)
    • Also neuroglial cells, melanocytic cells

AMACR
Definition / general
  • Alpha methylacyl CoA racemase (AMACR) is a mitochondrial and peroxisomal enzyme, a 382 amino acid protein essential in lipid metabolism, encoded by a 1621 bp sequence gene, located on chromosome 5p13 (J Clin Pathol 2003;56:892)
  • One of the most widely used markers of prostate carcinoma, because this protein is upregulated in prostate carcinoma and not found in benign prostate tissue (J Clin Pathol 2003;56:892, Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:e6)
Essential features
  • Cytoplasmic expression is seen in prostate adenocarcinoma (80%), colon adenocarcinoma (90%) and in many other cancers, including ovarian, lung cancers, lymphoma and melanoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:926)
Terminology
  • P504S (antibody against AMACR)
Pathophysiology
  • AMACR catalyzes the racemization of alpha methyl branched carboxylic coenzyme A thioesters and this enzyme is essential in the oxidation of bile acid intermediates and branched chain fatty acids (J Clin Pathol 2003;56:892)
  • Phytanic acid, present in red meat and dairy products, is one of the primary substrates of AMACR and has been found to be elevated in prostate adenocarcinoma (Prostate 2011;71:498)
  • AMACR is important in the pharmacological activation of ibuprofen and related drugs (Bioorg Chem 2019;92:103264)
Clinical features
  • Adult onset sensory motor neuropathy is developed due to mutations in the AMACR gene, associated with reduced enzyme activity (J Clin Pathol 2003;56:892)
  • Diets rich in dairy products and red meat increases the risk for developing prostate cancer, because dairy products and red meat are the major dietary sources of the branched chain fatty acid substrates of AMACR / P504S (J Clin Pathol 2003;56:892)
  • AMACR gene polymorphisms (D175G and M9V polymorphisms) are thought to affect the expression of the enzyme and might be risk factors for prostate cancer (Asian Pac J Cancer Prev 2015;16:1857, Prostate 2008;68:1373)
Interpretation
  • Cytoplasmic granular staining pattern
Uses by pathologists
Prognostic factors
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Jonathan Epstein, M.D., Debra Zynger, M.D.

Prostate adenocarcinoma, triple stain

RCC papillary type 1 with AMACR

Positive staining - normal
  • Kidney:
  • GI / liver:
    • Hepatocytes and epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract show moderate cytoplasmic staining
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Board review style question #1
Biopsy of a lymph node shows metastasis of an unknown tumor. Which immunohistochemical panel is consistent with primary prostate carcinoma?

  1. AE1 / AE3-, S100+, MelanA+, AMACR+
  2. AMACR+, CDX2+, CK20+
  3. AMACR+, p63-, HMWCK-, NKX3.1+
  4. AMACR+, p63+, HMWCK+, NKX3.1-
Board review style answer #1
C. AMACR+, p63-, HMWCK-, NKX3.1+

Comment Here

Reference: AMACR
Board review style question #2

Transurethral resection of the urinary bladder reveals a neoplastic proliferation, composed of small glandular structures, which are positive for AMACR and NKX3.1. What is the diagnosis?

  1. Adenocarcinoma of the urinary bladder, intestinal type
  2. Clear cell adenocarcinoma urinary bladder
  3. Invasive urothelial carcinoma
  4. Prostate adenocarcinoma (metastatic or direct invasion)
Board review style answer #2
D. Prostate adenocarcinoma (metastatic or direct invasion)

Comment Here

Reference: AMACR
Board review style question #3

Biopsy of the paraaortal lymph node of a 60 year old man shows metastatic tumor (figure A), which is positive for 34 beta E12 (figure B) and AMACR (figure C) but negative for NKX3.1 (figure D). The tumor is also positive for GATA and CK7 (not shown) but negative for CDX2 (not shown). What is the diagnosis?

  1. Metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma
  2. Metastatic prostate adenocarcinoma
  3. Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma
  4. Metastatic urothelial cell carcinoma
Board review style answer #3
D. Metastatic urothelial cell carcinoma

Comment Here

Reference: AMACR
Board review style question #4

In the resection specimen of the urinary bladder of a 60 year old man with known invasive high grade urothelial cell carcinoma and multifocal carcinoma in situ, a glandular and cystic lesion was found under the urothelial lining (see image). The lesion is positive for PAX8 and AMACR. What is the diagnosis?

  1. Invasive urothelial cell carcinoma
  2. Metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma
  3. Metastatic prostate adenocarcinoma
  4. Nephrogenic adenoma
Board review style answer #4
D. Nephrogenic adenoma

Comment Here

Reference: AMACR

Amyloid beta and amyloid beta precursor protein
Definition / general
  • Amyloid beta (A4) precursor protein (APP) is part of the type 1 transmembrane protein family
  • The APP gene is located on chromosome 21 and encodes for a cell surface receptor and transmembrane precursor protein
  • There are three homologs of APP: APP, APLP1 and APLP2 (Mol Neurodegener 2011;6:27)
  • Cleavage of APP sequentially by beta secretase (rate limiting step) and gamma secretase produces beta amyloid (amyloid beta, A4, Abeta) peptides of 40 - 43 amino acids, as well as other peptides that have transcriptional, antimicrobial, or antifungal activities (Curr Opin Neurol 2000;13:377)
    • The beta amyloid sequence is unique to APP and is not present in APLP1 or APLP2
  • Cleavage of the precursor protein by gamma secretase is not precise and thus generates different forms of beta amyloid with Abeta40 being the most abundant, accounting for 80 - 90% of the beta amyloid that is produced (J Alzheimers Dis 2010;19:311)
  • Beta amyloid peptides polymerize to form oligomers that then form fibrils or plaques
  • Oligomers and fibrils of beta amyloid are deposited in the brain and in the cerebrovascular system; these deposits lead to the development of Alzheimer disease and cerebral amyloid angiopathy
  • The Abeta42 form accounts for 5 - 10% of the amyloid beta peptides but is more hydrophilic and prone to fibril formation; it is the main form that is deposited in the brain
  • Beta amyloid oligomers are also seen in inclusion body myositis and lewy body dementia
  • Mutations in the APP gene lead to autosomal dominant / familial Alzheimer disease type 1, that accounts for less than 5% of Alzheimer cases and comprises 10 - 15% of early onset familial Alzheimer disease (Eur Neurol 1995;35:8, Am J Hum Genet 1999;65:664, Genet Med 2011;13:597)
  • Mutations in APP also lead to autosomal dominant hereditary cerebral hemorrhage with amyloidosis-Dutch type (Neuropathology 2005;25:288)
Essential features
  • Amyloid beta precursor protein is cleaved into several peptides with different functions, including beta amyloid
  • There are several forms of beta amyloid peptides that aggregate to form oligomers and fibrils that are deposited in the brain and cerebral vasculature causing disease
  • Studies suggest that beta amyloid oligomers, not the fibrils, are the neurotoxic form (J Neurosci 1999;19:8876, Nature 2002;418:291, PNAS 1998;95:6448)
  • Mutations in APP lead to autosomal dominant Alzheimer disease and hereditary cerebral hemorrhage with amyloidosis-Dutch type, a type of cerebral amyloid angiopathy
  • The association of beta amyloid deposits to the degree of dementia is weak at best
  • Beta amyloid deposits in the brain and vasculature can be found in healthy, cognitively normal people
Terminology
  • Amyloid beta precursor protein is also known as APP, AAA, AD1, PN2, ABPP, APPI, CVAP, ABETA, PN-II, CTFgamma
  • Beta amyloid is also referred to as amyloid beta, Abeta, or A4
Epidemiology
Sites
  • The amyloid beta precursor protein is expressed in central nervous system as well as other normal tissues
  • Beta amyloid oligomers and fibrils are generally found in the central nervous system and cerebral vasculature
Pathophysiology
  • Beta amyloid peptides produced by cleavage of APP polymerize to form oligomers and then fibrils or plaques
  • The accumulation of beta amyloid plaques in the brain (extracellular) and in the media and adventitia of medium and small arteries of the cerebral cortex and leptomeninges contributes to the development and progression of Alzheimer disease and cerebral amyloid angiopathy (Curr Med Chem 2009;16:2498)
  • Recent studies have suggested that the oligomeric form of beta amyloid is the neurotoxic form that contributes to the pathology of beta amyloid
  • The apolipoprotein E E4 allele is speculated to prevent the suppression of amyloid production or the clearance of amyloid
Etiology
  • Some beta amyloid peptides are unstable in free form and thus polymerize to form fibrils and plaques
  • Accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is dependent on the rate of production and clearance out of the brain
  • Neurotoxicity of beta amyloid and Tau (a microtubule-associated protein) deposits are thought to contribute significantly to Alzheimer disease, but the etiology of Alzheimer disease and cerebral amyloid angiopathy is not known
Clinical features
  • Alzheimer disease: progressive memory loss and cognitive impairment, mood and personality changes, depression, anxiety – in part due to the accumulation of beta amyloid deposits in the brain

  • Cerebral amyloid angiopathy: dementia, intracranial hemorrhage – due to beta amyloid deposits in the vasculature
Diagnosis
  • Beta amyloid can be detected using Congo red staining, immunohistochemical staining or PET imaging

  • Alzheimer disease: the presence of beta amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles is essential for the diagnosis of Alzheimer disease (Alzheimer Dementia 2012;8:1) but is not pathognomonic for the disease – beta amyloid plaques may be seen in normal aging and neurofibrillary tangles can be present in other neurodegenerative disorders

  • Cerebral amyloid angiopathy: clinical and MRI evidence of hemorrhage or hematomas with cortical biopsy demonstrating vascular amyloid deposition (Ann Neruol 2004;55:250)

  • Histologic evaluation of vessels is required for definitive diagnosis
Laboratory
  • Levels of beta amyloid are generally low in the cerebrospinal fluid of Alzheimer patients and cerebral amyloid angiopathic patients
Radiology description
  • Guidelines for the use of PET imaging in differentiating Alzheimer disease from other types of dementia are set by the Amyloid Imaging Taskforce
  • PET imaging uses 3 FDA approved beta amyloid tracers (florbetapir F 18, flutemetamol F18 and florbetaben F18) to detect beta amyloid deposits in the brain (Arch Neurol 2011;68:1404, JAMA 2011;305:275, Alzheimer Dis Assoc Disord 2012;26:8)
Prognostic factors
  • Mutations in APP that lead to early onset Alzheimer disease result in a more aggressive disease and rapid course

  • Cerebral amyloid angiopathy:
    • Lobar intracranial hemorrhages have a better prognosis than hypertensive deep ganglionic bleeds
    • 25 - 40% recurrence rate, which are associated with increased mortality (up to 40%); patients are at highest risk in the first year
Case reports
Treatment
  • There are no effective therapies for APP or the accumulation of beta amyloid
  • Symptomatic treatment of Alzheimer disease include drugs that modulate neurotransmitters (Ach and NMDA) and psychotropic medications
  • Treatment of cerebral amyloid angiopathy includes standard therapy for intracranial hemorrhage, steroids and immunosuppressants for patients with co-existing vasculitis
Microscopic (histologic) description
  • Beta amyloid:
    • Extracellular cortical deposits
    • Pink amorphous extracellular material surrounded by a halo
    • May also be surrounded by dystrophic / degenerating neurites and reactive glia, cotton wool plaques, amyloid lakes, subpial bands
    • Homogenous, eosinophilic substance in vessel wall, may have a smudged appearance; fibrinoid necrosis in amyloid-laden vessels
    • Yellow-green birefringence with Congo red stain and polarization

  • Immunohistochemical staining for APP is cytoplasmic
  • Subcellular localization in golgi apparatus of APP seen in human cell line U-2 OS
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Enhancement of
formic acid mediated
amyloid beta peptide
antigen retrieval

IHC of beta
amyloiddeposits
in the cerebral cortex
and blood vessels

Virtual slides

Images hosted on other servers:

Cancer tissue samples - colorectal, breast, prostate, lung, testis found under "protein expression"

Positive stains
  • Weak to moderate APP staining in neuronal cells
  • Weak positive APP staining has also been noted in other normal tissues such as the GI tract and male reproductive system
  • Weak to moderate cytoplasmic APP staining is seen in many malignant tissues with strong staining noted in some testicular and urothelial cancer tissues
Negative stains
  • APP: normal liver and skeletal tissue
Flow cytometry description
Electron microscopy description
Molecular / cytogenetics description
  • Pathogenic mutations in APP are generally missense or nonsense mutations (but can also include deletions, insertions and splice site mutations) and mainly occur in exons 16 and 17
  • Clinical sequence analysis or mutation scanning may be performed for the entire gene or restricted to exons 16 and 17 only
  • Duplication mutations of APP are detected by FISH analysis and account for less than 1% of the pathogenic mutations in APP (Nat Genet 2006;38:24)

Androgen receptor (AR)
Definition / general
  • Androgen receptor (AR) is a member of the superfamily of ligand responsive transcription regulators
  • It functions in the nucleus where it is believed to act as a transcriptional regulator mediating the action of androgens
  • 918 amino acid protein encoded by a single copy gene on X q11 - q12
Essential features
  • Expressed variably by both ER / PR+ as well as ER / PR- breast cancers
  • Most useful for triple negative breast cancer, luminal androgen subtype
  • Detected by IHC or gene classifier (molecular testing)
  • Predicts favorable prognosis in early stage disease based on current studies, some controversy exists
  • Ongoing trials to study the effect of androgen receptor targeted therapy in
    • AR+ triple negative breast cancer
    • Hormone receptor positive metastatic breast cancer
    • HER2+ metastatic breast cancer
Pathophysiology
  • Expressed in two types of mammary epithelial cells:
    • Metaplastic apocrine cells (lack ER / PR)
    • Luminal epithelial cells (5 - 30%) (co-expressed with ER / PR)
Diagnosis
  • May be detected by gene classifier or IHC
  • Any nuclear IHC staining in tumor cells is considered as positive result but further subdivided into subgroups with 1 - 10% and > 10% positive staining
Clinical features
Uses by pathologists
  • Apocrine marker
  • Breast carcinoma marker helpful in determining primary site of metastases
  • Paget disease marker
  • Sebaceous carcinoma marker; may help differentiate from squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas (Am J Clin Pathol 2010;134:22)
Treatment
Microscopic (histologic) description
  • Nuclear stain in tumor cells is quantified
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Monika Roychowdhury, M.D.

Skin metastatic breast carcinoma 20x

Androgen receptor
in metastatic breast
carcinoma 20x

Skin metastatic breast carcinoma 40x

Androgen receptor
in metastatic breast
carcinoma 40x



Case #214

Salivary gland AR-
low grade cribriform
cystadenocarcinoma



Images hosted on other servers:

Breast: apocrine DCIS

Breast: apocrine metaplasia

Prostate carcinoma
metastatic to bone

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Board review style question #1
Androgen receptor testing is most useful in:

  1. ER+, PR+, HER2+ breast tumor
  2. ER+, PR+, HER2- breast tumor
  3. ER-, PR-, HER2+ breast tumor
  4. ER-, PR-, HER2- breast tumor
Board review style answer #1
D. ER-, PR-, HER2- breast tumor

Comment Here

Reference: Androgen receptor (AR)

Arginase1
Definition / general
  • Binuclear manganese metalloenzyme that catalyzes hydrolysis of arginine to ornithine and urea (Wikipedia: Arginase [Accessed 3 August 2023)
  • Also called liver arginase
  • Critical regulator of nitric oxide synthesis and vascular function
  • Defects cause vascular disease, pulmonary disease, infectious disease, immune cell function or cancer
  • Argininemia: rare autosomal recessive disorder of urea cycle due to mutations in arginase gene; arginine is elevated in blood and cerebrospinal fluid, causes periodic hyperammonemia, associated with developmental delay, seizures, intellectual disability, hypotonia, ataxia and progressive spastic quadriplegia (OMIM: 207800 [Accessed 3 August 2023])
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by GenomeMe and Cell Marque Corporation

Colon (normal), clone IHC400

Liver (normal), clone IHC400

HCC - nuclear and cytoplasmic staining



Images hosted on other servers:

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Moderately differentiated HCC

Liver: benign and hepatocellular carcinoma


Metastatic colonic adenocarcinoma to liver

Cholangiocarcioma

Lung: TB related granulomas

Positive staining - normal
  • Hepatocytes
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining - disease

ARID1A
Definition / general
  • AT Rich Interactive Domain 1A (SWI-like) tumor suppressor gene at 1p36.11 encodes BAF250A, a member of the SWI/SNF ATP-dependent chromatin-remodeling complexes (J Gynecol Oncol 2013;24:376)
  • Involved in tissue development and cellular differentiation
  • Inactivation of components of chromatin-remodeling complex are associated with malignancy
    • Most ARID1A somatic mutations are frame-shift or nonsense mutations that contribute to mRNA decay and loss of protein expression
    • 5% of ARID1A mutations are in-frame insertions or deletions (indels) that involve only a small stretch of peptides (Neoplasia 2012;14:986)
Clinical features
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:

Gene map, regulation of chromatin structure

Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Cervix: borderline seromucinous tumors

Ovary: clear cell carcinoma (A, B)

Ovary: endometriotic cyst and associated well-differentiated endometrioid carcinoma


Stomach: gastric carcinoma

Uterus: endometrioid carcinoma

Uterus: endometriosis (G-I)

Positive staining - normal
  • Normal tissue shows ARID1A staining
Negative stains
  • Various tumors (see above) show loss of ARID1A staining

AT8 (pending)
[Pending]

ATDX (ATRX)
Definition / general
  • Alpha-Thalassemia/intellectual Disability syndrome X-linked
  • Chromatin remodelling protein important in DNA replication, telomere stability, gene transcription, chromosome congression and cohesion during cell division (Epigenetics 2013;8:3)
  • Member of SWI/SNF protein family of DNA dependent ATPases
  • Is recruited to site of DNA damage; required for efficient checkpoint activation and faithful replication restart (J Biol Chem 2013;288:6342)
  • Death domain-associated protein (Daxx) cooperates with ATRX
Terminology
  • Previously termed Alpha Thalassemia / Mental Retardation syndrome
Clinical features
Uses by pathologists
  • See clinical features above
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Neuroblastoma

Pancreas: ALT+ tumors

Pancreas: MEN1
microadenoma and
pancreatic neuroendocrine
tumor


ATM
Definition / general
  • Ataxia telangiectasia mutated (ATM), on chromosome 11q22-23, was discovered in 1995 as the single gene, which when mutated causes ataxia telangiectasia (Science 1995;268:1749)
  • Early integral component of the DNA damage response pathway, which is recruited to the site of genetic damage and affects cell cycle arrest (Trends Biochem Sci 2006;31:402)
Essential features
  • Gene mutation responsible for ataxia telangiectasia
  • Integral early component of DNA damage response pathway, without which cells are prone to accumulating mutations and genetic instability
  • Apart from ataxia telangiectasia, also manifests clinically as sensitivity to radiation induced DNA damage and susceptibility to a number of cancers in heterozygote carriers as well as homozygotes
  • Immunostaining for ATM currently restricted to research, though publications have shown relationship to prognosis and treatment response in a number of cancer types
Pathophysiology
  • Loss of function mutations lead to inability to repair DNA damage that accumulates endogenously with metabolic processes, replication errors during cell division or with exposure to exogenous agents (EMBO J 2008;27:589)
  • Subsequent genetic instability, defective reparative response to DNA double strand breaks from ionizing radiation and telomeric shortening with premature cellular senescence contributes to the 2 main clinical manifestations: ataxia telangiectasia and predisposition to cancers (Orphanet J Rare Dis 2016;11:159)
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:
ATM in DNA<br>damage response

ATM in DNA
damage response

ATM signaling network

ATM signaling network

Clinical features
  • Ataxia telangiectasia: autosomal recessive inherited condition with cerebellar ataxia, telangiectatic vessels, immunodeficiency, radiation sensitivity and susceptibility to cancers (Orphanet J Rare Dis 2016;11:159)
  • Malignancies typically associated with ataxia telangiectasia include mainly lymphomas and leukemias, especially in childhood and additionally breast, gastric and liver cancers in adulthood (J Clin Oncol 2015;33:202)
  • Increased risk for cancer also seen in ATM mutation carriers, mainly breast and gastrointestinal tract cancers (Clin Genet 2016;90:105)
Interpretation
  • Both nuclear and cytoplasmic staining patterns have been reported
Uses by pathologists
  • No current routine clinical use
Prognostic factors
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Joo-Shik Shin, M.B.B.S., Ph.D.
Rectal adenocarcinoma

Rectal adenocarcinoma

Positive staining - normal
  • Most normal tissues expected to show some level of staining; for instance, large bowel mucosal epithelium both adjacent to and away from rectal adenocarcinoma (PLoS One 2016;11:e0167675)
Positive staining - disease
Molecular / cytogenetics description
  • Loss of ATM found in genomic analysis of nodal, splenic marginal zone and lymphoplasmacytic lymphomas (Mod Pathol 2012;25:651)

B72.3
Definition / general
  • Definition: monoclonal antibody that recognizes tumor-associated glyocoprotein 72 (TAG-72), a mucin-like sugar and protein complex on the surface of many cancer cells
  • Antibody is directed against the Sialyl-Tn blood group antigen
Interpretation
  • Cytoplasmic staining
Uses by pathologists
Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - malignant
  • Angiosarcoma-epithelioid, breast apocrine carcinoma (92%), breast ductal carcinoma, colonic adenocarcinoma, endometrial carcinoma, esophageal squamous cell carcinoma, lung adenocarcinoma, ovarian serous tumors and implants, pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma and intraductal oncocytic papillary neoplasm, prostatic adenocarcinoma, salivary gland carcinoma including duct carcinoma, mucoepidermoid carcinoma (Laryngoscope 1994;104:304) and malignant mixed tumor; testicular ovarian surface epithelial-like tumor, testicular serous papillary carcinoma, vulvar Paget’s disease
Negative stains

Normal tissue:
  • Mesothelial cells, most benign cells except colon, duodenum, endometrium, gastric

Disease:
  • Adrenocortical adenoma, adrenocortical carcinoma, anaplastic meningioma, lung small cell carcinoma, mesothelial cell inclusions in lymph nodes, mesothelial cysts in the kidney, mesothelioma, ovarian adnexal tumor of probable wolffian origin, ovarian primary retroperitoneal mucinous cystadenoma, ovarian small cell carcinoma-hypercalcemic type
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Bronchioalveolar carcinoma
of lung: A-H&E, B-cytoplasmic
staining for CEA, C-cytoplasmic
staining for B72.3


BAP1
Definition / general
  • BAP1: BRCA1 Associated Protein-1, located on chromosome 3p21.1
  • Loss of BAP1 expression in tumor nuclei is associated with poor patient prognosis in several cancers
  • Loss of BAP1 expression can be used to differentiate certain malignant lesions from benign proliferations
Essential features
  • BAP1 is functionally a tumor suppressor (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2014;111:285)
  • BAP1 is a deubiquitinase that associates with multiprotein complexes that regulate key cellular pathways, including the cell cycle, cellular differentiation, cell death, gluconeogenesis and the DNA damage response (Nat Rev Cancer 2013;13:153)
  • Used by pathologists for:
    • Prognostication of uveal melanoma
    • Differentiation of metastatic uveal melanoma (at least 77% negative) from metastatic skin melanoma (5% negative) (Br J Cancer 2014;111:1373, Nat Genet 2011;43:1018)
    • Differentiation of mesothelioma from benign mesothelial proliferation
Terminology
  • BAP1
  • UCHL2
  • Hucep-6
  • HUCEP-13
Pathophysiology
  • Ubiquitin tag promotes breakdown of certain proteins
  • BAP1 removes ubiquitin tags, thereby inhibiting protein breakdown, which affects diverse cellular processes
  • BAP1 is thought to help inhibit cell proliferation and promote apoptosis of damaged cells
  • BAP1 protein is normally localized in the cell nucleus due to the presence of a nuclear localization sequence (NLS)
    • In the presence of a ubiquitin conjugating enzyme (UBE20), NLS will be covered with ubiquitin localizing the BAP1 protein in the cytoplasm
    • Wild type BAP1 protein has the capability to remove the ubiquitin and hence is able to enter back into the nucleus
    • Mutated BAP1 protein loses its autodeubiquitination property and remains in the cytoplasm (Ocul Oncol Pathol 2020;6:129)
  • BAP1 cytogenetic location: 3p21.1
  • Molecular location: base pairs 52,401,004 to 52,410,030 on chromosome 3
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:

BAP1 protein localization

Missing Image Missing Image

BAP1 interactions

Clinical features
Interpretation
  • Nuclear staining: any visible nuclear staining above background is sufficient for positive classification
  • Degree of cytoplasmic staining is prognostically irrelevant but has shown some correlation with gene expression class 2 in uveal melanoma (associated with poor prognosis) (Ocul Oncol Pathol 2020;6:129)
Uses by pathologists
  • For prognostication of uveal melanoma: lack of BAP1 expression in tumor nuclei associated with significantly shorter metastasis free survival (Ophthalmology 2018;125:203)
  • For differentiation of metastatic uveal melanoma (at least 77% negative) from metastatic skin melanoma (5% negative) (Br J Cancer 2014;111:1373, Nat Genet 2011;43:1018)
  • For differentiation of mesothelioma from benign mesothelial proliferation: in biopsies initially interpreted as reactive mesothelial proliferation, BAP1 loss was 100% predictive of malignancy (Mod Pathol 2015;28:1043)
Prognostic factors
Microscopic (histologic) description
  • Recommended method for BAP1 scoring of uveal melanoma:
    • Make sure the stain works in both external controls (e.g. skin or BAP1 positive uveal melanoma tissue from previous cases) and internal controls (e.g. ganglion layer of retina, normal melanocytes in choroid or iris or optic nerve nuclei)
    • Under low magnification (40x), select the tumor area with most intense BAP1 staining
    • Within this area, use higher magnification to assess the percentage of tumor cells with nuclear stain
      • Count at least 100 cells in each of 3 high power fields (200x - 400x)
      • Use the mean score for classification:
        • If < 33% of tumor nuclei are positive, classify as BAP1 low
        • If ≥ 33% are positive, classify as BAP1 high
    • Some pathologists would argue that uveal melanomas usually have either complete absence of staining (0% positive tumor nuclei) or fully retained expression (100% positive tumor nuclei) and that mixed tumors (1 - 99% positive tumor nuclei) are exceptions (J Pathol Clin Res 2018;4:26)
  • Regarding melanocytic nevi:
    • Benign melanocytic nevi associated with BAP1 germline mutations are often spitzoid or epitheliod
      • These melanocytic tumors may have overlapping features with melanoma
      • Spitzoid tumors often lack epidermal hyperplasia, Kamino bodies, clefting
      • Many lesions are highly cellular, pleomorphic and can contain molecular aberrations occasionally identified in melanoma (Nat Genet 2011;43:1018)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Gustav Stålhammar, M.D., Ph.D.
Positive tumor

Uveal melanoma, BAP1 positive

Negative tumor

Uveal melanoma, BAP1 negative

Mixed tumor

Uveal melanoma, BAP1 mixed

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Molecular / cytogenetics description
Sample pathology report
  • Eye with uveal melanoma, enucleation:
    • BAP1 IHC: low expression (tumor proportion score 10%)
    • BAP1 IHC is a prognostic test in uveal melanoma. Classification is as follows: if < 33% of tumor nuclei are positive, classify as low. If ≥ 33% are positive, classify as high. The tumor proportion score is estimated by manual quantification or digital image analysis.
Board review style question #1

The photomicrograph shows BAP1 in uveal melanoma. Which of the following describes the use of BAP1 in this tumor?

  1. Biomarker used to determine medication treatment
  2. Differentiates melanoma from benign melanocytic lesions
  3. Loss of nuclear expression is associated with a poor prognosis
Board review style answer #1
C. Loss of nuclear expression of BAP1 is associated with a poor prognosis

Comment Here

Reference: BAP1

BCL10 (pending)
Table of Contents
Definition / general
Definition / general
[Pending]

BCL2
Definition / general
  • "b cell lymphoma #2"
  • Proto-oncogene at 18q21.3
  • Encodes 25 kDa protein, mainly localized to inner mitochondrial membrane; also endoplasmic reticulum and nuclear envelope
Pathophysiology
  • Prevents cells from undergoing apoptosis
  • BCL2 overexpression increase lifespan of B cells; may maintain memory B cells, plasma cells and neurons by prolonging life span without cell division
  • May participate in ion channel formation and alteration of membrane permeability, necessary for initiation of apoptosis
  • Non-phosphorylated BCL2 inhibits apoptosis, and Bax homodimers normally cause apoptosis; Bax can bind to and inhibit non-phosphorylated BCL2, promoting apoptosis
  • Epstein-Barr virus latent membrane protein-1 (LMP-1) interacts with BCL2 promoter, leading to prolonged lifespan for B cells
  • Surprisingly, BCL2 overexpression in osteoblasts causes osteocyte apoptosis (PLoS One 2011;6:e27487)
Diagrams / tables

AFIP images

BCL2 translocation in follicular lymphoma



Images hosted on other servers:

2 main pathways to apoptosis

Interpretation
  • Nuclear and cytoplasmic staining
Uses by pathologists
  • (1) Distinguish follicular hyperplasia of lymph node (germinal centers are BCL2 negative) from follicular lymphoma (germinal centers are BCL2+); BCL2 usually overexpressed in follicular lymphoma due to t(14,18)(q32;q21), which brings BCL2 gene adjacent to active immunoglobulin heavy chain (IgH) gene; however, some follicular lymphomas are BCL2 negative (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1691, Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:591)
  • (2) Detect immature enteric ganglion cells in pediatric intestinal pseudo-obstruction (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:1017)
  • (3) Diffuse large cell lymphoma: adverse prognostic factor in some studies (Mod Pathol 2005;18:1113, Clin Cancer Res 2011;15:7785)
  • (4) Myelodysplastic syndrome: increased expression associated with progression
  • (5) May have prognostic value in early stage breast cancer (Br J Cancer 2010;103:668)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Vladimir Osipov, M.D. (Case #171), Keith Kaplan, M.D. (Case #150) and AFIP

Secondary follicle

Follicular lymphoma

Burkitt lymphoma

Spindle cell epithelioma of vagina

Synovial sarcoma: right pericardium



Images hosted on other servers:

Various images

Collecting duct carcinoma-kidney

Follicular lymphoma

Follicular lymphoma of thyroid: t(14;18) negative / BCL2 negative (left) versus positive (right)

Solitary fibrous tumor

Positive staining - normal
  • Lymph node: small B lymphocytes in mantle zone and cells within T cell areas
  • Adrenal cortex, melanocyties, thymus-medullary cells, thyroid gland solid cell nests
  • Immature (but not mature) small ganglion cells
Positive staining - disease
  • Hematopoietic: follicular lymphoma (germinal centers stain); also acute lymphoblastic leukemia, angiotropic / intravascular lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma (occasionally, Indian J Pathol Microbiol 2011;54:290), diffuse large B cell lymphoma (variable), extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal-type: 39% (Am J Clin Pathol 2008;130:343), Hodgkin lymphoma (classical): 27% (Hum Pathol 2007;38:103), mantle cell lymphoma, marginal zone lymphoma (variable), persistent polyclonal lymphocytosis, plasmablastic lymphoma, SLL

  • Other: adrenal cortical adenoma and carcinoma (Mod Pathol 1998;11:716), atrioventricular node tumor of heart, basal cell carcinoma (skin and prostate, Am J Surg Pathol 2007;31:697), breast-benign stromal spindle cell tumor, breast-columnar cell lesions, breast-micropapillary carcinoma, breast-phyllodes tumor (stromal cells), cervix-mesonephric remnants / rests, cervix-tuboendometrial metaplasia, collecting duct carcinoma-kidney, colorectal adenomas / carcinomas, dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

  • Giant cell angiofibroma, hemangiopericytoma, large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma (salivary glands), low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma of soft tissue, lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma, melanoma (uvea, Arch Pathol Lab Med 1996;120:497), myofibroblastoma, pheochromocytoma (variable)

  • Sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma, small cell carcinoma (breast), solitary fibrous tumor, spindle cell epithelioma of vagina (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2001;125:547), squamous cell carcinoma (uterus), squamous papilloma (conjunctiva, Ann NY Acad Sci 2004;1030:419), synovial sarcoma (Hum Pathol 1996;27:1060), thyroid gland-CASTLE
Negative staining
  • Anaplastic lymphoma, apocrine benign / malignant lesions, benign fibrous histiocytoma, lymphoid hyperplasia (marginal zone cells in hyperplastic areas are BCL2+, germinal centers are BCL2-), lymphoplasmayctic lymphoma
Board review style question #1
The translocation that puts the IgH locus on chromosome 14 and the BCL2 locus on chromosome 18 together, is a trademark of which disease?

  1. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
  2. Burkitt lymphoma
  3. Follicular lymphoma
  4. Splenic marginal cell leukemia
  5. Hodgkin lymphoma
Board review style answer #1
C. Follicular lymphoma; more than 90% of FL is associated with t(14;18).

  1. Incorrect: anaplastic large cell lymphoma is primarily associated with t(2;5).
  2. Incorrect: Burkitt lymphoma is primarily associated with t(8;14), also t(2;8) and t(8;22)
  1. Incorrect: Hodgkin lymphoma is not associated with a specific translocation (although BCL6 translocations may be seen in L&H cells).
  2. Incorrect: splenic marginal cell leukemia is not associated with a specific translocation.

Citation: Kumar: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, Eighth Edition, 2009, McPherson: Henry's Clinical Diagnosis and Management by Laboratory Methods, Twenty Second Edition, 2011 (Chapter 33)

Source: BoardVitals, 2/5/2014

BCL6
Definition / general
Essential features
Terminology
  • B cell lymphoma 6
Pathophysiology
  • Proto-oncogene: normally inhibits germinal center lymphocytes' response to DNA damage to allow for immunoglobulin somatic hypermutation by repressing tumor suppressor TP53 and CDKN1A, ATR and CHEK1 (Blood Cells Mol Dis 2008;41:95)
  • Suppresses the expression of antiapoptotic BCL2 (Front Cell Dev Biol 2019;7:272)
Diagrams / tables

Contributed by Elena M. Fenu, M.D.
Staining algorithm for DLBCL

Staining algorithm for DLBCL

Interpretation
  • Nuclear staining
Uses by pathologists
Prognostic factors
  • Large cell lymphomas with rearrangements of MYC, BCL2 or BCL6 (double or triple hit lymphomas) are classified as high grade B cell lymphomas and carry a poor prognosis (Diagn Pathol 2019;14:81)
  • DLBCL with a germinal center B cell-like phenotype have better prognosis compared to those that are nongerminal center type (Blood 2004;103:275)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Elena M. Fenu, M.D.
Reactive follicular hyperplasia (H&E and BCL6) Reactive follicular hyperplasia (H&E and BCL6)

Reactive follicular hyperplasia

Follicular lymphoma, grade 1 - 2 (H&E and BCL6) Follicular lymphoma, grade 1 - 2 (H&E and BCL6)

Follicular lymphoma, grade 1 - 2

Follicular lymphoma, grade 3B (H&E and BCL6) Follicular lymphoma, grade 3B (H&E and BCL6)

Follicular lymphoma, grade 3B


Angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma (H&E and BCL6) Angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma (H&E and BCL6)

Angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma

Burkitt lymphoma (H&E and BCL6) Burkitt lymphoma (H&E and BCL6)

Burkitt lymphoma

T cell / histiocyte rich large B cell lymphoma (H&E and BCL6) T cell / histiocyte rich large B cell lymphoma (H&E and BCL6)

T cell / histiocyte rich large B cell lymphoma


Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (H&E and BCL6) Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (H&E and BCL6)

Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma

Classic Hodgkin lymphoma Classic Hodgkin lymphoma

Classic Hodgkin lymphoma

Virtual slides

Images hosted on other servers:
Duodenal type follicular lymphoma (BCL6)

Duodenal type follicular lymphoma

In situ follicular neoplasm involving a lymph node (BCL6)

In situ follicular neoplasm involving a lymph node

Follicular lymphoma involving a lymph node (BCL6) Follicular lymphoma involving a lymph node (BCL6) Follicular lymphoma involving a lymph node (BCL6)

Follicular lymphoma involving a lymph node

Follicular lymphoma involving soft tissue (BCL6)

Follicular lymphoma involving soft tissue

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Molecular / cytogenetics description
  • Diagnosis of double or triple hit DLBCL is based on break apart FISH of MYC, BCL2 and BCL6 (Ann Lab Med 2020;40:361)
Sample pathology report
  • Lymph node, left inguinal, excision:
    • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma, germinal center B cell subtype (see comment)
    • Comment: There is total replacement of the nodal architecture by diffuse sheets of large lymphocytes with irregular nuclear contours, open chromatin and distinct nucleoli. The tumor cells are immunoreactive for CD20, CD10, BCL6 and BCL2 and negative for MUM1, MYC and CD30, which confirms the diagnosis. The Ki67 proliferation rate is approximately 60 - 70%.
Board review style question #1


A lymph node biopsy morphologically demonstrates involvement by a large cell lymphoma. The neoplastic cells stain positive for CD20, BCL6, BCL2, MUM1 and MYC and negative for CD3, CD10, CD30 and CD138. What is the diagnosis?

  1. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL)
  2. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL), germinal center subtype
  3. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL), nongerminal center subtype
  4. Plasmablastic lymphoma
  5. T cell / histiocyte rich large B cell lymphoma
Board review style answer #1
C. DLBCL, nongerminal center subtype. The neoplastic cells are positive for CD20, denoting a B cell origin. Following the Hans algorithm, a DLBCL that is negative for CD10 and positive for both BCL6 and MUM1 is nongerminal center subtype. ALCL is a T cell lymphoma and typically positive for CD30. Plasmablastic lymphoma expresses markers of plasmacytic differentiation like CD138 and is negative or only weakly positive for CD20.

Comment Here

Reference: BCL6

BCOR
Definition / general
Essential features
  • BCOR immunohistochemistry can be used diagnostically to separate tumors with BCOR gene alteration (rearrangement or internal tandem duplication) from their histological mimics (mainly the group of small / ovoid round cell sarcomas) (Pediatr Blood Cancer 2014;61:2191, Histopathology 2020;76:509)
Pathophysiology
  • BCOR is a corepressor when bound to BCL6 (Genes Dev 2000;14:1810)
  • BCOR forms part of the polycomb repressive complex 1 which ubiquitinates H2AK119 causing epigenetic silencing (Biochem Soc Trans 2017;45:193)
  • Involved in early embryonic development and the differentiation of embryonic stem cells into ectoderm, mesoderm and hematopoietic lineages (PLoS One 2008;3:e2814)
  • BCOR-CCNB3 fusion results from an X chromosomal paracentric inversion linking the BCOR sequence to exon 5 of CCNB3 (Histopathology 2018;72:320)
Clinical features
Interpretation
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Isidro Machado, M.D., Ph.D.
Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

Undifferentiated round cell sarcoma


Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

Undifferentiated round cell sarcoma, BCOR positive

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Board review style question #1
Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image


    A soft tissue tumor is shown with corresponding BCOR IHC. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. BCOR rearranged sarcoma
  2. CIC rearranged sarcoma
  3. Desmoplastic small round cell tumor
  4. Ewing sarcoma
Board review style answer #1
A. BCOR rearranged sarcoma

Comment Here

Reference: BCOR

BerEP4 / EpCAM
Definition / general
Uses by pathologists
  • Membranous staining
  • Sensitive and specific for lung adenocarcinoma (positive) vs. mesothelioma (negative, Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:43)
  • May help distinguish, as part of a panel, hepatocellular carcinoma (usually negative) from metastatic adenocarcinoma to liver or cholangiocarcinoma (usually positive, Mod Pathol 2002;15:1279)
  • Immunoexpression may predict poor survival in carcinomas of breast, gallbladder (Am J Clin Pathol 2008;129:424), ovary, pancreas
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

Ovarian serous carcinoma immunoprofile



Images hosted on other servers:

Basaloid squamous cell carcinoma is BerEP4+

Breast: ductal and
lobular carcinoma -
primary and metastases
(EpCAM)

Breast cancer: increased EpCAM expression in metastases


Colon: loss of EPCAM expression in cancers associated with Lynch syndrome caused by heterozygous EPCAM germline deletions

Esophagus: normal
and Barrett metaplasia;
gastric mucosa

Unknown site: adenocarcinoma (MOC31)

Cytology images

Images hosted on other servers:

Reactive mesothelial cells (BerEP4 / MOC31 negative) versus metastatic adenocarcinoma (positive)

Positive staining - normal
  • Basolateral surface of epithelial cells
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
  • Epidermal keratinocytes, gastric parietal cells, hepatocytes, myoepithelial cells, squamous epithelia, thymic cortical epithelium (Front Biosci 2008;13:3096)
  • Lymphoma, mesothelioma, most soft tissue sarcomas
  • Adenomatoid tumor; renal oncocytoma

Beta catenin
Definition / general
Pathophysiology
  • Part of Wnt signalling pathway, highly conserved pathway with critical role in embryologic development (Dev Cell 2009;17:9), carcinogenesis and epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition
  • Upon Wnt activation, β catenin is translocated from membrane (where it interacts with E-cadherin) to cytoplasm and nucleus, where it interacts with transcriptional activators
Clinical features
  • Mutations and overexpression of β catenin are associated with various carcinomas
  • Colon: plays a critical role in tumorigenesis (mutations in APC or β catenin present in 90% of colon cancers)
  • Thyroid: pathway important for anaplastic and possibly papillary thyroid carciomas (Front Endocrinol (Lausanne) 2012;3:31)
  • Uterus: endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is associated with β catenin mutations
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:

Cadherins and catenins in signal transduction

Role of β catenin in cell

Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Colon: serrated adenoma

Colon: normal and carcinoma

Liver: metastatic
colorectal carcinoma
in sentinel lymph
node and liver

Soft tissue: liposarcoma

Positive staining - normal
  • Fibroblasts and endothelial cells (cytoplasmic-membranous staining)
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
  • GIST, sclerosing mesenteritis, low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma, myofibroblastic or fibroblastic tumors

Beta catenin
Definition / general
Essential features
  • Responsible for maintaining structural integrity of many epithelial tissues
  • Mutations in CTNNB1 relevant to certain types of cancer
  • In the nucleus, beta catenin can act as cofactor in the upregulation of oncogenes like cyclin D1 and c-Myc
  • Increase in protein expression is considered a hallmark of Wnt driven cancers (J Hematol Oncol 2020;13:165)
  • Belongs to armadillo protein family
  • Discovered in late 1980s as an E-cadherin associated protein (Biol Res 2020;53:33)
Terminology
  • Beta catenin (β catenin)
  • CTNNB1
  • Catenin (cadherin associated protein), beta 1
Pathophysiology
  • In normal tissues, beta catenin levels are regulated (targeted and degraded) by a complex of cytoplasmic proteins including adenomatous polyposis coli (APC), glycogen synthase kinase 3 (GSK3) and casein kinase 1 (CK1) (Cold Spring Harb Perspect Biol 2013;5:a007898)
  • Without activation of the Wnt pathway, most beta catenin localizes at the cellular membrane
    • Upon Wnt activation, β catenin is translocated from the cell membrane (where it interacts with E-cadherin) to the cytoplasm and then nucleus, where it interacts with transcriptional activators, leading to cellular proliferation (Dev Cell 2009;17:9)
    • Alterations in either beta catenin or APC can result in the accumulation of beta catenin within the nucleus
    • Nuclear localization of beta catenin is known to associate with malignant transformation in many cancers (Oncotarget 2017;8:33972)
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:
Cadherins and catenins in signal transduction

Cadherins and catenins in signal transduction

Role of beta catenin in cell

Role of beta catenin in cell

Clinical features
  • Loss of beta catenin membrane expression with overexpression in the cytoplasm and nucleus is associated with various carcinomas including breast, colon and pancreas
    • Breast
      • Nuclear and cytoplasmic accumulation in basal-like breast cancers
      • Reduced membrane expression observed with tumor progression (Am J Pathol 2010;176:2911)
    • Colon
      • Beta catenin plays a critical role in tumorigenesis (activating Wnt signaling mutations present in 90% of colon cancers) (Sci Rep 2020;10:2957)
      • Membrane expression in normal colorectal epithelium
      • Staining pattern shifts to cytoplasmic / nuclear in tumor tissue (World J Gastroenterol 2008;14:3866)
    • Thyroid
      • Wnt pathway important for anaplastic and possibly papillary thyroid carcinomas
      • Shifts from membrane location to cytoplasmic in malignant tumors (Front Endocrinol (Lausanne) 2012;3:31)
    • Uterus
    • Liver
      • Beta catenin expression is membranous for normal hepatocytes
      • Mutations in CTNNB1 occur in about a third of human hepatocellular carcinomas (HCC) (J Clin Invest 2022;132:e154515)
    • Pancreas
      • Strong membrane staining in primary tumors of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (PanNETs); nuclear staining present in advanced stages including metastasis (World J Gastrointest Oncol 2016;8:615)
    • Low grade sinonasal adenocarcinoma (nuclear localization) (Case Rep Pathol 2018;2018:8741017)
    • Lung
      • Reduced membrane expression of beta catenin with increased expression in cytoplasm and nucleus for non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) (Transl Lung Cancer Res 2017;6:97)
    • Skin (melanoma)
      • Loss of membrane expression as melanoma progresses from primary to metastatic
      • Low frequency of CTNNB1 genetic mutations in melanomas, which does not correlate with nuclear expression (Mod Pathol 2002;15:454)
Interpretation
  • Membranous / cytoplasmic staining in normal tissues
  • Increased cytoplasmic and nuclear expression in various cancers (see Clinical features)
  • Weak nuclear expression of beta catenin may be observed in normal endometrium during proliferative phase
    • Therefore, some authors only consider moderate levels of nuclear staining to be significant (Dev Cell 2009;17:9)
Uses by pathologists
  • Beta catenin may be useful in the differential diagnosis of breast ductal carcinoma (membrane expression) versus lobular carcinoma (cytoplasmic expression)
  • Nuclear beta catenin expression may be a helpful screening tool to distinguish ambiguous neoplasms like deep penetrating nevus (positive) from similar entities like blue melanocytic tumors, spitzoid tumors, nevoid and superficial spreading melanomas (all negative for nuclear expression) (Virchows Arch 2019;474:535)
  • Increased nuclear expression of beta catenin may be useful as a diagnostic marker for desmoid type fibromatosis, as only a very limited subset (solitary fibrous tumor, synovial sarcoma and endometrial stromal sarcoma) of other mesenchymal neoplasms are positive for this marker (Mod Pathol 2005;18:68)
  • Can help with classification of hepatocellular adenoma subtypes and identification of focal nodular hyperplasia (Am J Surg Pathol 2012;36:1691, Int J Hepatol 2013;2013:268625, Hum Pathol 2013;44:750)
  • Beta catenin may be mutated or positive in fibromatosis (Mod Pathol 2012;25:1551)
    • May help distinguish mesenteric fibromatosis (positive with nuclear staining due to mutations in APC / beta catenin pathway causing nuclear accumulation) from gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) (negative) and sclerosing mesenteritis (negative) (Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:1296)
    • Distinguish fibromatosis (diffuse or rarely focal nuclear staining for deep tumors) from low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma and other myofibroblastic or fibroblastic tumors / sarcomas (negative for nuclear staining) (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:653)
  • Identify isolated tumor cells in neuroblastoma (Am J Clin Pathol 2009;131:49)
Prognostic factors
Microscopic (histologic) description
No information provided
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Pamela Wirth, Ph.D. (source: University of Toronto and Human Protein Atlas)
Normal pancreatic tissue, beta catenin

Normal pancreatic tissue

Cervix, beta catenin

Cervix

Breast carcinoma, beta catenin

Breast carcinoma

Colorectal carcinoma, beta catenin

Colorectal carcinoma

Lung cancer, beta catenin

Lung cancer

Normal kidney, beta catenin

Normal kidney

Virtual slides
None
Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
  • GIST, sclerosing mesenteritis, low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma, myofibroblastic or fibroblastic tumors (low grades may show some nuclear staining) (Mod Pathol 2014;27:S47)
Molecular / cytogenetics description
  • Mutations in CTNNB1 (exon 3) have been detected in 30% of intestinal and diffuse type gastric cancers (World J Exp Med 2015;5:84)
  • Deletions or missense mutations in exon 3 of CTNNB1 are the most common genetic abnormality leading to hepatocellular carcinoma (J Hepatocell Carcinoma 2018;5:61)
Molecular / cytogenetics images
None
Sample pathology report
  • Pancreas, distal pancreatectomy:
    • Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm (SPPN) (see comment)
    • Comment: A 28 year old female presents with abdominal pain and fever without jaundice, change in stool color or diarrhea. CT and ultrasound imaging of the abdomen exhibited a solid and cystic tumor measuring 8 cm near the tail of the pancreas. Tumor cells were positive for beta catenin, CD10, CD56, CD117 and cyclin D1. Beta catenin was expressed in the nucleus of tumor cells.
Additional references
None
Board review style question #1
Which exon mutation in beta catenin is most commonly detected in endometrial carcinomas, resulting in increased nuclear expression?

  1. Exon 3
  2. Exon 7
  3. Exon 8
  4. Exon 13
Board review style answer #1
A. Exon 3. Studies have demonstrated that 30 - 60% of endometrial carcinoma cases exhibit nuclear accumulation of beta catenin in tumor cells because of mutations in exon 3 of CTNNB1. Answers B and C and are incorrect because these mutations are not commonly found in endometrial carcinoma and only weakly activate beta catenin in some other cancers like hepatocellular carcinomas. Answer D is incorrect because mutations in exon 13 are not associated with endometrial carcinomas but are more consistent with CTNNB1 syndrome with symptoms of cognitive and motor impairment.

Comment Here

Reference: Beta catenin
Board review style question #2

Which of the following staining patterns for beta catenin would be most common in pancreatic tissue?

  1. Increased membranous expression of beta catenin in stages III - IV of pancreatic tumors
  2. Loss of membrane expression in ductal cells of normal pancreatic tissue
  3. Increased nuclear expression of beta catenin in solid pseudopapillary neoplasm
  4. Normal pancreatic tissue with increased nuclear beta catenin expression
Board review style answer #2
C. Increased nuclear expression of beta catenin in solid pseudopapillary neoplasm. Solid pseudopapillary neoplasms of the pancreas frequently harbor genetic mutations within the beta catenin gene, resulting in aberrant nuclear expression of the protein by IHC. Answer B is incorrect because beta catenin is predominantly located and positively expressed on the membrane of ductal cells in normal pancreatic tissue. Answer A is incorrect because beta catenin expression on the membrane is lost in later stages of pancreatic tumors. Answer D is incorrect because nuclear expression of beta catenin is associated with more advanced stages of pancreatic tumors.

Comment Here

Reference: Beta catenin

BOB1
Definition / general
  • B cell specific Octamer Binding protein-1
Pathophysiology / etiology
  • B cell transcription factor
  • Coactivator of OCT-2
  • Appears to mediate antigen-dependent germinal center formation
Uses by pathologists
  • Identify B cells in germinal centers, mantle cells and lymphomas
  • Determine lineage of CD20 negative B cell neoplasms (Am J Clin Pathol 2006;126:534)
  • Help differentiate classical Hodgkin's lymphoma (BOB1 negative) from primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma (positive, Histopathology 2010;56:217)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Normal tonsil

Various B cell lymphomas

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining

Brachyury
Definition / general
  • Transcription factor essential for notochordal cell differentiation, elongation of axis and specification of posterior mesodermal elements (Mod Pathol 2009;22:996)
Pathophysiology
  • Brachyury (T) is founding member of T box (Tbx) family
  • Transcriptional activator expressed throughout the nascent mesoderm, tailbud and notochord
  • Involved in the induction and regional specification of mesoderm
  • Brachyury deficient embryos lack tail and trunk structures and die shortly after gastrulation (PLoS One 2011;6:e28394)
  • In tumor cells, induces epithelial-mesenchymal transition, an important step in progression toward metastasis (J Clin Invest 2010;120:533)
Interpretation
  • Nuclear staining
Uses by pathologists
Positive staining - normal
  • Spermatogonia
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining

BRAF V600E
Definition / general
  • BRAF is a serine / threonine kinase, part of the MAPK signaling pathway
  • Abbreviation for v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1
  • BRAF V600E (Val600Glu) is an activating somatic mutation
Essential features
  • BRAF V600E mutations can be reliably detected using immunohistochemistry
  • BRAF V600E status is important therapeutically in melanoma
  • Interpretation can be difficult due to melanin pigment
Terminology
  • BRAF VE1 (antibody)
  • BRAF V599E (older designation of mutation)
Pathophysiology
  • Majority due to thymine to adenine transversion at position 1799 in exon 15 of BRAF
  • Minority are due to an insertion deletion of 2 adenines at positions 1798 and 1799 in exon 15 of BRAF (V600E2)
  • Both mutations result in an identical BRAF V600E protein, which is detected by the antibody
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:

MAPK signaling pathway

Interpretation
  • Cytoplasmic stain
  • Melanin pigment and hemosiderin can mimic brown chromogen, making interpretation of heavily pigmented lesions very difficult (if not impossible)
  • Variation in staining can be due to cautery, necrosis, storage time in archive and previous frozen section (Acta Neuropathol 2011;122:11)
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Andrew Colebatch, M.B.B.S., Ph.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
BRAF V600E positive nevus BRAF V600E positive nevus BRAF V600E positive nevus

BRAF V600E positive nevus

BRAF V600E positive melanoma

BRAF V600E positive melanoma


V600E mutant protein is diffusely expressed  in tumor / cancer but not normal tissue V600E mutant protein is diffusely expressed  in tumor / cancer but not normal tissue

V600E mutant protein is diffusely expressed in tumor / cancer but not normal tissue

Diffuse cytoplasmic staining

Diffuse cytoplasmic staining

Positive staining - normal
  • Nil
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Sample pathology report
  • Soft tissue, perinephric, biopsy:
    • Histiocytic neoplasm with BRAF V600E mutation by immunohistochemistry, consistent with Erdheim-Chester disease in the appropriate clinical context (see comment)
    • Comment: The histologic sections demonstrate adipose tissue with an infiltrate of foamy histiocytes admixed with scattered Touton giant cells. There is extensive fibrosis present. Immunoperoxidase studies were performed on paraffin embedded sections using antibodies directed against the following antigens: CD1a, CD68, CD163, factor XIIIa, IgG, IgG4, langerin, S100 and BRAF V600E. The foamy histiocytes are positive for CD68, CD163 and factor XIIIa and are negative for S100, CD1a and langerin. The lesional histiocytes are positive for BRAF V600E mutation by immunohistochemistry. There is no increase in number of IgG4 positive plasma cells or an abnormal IgG4/IgG ratio.
Board review style question #1

Which of the following statements is true regarding BRAF V600E mutations?

  1. They do not occur in melanoma
  2. They do not occur in papillary craniopharyngioma
  3. They do not occur in adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma
  4. They do not occur in papillary thyroid carcinoma
Board review style answer #1
C. Adamantinomatous craniopharyngiomas do not show BRAF V600E mutations (these tumors show WNT pathway activation with beta catenin mutations).

Comment Here

Reference: BRAF V600E

BRAF-melanoma
Definition / general
  • BRAF is the gene encoding the B-Raf enzyme, a serine / threonine kinase involved in cell replication within the MAP kinase pathway (J Transl Med 2012;10:85)
  • BRAF may either form a heterodimer or homodimer for activation
  • BRAF activation is enhanced by RAS
  • Inhibition normally comes from ERK
  • MEK is the only known substrate of BRAF and is activated through phosphorylation
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:

MAPK and AKT pathways

Resistance diagram

Mutations
  • BRAF mutations are found in ~50% of all melanomas (N Engl J Med 2005;353:2135)
  • The most common mutation is V600E, accounting for ~80 - 90% of all BRAF mutations identified
  • Less common mutations include V600K (10 - 20%), V600R (up to 5%), K601E (< 1%), G469A (< 1%), D594G (< 1%), V600M (< 1%), V600 'E2' (< 1%), L597V (< 1%)
  • BRAF appears to be nearly mutually exclusive with NRAS and KIT mutations
  • Overall survival does not appear to be affected by different types of BRAF mutations
Associated findings
  • Age < 55 years has been the #1 predictor of BRAF mutations (PLoS Med 2008;5:e120, Clin Cancer Res 2012;18:3242)
  • Melanomas arising on nonchronically sun damaged skin, acquired nevi and nodal nevi also have an association with BRAF mutations
  • Older age, melanomas arising from chronically sun damaged skin, melanomas arising in an acral or mucosal site and congenital nevi are NOT associated with BRAF mutations
Associated histological findings
  • Larger, rounder and more pigmented melanocytes (PLoS Med 2008;5:e120)
  • Pagetoid scatter
  • Nest formation
  • Sharp demarcation from uninvolved adjacent epidermis / dermis
  • Thickened epidermis
  • Ulceration, tumor thickness and mitotic count have NOT been associated with BRAF mutations
Detection methods
  • Historically detected using Sanger sequencing (numerous truncated strands secondary to dideoxynucleoside truncation are run on a gel and sequence is determined by speed and fluorescent labeling)
  • Cobas 4800 (Roche) testing is touted as a superior method of detection for V600E mutations but only detects ~50% V600K mutations and even lower detection for lower frequency mutations (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2012;136:1385)
  • PCR kit (Qiagen) detects V600E, Ec, K, D and R
  • PCR and DNA melting curve analysis
Inhibitor therapy
  • All patients with unresectable stage III and IV are recommended to undergo BRAF mutation analysis
  • Vemurafenib and dabrafenib are ATP competitive and selective BRAF inhibitors which have a high affinity for mutated BRAF enzymes and a much lower affinity for wild type enzymes
  • BRAF inhibitors significantly improve both progression free survival and overall survival in patients with BRAF mutations (N Engl J Med 2012;366:707, N Engl J Med 2011;364:2507)
  • Approximately 50% of patients respond (only 5% of patients on dacarbazine respond, the only chemotherapeutic drug approved by the FDA)
  • Both a reduction in tumor size and a marked increase in tumor infiltrating CD4+ and CD8+ lymphocytes are seen (Clin Cancer Res 2012;18:1386)
  • No impact on overall immune response has been noted
  • Approximately 1/4 of patients on inhibitors develop classic cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma, keratoacathoma type, thought to be due to paradoxical activation of RAS mutations within keratinocytes
  • Trametinib, a MEK inhibitor, has been shown to improve progression free survival and overall survival as well (N Engl J Med 2012;367:107)
Mechanisms of resistance
Emerging combination therapies
  • New combination therapies are being evaluated for preventing or overcoming BRAF inhibitor resistance (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2013;110:4015)
  • Both BRAF and MEK inhibitors as well as BRAF and mTOR inhibitors have been shown to overcome resistance in vitro
  • Cross resistance between BRAF and MEK inhibition has also been described and may be secondary to the specific form of resistance employed (J Invest Dermatol 2012;132:1850)

BSEP (pending)
[Pending]

C4d (pending)
Table of Contents
Definition / general
Definition / general
[Pending]

CA 19-9
Definition / general
  • Modified Lewis(a) blood group antigen secreted by or expressed on the surface of cancer cells
  • Used primarily as a serum tumor marker to screen for pancreatic cancer and to monitor effectiveness of therapy
  • However, only 50 - 75% sensitive for initial screening of pancreatic cancer and relatively nonspecific
Terminology
  • Carbohydrate Antigen 19-9
Pathophysiology
Prognostic factors
Clinical features
  • Used primarily as a serum biomarker
    • As a serum screening test for pancreatic cancer, is more sensitive than CEA but less sensitive than CXCL8 (Pol Arch Intern Med 2018 Jul 27 [Epub ahead of print])
    • Used to screen for pancreatic cancer but has limited sensitivity and specificity
    • May also be elevated in patients with cholangiocarcinoma or colon cancer
    • Serum levels also elevated in cirrhosis, cholestasis and pancreatitis but values are usually below 1,000 U/mL.
    • Note: individuals that are Lewis negative (5 - 7% of population) do not express CA 19-9 due to the lack of the enzyme fucosyltransferase needed for CA 19-9 production; as a result, a low or undetectable serum CA 19-9 concentration is not informative regarding cancer recurrence (Mayo Clinic: CA19 [Accessed 10 September 2018])
  • Medullary thyroid carcinoma:
  • Lung adenocarcinoma associated malignant pleural effusions:
    • Highly specific (98%) to differentiate from benign effusions but only 55% sensitive (Pathology 2015;47:123)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Medullary thyroid cancer

Positive staining - normal

CA125
Definition / general
  • Cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) is a protein encoded by MUC16 gene, used as a tumor marker, because it is 79% sensitive for ovarian cancer
  • Not specific, because elevated in other tumors and in inflammatory conditions
Terminology
  • Also known as MUC16
Pathophysiology
  • High molecular weight membrane associated mucin found in cornea and conjunctiva, in respiratory tract and female reproductive tract epithelium
  • As a mucin, forms lubricating barrier against foreign particles and infectious agents
Clinical features
  • Elevated in carcinomas of breast, cervix (Asian Pac J Cancer Prev 2010;11:1745), endometrium, fallopian tubes, GI, lung, ovary; also endometriosis, pregnancy, inflammatory disorders
Interpretation
  • Strong membranous staining, fallopian tube is good control
Uses by pathologists
  • (1) For ovarian carcinomas, use serum levels to follow response to treatment and predict prognosis (Ann Oncol 2008;19:327)
  • (2) In UK, recommended to use serum levels to screen women with symptoms of ovarian cancer (National Health Service Press Release)
  • (3) Serial measurements may be more specific for ovarian cancer
  • (4) Useful in immunohistochemistry to confirm ovarian origin of tumor (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:1482)
  • (5) Serum levels may have role in assessing heart failure (Clin Cardiol 2011;34:244, Eur Heart J 2010;31:1752)

  • High serum CA-125 levels are due to serosal fluids and serosal involvement of various diseases of ovarian or non-ovarian origin (Gynecol Oncol 2002;85:108)
  • Serum levels not recommended for general low-risk ovarian cancer screening due to lack of sensitivity, particularly for low stage tumors (only 50% sensitive for stage I)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Normal mesothelium

Various images and quality control

Mucinous cystic neoplasm of mesentery

Positive staining - normal
  • Fetus: amnion, coelomic and Müllerian epithelium (Asia Oceania J Obstet Gynaecol 1990;16:379)
  • Adults: mesothelial cells and luminal surface of epithelial cells of endocervix, endometrium, fallopian tube; also in small amounts in epithelium of apocrine sweat glands, biliary tract, colon, mammary gland, pancreas, stomach
Positive staining - disease
  • Carcinomas of biliary tree, breast, cervix, endometrium, fallopian tubes, liver, lung, ovary (serous, usually not mucinous), pancreas; ovarian sex cord tumors
  • Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma of uterus, desmoplastic small round cell tumor of pelvic peritoneum, epithelioid sarcoma (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2006;130:871, Jpn J Clin Oncol 2004;34:149), intralobar pulmonary sequestration (Intern Med 2002;41:875), leiomyoma of ileal mesentery, mesothelioma, seminal vessel adenocarcinoma
  • Endometriosis (Hum Pathol 2008;39:954), inflammatory disorderes, leiomyomas of ileal mesentery, pregnancy
Negative staining
  • Normal ovary, squamous cells

Calcitonin
Definition / general
  • Calcitonin (thyrocalcitonin) is a 32 amino acid linear polypeptide hormone (molecular weight 3,421Kd) that participates in calcium and phosphorus metabolism
  • It is formed by the proteolytic cleavage of a larger pre-propeptide, which is a product of the CALC1 gene (CALC)
  • In humans, it is primarily produced by the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid
  • Other tissues such as the lungs and intestinal tract can also synthesize calcitonin
  • The calcitonin receptor protein has been shown to be a member of the seven transmembrane G protein coupled receptor family, which is coupled by G5 to adenylate cyclase and thereby to the generation of CAMP in target cells
Case reports
Uses by pathologists
  • As a marker for medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC), especially when facing histologic subtypes such as the follicular, papillary or encapsulated variants that can pose diagnostic difficulties with follicular cell–derived carcinomas and paraganglioma (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2008;132:359)
  • Although highly specific, calcitonin staining may be patchy in medullary carcinomas and 5% of these tumors may be negative for this marker
    • In tumors with no staining and still suspected to be MTC, calcitonin and calcitonin gene–related peptide mRNA can be demonstrated by in situ hybridization (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2010;134:207)
  • To evaluate for C cell hyperplasia associated with familial MTC
    • High grade neuroendocrine tumors can also stain with calcitonin, and metastatic lesions can be misinterpreted as having arisen in the thyroid (Adv Anat Pathol 2004;11:202)
  • Immunoreactive calcitonin along with calmodulin has been stained and quantitated in solitary endocrine cells which are increased in number and staining intensity in cystic fibrosis lung when compared to COPD and normal lungs
    • The calcitonin and calmodulin may be associated with increased calcium in pulmonary secretions leading to selective colonization of the lung by a limited number of pathogenic bacteria and enhanced pulmonary infection (Chest 1986;89:327)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

Cluster of C cells

Pericapillary location of C cells

Heavy background
in the immediate
stroma and follicles



Images hosted on other servers:
Missing Image

Thyroid

Missing Image

Single endocrine cell

Missing Image

Prostate
(figure 1)

Missing Image

HGPIN (figure 2)

Missing Image

Bone metastasis (figure 3)


Calcium
Definition / general
  • With routine staining, calcium forms a blue-black lake with hematoxylin, usually with sharp edges
  • von Kossa method: silver is substituted for calcium in calcium salts; light or a photographic developer turns the silver black; only stains calcium bound to an anion such as phosphate or carbonate; most useful when large amounts of phosphates and carbonates are present, as with bone
  • Alizarin red S forms an orange-red lake with calcium at a pH of 4.2; works best with small amounts of calcium such as in Michaelis-Gutman bodies; this method is used on Dupont ACA analyzer to measure serum calcium photometrically
  • Azan stain used to distinguish osteoid from mineralized bone.
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Malakoplakia of bladder (von Kossa calcium stain)


Caldesmon
Definition / general
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Colon-pericrytal fibroblast sheath (fig A)

Leiomyosarcoma, soft tissue

Positive staining - normal
  • Smooth muscle cells (vascular, visceral)
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining - normal
Negative staining - disease

Calponin
Definition / general
  • Actin filament associated regulatory protein
  • h1 (basic) isoform is smooth muscle specific, but a late stage smooth muscle marker; described below
  • h2 isoform is found in smooth muscle and non muscle cells; not described below
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Case #62

Sclerosing lobular hyperplasia



Images hosted on other servers:

Breast:
adenomyoepithelioma

MFH of bone
(fig B, F)

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
  • Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Calretinin
Definition / general
Essential features
  • Nuclear and cytoplasmic staining
  • Used primarily in the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease and to confirm sex cord stromal or mesothelial lineage
  • Also positive in adrenal cortical lesions, mesonephric carcinoma, female adnexal tumor of probable Wolffian origin (FATWO) and STK11 adnexal tumor
Pathophysiology
Interpretation
Uses by pathologists
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Nick Baniak, M.D. and Sharon Bihlmeyer, M.D.

Sarcomatoid mesothelioma

Sarcomatoid mesothelioma (CK5)

Sarcomatoid mesothelioma (calretinin)

Ganglion cells in colon


No ganglion cells

Ovarian granulosa cell tumor (adult)

Ovarian granulosa cell tumor (adult)

Virtual slides

Images hosted on other servers:
Pedunculated nodule in the upper cutaneous lip

Rectum of newborn with Hirschsprung

Pedunculated nodule in the upper cutaneous lip

Calretinin (absence of ganglion cells)

Cytology images

Contributed by Nick Baniak, M.D.

Lung adenocarcinoma

Mesothelioma

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Sample pathology report
  • Right pleura, core needle biopsy:
    • Mesothelioma
    • Immunohistochemistry performed shows the following staining profile in the lesional cells:
      • Positive: calretinin, WT1
      • Negative: TTF1, Claudin4
Board review style question #1

A pleural fluid specimen consists of abundant clusters of atypical cells. Pancytokeratin and WT1 stains are positive, while Claudin4 and BerEp4 are negative. The figure above shows a calretinin stain. What is the most appropriate statement?

  1. The biomarker result is noncontributory due to a lack of specificity
  2. The biomarker result is supportive of a lung adenocarcinoma
  3. The biomarker result is supportive of a lung squamous cell carcinoma
  4. The biomarker result is supportive of malignant mesothelioma
Board review style answer #1
D. The biomarker result is supportive of malignant mesothelioma

Comment Here

Reference: Calretinin

CAMTA1
Definition / general
  • Calmodulin binding transcription activator 1 (CAMTA1)
  • Putative tumor suppressor transcription activator
  • Interacts with calmodulin
  • Functions as calcium sensitive regulator of gene expression
Clinical features
Uses by pathologists
Positive stains
  • Staining localization:
    • Nuclear

  • Normal:
  • Disease:
    • Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma
    • 1 of 37 invasive ductal carcinomas showed CAMTA1 positivity
Negative stains
  • Negative in epithelial tumors of bile duct, breast (lobular), endometrium, kidney, liver, lung, ovary, prostate, stomach, thyroid
  • Negative in anaplastic large cell lymphoma, angiosarcoma, epithelioid hemangioma, GIST, melanoma, MPNST, myoepithelioma, PEComa, schwannoma, squamous cell carcinoma, synovial sarcoma, urothelial carcinoma

Carbonic anhydrase IX
Definition / general
Essential features
Pathophysiology
Clinical features
  • CAIX is overexpressed in hypoxia; hypoxia inducible factor is controlled by the VHL gene (Nature 1999;399:271)
Interpretation
  • Membranous staining (box-like or cup-like [negative luminal border])
  • Disregard cytoplasmic staining
Uses by pathologists
Prognostic factors
Microscopic (histologic) images

Contributed by Nick Baniak, M.D.

Clear cell RCC

Clear cell papillary RCC

Papillary RCC

Negative renal parenchyma

Virtual slides

Images hosted on other servers:

Clear cell papillary RCC

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining
Board review style question #1

A 68 year old man was found to have a 2.5 cm cystic kidney mass. The mass was positive for CK7 while negative for CD10 and AMACR. CAIX showed the staining pattern in the picture above. What is the diagnosis?

  1. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma
  2. Clear cell papillary renal cell carcinoma
  3. Multilocular cystic renal neoplasm of low malignant potential
  4. Papillary renal cell carcinoma
Board review style answer #1
B. Clear cell papillary renal cell carcinoma

Comment Here

Reference: Carbonic anhydrase IX
Board review style question #2

Which of the following kidney tumors is most often diffusely positive for CAIX (shown in the images above)?

  1. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma
  2. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma
  3. Oncocytoma
  4. Papillary renal cell carcinoma
Board review style answer #2
B. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma

Comment Here

Reference: Carbonic anhydrase IX

Carcinoma of unknown primary
Definition / general
Recommended IHC markers
  • Epithelial markers: low molecular weight keratin (CAM 5.2), AE1-AE3 cytokeratin cocktail, CK7, CK20, CEA and EMA
  • Alternative epithelial markers on sarcomatoid carcinoma include p63, MOC-31 and TTF1 (Mod Pathol 2005;18:1471)

  • Melanocytic markers: S100 (also a mesenchymal marker), HMB45, MelanA / Mart1

  • Lymphoid markers: CD3 (T cells), CD20 (B cells), CD15 (Hodgkin), CD30 (Hodgkin & other) and various others

  • Histiocytic markers: CD68, lysozyme, CD1a (Langerhans cells)

  • Neuroendocrine markers: neuron specific enolase, chromogranin, synaptophysin, CD56 and CD57

  • Mesenchymal markers: vimentin (non-specific), factor XIIIa (fibrous histiocytoma), factor VIII (vessels), CD31 (vessels), CD34 (vessels), D2-40 (lymphatics), HHF35 (actin), smooth muscle actin and desmin

  • Cell proliferation / apoptosis markers: Ki-67, bcl2
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Classification examples


Cathepsin K
Definition / general
  • Lysosomal, papain-like cysteine protease with high matrix-degrading activity; expression is driven by microphthalmia transcription factor (MITF) in osteoclasts
  • Responsible for bone resorption and remodeling
  • Germline mutations cause sclerosing osteochondrodysplasia pycnodysostosis, a rare autosomal recessive skeletal dysplasia characterized by abnormal bone and tooth development
Uses by pathologists
  • Diagnosis of renal angiomyolipoma and other renal erivascular epithelioid cell tumors (Mod Pathol 2012;25:100)
Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:

Bone: osteoclasts in osteoclastoma and normal

Intervertebral disc

Maxillary sinus: basaloid squamous cell carcinoma

Positive staining - normal
Positive staining - disease
Negative staining

CCNB3 (pending)
[Pending]

CD markers - 190-199
CD190
  • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
CCR1 (CD191)
CCR2 (CD192)
  • Receptor for MCP1, MCP3, MCP4 chemokines; alternative coreceptor with CD4 for HIV1
  • Abbreviation for chemokine C-C motif ligand 2 (CCL2)-chemokine C-C motif receptor 2
  • Also known as CD192, but most publications use CCR2
  • Inflammatory cytokine with 374 amino acids that mediates biologic effects of CCL2, also known as monocyte chemoattractant protein 1 (MCP1); CCL2-CCR2 may be involved in neuroinflammation and chronic pain (J Neuroinflammation 2012;9:136)
  • During chemotaxis, may act as scavenger consuming the chemokine (PLoS One 2012;7:e37208)
  • Clinical features:
  • Uses by pathologists: none
  • Positive staining: neurons, monocytes; controversial if expressed on microglia, or due to infiltrating monocytes
CCR3 (CD193)
CCR4 (CD194)
CCR5 (CD195)
  • Chemokine (C-C motif) receptor 5; also known as CD195
  • Surface receptor and attachment site for HIV and SIV into CD4+ cells, along with CXCR4 (CD184) (Exp Biol Med (Maywood) 2011;236:637)
    • Those with CCR5-Δ32 mutation may have HIV resistance (Wikipedia)
  • Receptor for CD8 chemokines RANTES, MIP 1-alpha, MIP 1-beta, monocyte chemoattractant protein 2 (MCP-2)
  • Also receptor for Staphylococcus aureus leukotoxin ED (Nature 2013;493:51)
  • Uses by pathologists: none
  • Positive staining - normal: T cells, macrophages
CCR6 (CD196)
CCR7 (CD197)
CCR8 (CD198)
CCR9 (CD199)
  • Also known as CDw199, GPR28, CC chemokine receptor 9
  • Chemokine receptor; mediates chemotaxis in response to thymus-expressed chemokine (TECK) selectively expressed in thymus and small intestine
  • Clinical features:
  • Uses by pathologists: none at this time
Diagrams / tables

Images hosted on other servers:
Missing Image

CCR2: lamina propria lymphocytes

Missing Image

CCR5: HIV entry into CD4+ cell via CCR5 co-receptor

Missing Image

CCR6: immature
dendritic cells
traffic to lung via
CCR6 / CCL20 axis

Microscopic (histologic) images

Images hosted on other servers:
Missing Image

CCR2: human glomeruli



CCR3:
Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

Atherosclerosis

Missing Image

Eosinophils and airway epithelium


Missing Image

Lymph node: Hodgkin disease

Missing Image

Skin: cutaneous T cell lymphoma

Missing Image

Paraffin embedded malignant melanoma

Missing Image

Renal cell carcinoma


CCR4:
Missing Image

Lymph node: normal

Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

Lymph node and peripheral blood: adult T cell leukemia / lymphoma

Missing Image

Skin: Sézary Syndrome



CCR6:
Missing Image

Lung: nonsmall cell lung carcinoma

Missing Image

Lung: sarcoidosis

Missing Image

Lymph node: melanoma

Missing Image

Spleen: memory T cells

Missing Image

Tonsils: inflamed



CCR7:
Missing Image

Breast: various carcinomas

Missing Image

Colorectum: T cells in advanced adenocarcinoma

Missing Image

Esophagus: squamous cell carcinoma and metastatic lymph node

Missing Image

Lymphoma T cell

Missing Image

Skin: melanoma and sentinel lymph node


CCR9:
Missing Image

Ovary: normal and carcinoma

Virtual slides

CCR9:
Missing Image

Cerebellum

Missing Image

Tonsil

Missing Image

Lymph node

Missing Image

Pancreas

Missing Image

Cerebral cortex

Missing Image

Spleen


Missing Image

Ovarian stroma cells

Missing Image

Bone marrow

Missing Image

Parathyroid

Missing Image

Prostate

Missing Image

Pancreatic cancer


CD Markers - General
Definition / general
  • CD: cluster designation or cluster of differentiation; a protocol to identify and investigate cell surface molecules
  • Nomenclature proposed in 1982 at First International Workshop and Conference on Human Leukocyte Differentiation Antigens (HLDA)
  • A classification system for monoclonal antibodies generated by laboratories worldwide against cell surface molecules, initially on leukocytes, but now also from other cell types
  • Data is collated and analyzed by cluster analysis based on pattern of binding to leukocytes or other cell types
  • Must be at least two monoclonal antibodies for each antigen
  • "w" indicates that the CD is not well characterized or is represented by only one monoclonal antibody
  • Current CD markers range from CD1 to CD371
  • Interpretation should be based on cellular distribution of staining (i.e. membranous, cytoplasmic, nuclear), proportion of positively stained cells, staining intensity and cutoff levels
Physiology
  • CD molecules have various functions, including receptors or ligands; also cell adhesion, antigen presentation
  • Although commonly used by pathologists to characterize cells, they most likely also have an important (although sometimes unknown) function in cell physiology
Uses by pathologists
  • Used in immunohistochemistry and flow cytometry to characterize unknown cell types or to better understand known cell types

CD markers - other
CD150
  • Also known as signal lymphocyte activation molecule (SLAM)
  • Costimulatory molecule on B lymphocytes and dendritic cells
  • Positive staining - normal: thymocytes, CD45RO positive subpopulation of T cells, B cells, dendritic cells, endothelium
CD151
  • May modify integrin function or signaling
  • Positive staining - normal: endothelium, platelets, megakaryocytes, epithelium
CD152
  • Also known as cytotoxic T lymphocyte associated protein 4, CTLA4
  • Negative regulator of T cell activation
  • CTLA4 restriction fragment length polymorphisms are linked to various autoimmune disorders
  • Shares sequence homology with CD28; also shares ligands CD80 and CD86 with CD28
  • Positive staining - normal: activated but not resting T cells, activated B cells
  • Reference: OMIM CD152
CD153
  • Also known as CD30 ligand
  • Enhances CD3 activated T lymphocyte proliferation
CD154
  • Also known as CD40 ligand, CD40L, TNF related activation protein (TRAP)
  • Regulates B cell function by engaging CD40
  • Defective gene prevents immunoglobulin class switch and is associated with hyper IgM syndrome, autoimmune hematologic disorders, disorganized nodal follicular architecture and PAS positive plasmacytoid cells containing IgM, lymph nodes without germinal centers, shortened lifespan, often with gastrointestinal cancers (cholangiocarcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma and adenocarcinoma) and Cryptosporidium parvum infection
  • Positive staining - normal: T cells
CD155
  • Also known as polio virus receptor
  • Involved in intercellular adhesion
  • Positive staining - normal: embryonic structures giving rise to spinal cord anterior horn motor neurons
CD156a
  • Also known as ADAM8
  • May play a role in muscle differentiation
  • Possible role in neutrophilic extravasation
  • Stains neutrophils, monocytes
CD156b
  • Also known as Tumor necrosis factor Alpha Converting Enzyme (TACE), ADAM17
  • Adhesion structure; releases soluble forms of tumor necrosis factor and transforming growth factor alpha from cells
  • Stains all cells examined, with pro domain removed
CD156c
CD157
  • Also known as Bone marrow STromal cell antigen 1 (BST1)
  • Facilitates pre B cell growth
  • 33% homology to CD38
  • Overexpression may cause polyclonal B cell abnormalities in rheumatoid arthritis
  • Positive staining - normal: granulocytes, monocytes, B cell progenitors, T cell subpopulations
CD158
  • Member of KIR (killer cell immunoglobulin like receptor) family, also called killer cell inhibitory receptors
  • Binding by HLA class I molecules causes inhibition of NK or T cell cytotoxic activity
  • Melanoma specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes may express KIR and regulate their ability to kill these tumors
  • Terminology:
    • CD158c: KIR2DS6 / KIRX
    • CD158d: KIR2DL4
    • CD158e1: KIR3DL1 / p70
    • CD158e2: KIR3DS1 / p70
    • CD158f: KIR2DL5 (Front Immunol 2017;7:698)
    • CD158g: KIR2DS5
    • CD158h: KIR2DS1 / p50.1
    • CD158i: KIR2DS4 / p50.3
    • CD158j: KIR2DS2 / p50.2
    • CD158k: KIR3DL2 / p140
    • CD158z: KIR3DL7 / KIRC1
  • Positive staining - normal: natural killer cells (NK cells), some T cells
CD158a
  • Also known as KIR2DL1 / p58.1
  • Regulates NK cell mediated cytolytic activity
  • Includes 2 different molecules with inhibitory and activation effects, presumably encoded by different genes of the same family
  • Positive staining: NK cell subset
CD158b
  • CD158b1: KIR2DL2 / p58.2
  • CD158b2: KIR2DL3 / p58.3
  • Regulates NK cell mediated cytolytic activity
  • Includes 2 different molecules with inhibitory and activation effects, presumably encoded by different genes of the same family
  • Positive staining: NK cell subset, rare T cells
CD159a
  • Also known as NKG2A, killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily C member 1
  • Mediates signaling in the killing process by NK cells
  • Positive staining - normal: NK cells
CD159c
  • Plays a role as a receptor for the recognition of MHC class I HLA-E molecules by natural killer cells and some cytotoxic T cells (Front Immunol 2018;9:686)
  • Also known as NKG2C, KLRC2
  • Positive staining - normal: natural killer cells and CD8+ T cells
CD170
  • Aka Sialic acid binding IG-like Lectin 5 (SIGLEC5)
  • May function in cell-cell interaction
  • Positive staining - normal: neutrophils
CD171
  • Aka L1
  • Adhesion molecule required for normal neurohistogenesis
  • Mutations cause CRASH (Corpus callosum hypoplasia / agenesis, Retardation, Aphasia, Spastic paraplegia / shuffling gait and Hydrocephalus due to stenosis of aqueduct of Sylvius), an X linked neurologic disorder
  • May mediate kidney branching morphogenesis, maintenance of lymph node architecture during immune response, costimulation of T cell activation in vitro
  • Positive staining - normal: postmitotic neurons, glia, epithelial cells (some), lymphoid cells (some), myeloid (some), monocytes
CD172a
  • Aka SIRP alpha
  • Adhesion structure
CD173
  • Aka blood group H2
  • Marker of early hematopoiesis
  • Positive staining - normal: CD34+ hematopoietic progenitor cells
  • Negative staining: mature lymphocytes
CD174
  • Aka Lewis Y antigen
  • Marker of early hematopoiesis
  • Positive staining - normal: CD34+ hematopoietic progenitor cells
  • Negative staining: mature lymphocytes
CD175
  • CD175:
    • Aka Tn
    • Simple mucin type carbohydrate antigen produced in the initial steps of mucin biosynthetic pathway, due to aberrant or incomplete glycosylation of mucins
CD176
  • Aka Thomsen-Friedenreich (TF) oncofetal blood group antigen, galactose beta 1-3 N-acetylgalactosamine alpha
  • Occurs in colon cancer and colitis
CD177
  • Aka NB1 glycoprotein
  • Major immunogenic molecule of neutrophil membrane
  • Positive staining - normal: myeloid cells
CD178
  • Aka CD95 ligand, Fas ligand (FasL)
  • Important role in T cell mediated cytotoxicity; induces apoptosis in Fas expressing target cells
  • Cells in immune privileged sites (testis, anterior chamber of eye, placenta) constitutively express FasL, which induces apoptosis in Fas expressing infiltrating T cells, minimizing inflammatory responses that might damage important physiologic functions at these sites
  • May influence interaction of tumor cells with host immune system; theory is that FasL+ tumor cells induce apoptosis in infiltrating Fas+ mononuclear cells
  • Fas-FasL binding triggers apoptosis in lymphocytes
  • Mutations may be related to some cases of Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (SLE)
  • Processed by metalloproteases which cause shedding of extracellular portion into blood (sFas L)
  • Positive staining - normal: activated and cytotoxic T cells, testis, anterior chamber of eye, placenta; also Sertoli cells, neurons, thyroid epithelial cells
  • Positive staining - tumors: Reed-Sternberg cells of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (nodular sclerosis and mixed cellularity) (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:388)
CD179
  • CD179a:
    • Aka VpreB1
    • Associates noncovalently with CD179b to form surrogate light chain as component of preB cell receptor, which plays a critical role in early B cell differentiation
  • CD179b:
    • Aka lambda 5
    • Associates noncovalently with CD179a to form surrogate light chain as component of preB cell receptor, which plays a critical role in early B cell differentiation
    • Mutations impair B cell development and cause agammaglobulinemia
  • Positive staining - normal: preB cells
CD180
  • Also called RP105
  • Regulates B cell recognition of lipopolysaccharide, a membrane constituent of gram-negative bacteria
  • Positive staining - normal: mantle zone and marginal zone B cells (strong), other B cells (weak / negative); peripheral blood monocytes, dendritic cells
CD181 / CD128
  • Also called CXCR1, IL8Ralpha; previously called CDw128A
  • Chemokine receptor, powerful neutrophil chemotactic factor
  • Positive staining - normal: neutrophils, basophils, T cell subset, monocytes, keratinocytes
  • Positive staining - disease: T cells in allergic rhinitis (J Immunol 2004;172:268)
CD182 / CXCR2
  • Also called CXCR2; formerly called CD128b
  • Interleukin 8 receptor beta subunit (IL8RB); binds multiple CXC chemokines including IL8 (CXCL8)
  • Chemokine receptor, powerful neutrophil chemotactic factor, particularly to sites of inflammation
  • Interpretation: cytoplasmic staining
  • Uses by pathologists: no significant uses by pathologists
  • Positive staining - normal: mature granulocytes, keratinocytes, neuroendocrine cells, projection neurons (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2000;124:520)
  • Positive staining - disease: carcinoid tumor (classic, atypical, metastatic), pituitary adenoma, pheochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma
  • Negative staining: parathyroid cells; small cell carcinoma of lung / cervix, large cell lung neuroendocrine carcinoma, Merkel cell carcinoma, neuroblastoma, melanoma
  • See Diagrams / tables
  • See Microscopic (histologic) images
CD183 / CXCR3
  • Also called CXCR3
  • Receptor for some chemokines; binding of chemokines to CD183 induces integrin activation, cytoskeletal changes and chemotactic migration in inflammation associated effector T cells
  • CD183+ T cells detected in inflamed tissues of patients with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis, sarcoidosis, hepatitis C
  • Positive staining - normal: T cells in inflamed tissue, eosinophils, plasmacytoid dendritic cells, hematopoietic progenitors
  • Negative staining: naïve T cells in peripheral blood
CD184
  • Also called CXCR4, stromal cell derived factor 1 (SDF1)
  • Receptor for the CXC chemokine SDF1
  • Also major HIV / SIV coreceptor (with CCR5 / CD195)
  • Involved in B cell development, myelopoiesis, cardiac ventricular septum formation, blood vessel formation in GI tract, cerebellar granular cell development
  • Positive staining - normal: all mature blood cells, blood progenitor cells, endothelial and epithelial cells, astrocytes, neurons
CD185
  • Multipass membrane protein of CXC chemokine receptor family
  • Also called CXCR5, BLR1 (Burkitt lymphoma receptor 1)
  • Pathophysiology:
    • Binds to B Lymphocyte Chemoattractant (BLC / CXCL13) (J Exp Med 1998;187:655)
    • Involved in B cell migration into B cell follicles of spleen and Peyer patches (J Immunol 2009;182:2610)
    • Critical for function of follicular helper T (TFH) cells
    • May have role in survival and maintainance of cardiac structure upon pressure overload by regulating proteoglycans essential for correct collagen assembly (PLoS One 2011;6:e18668)
    • May be important for ectopic mucosa associated lymphoid tissue neogenesis in chronic Helicobacter pylori induced inflammation (J Mol Med (Berl) 2010;88:1169)
    • During HIV1 infection, altered expression of CXCR5 / CXCL13 may cause B cell dysfunction (Blood 2008;112:4401)
    • Upregulated in rheumatoid arthritis synovial tissue and expressed in various cell types (Arthritis Res Ther 2005;7:R217)
  • Interpretation: cytoplasmic staining
  • Uses by pathologists: no significant uses by pathologists
  • Positive staining - normal: mature B cells
  • Positive staining - disease: Burkitt's lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma; AIDS related non-Hodgkin lymphoma (Blood 2009;113:4604, AIDS Res Treat 2010;2010:164586)
  • See Microscopic (histologic) images
CD186
  • No information available
CD187
  • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
CD188
  • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
CD189
  • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
CD190
  • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
CD191 / CCR1
CD192 / CCR2
  • Receptor for MCP1, MCP3, MCP4 chemokines; alternative coreceptor with CD4 for HIV1
  • Abbreviation for chemokine C-C motif ligand 2 (CCL2) chemokine C-C motif receptor 2
  • Also known as CD192 but most publications use CCR2
  • Inflammatory cytokine with 374 amino acids that mediates biologic effects of CCL2, also known as monocyte chemoattractant protein 1 (MCP1); CCL2-CCR2 may be involved in neuroinflammation and chronic pain (J Neuroinflammation 2012;9:136)
  • During chemotaxis, may act as scavenger consuming the chemokine (PLoS One 2012;7:e37208)
  • Clinical features:
  • Uses by pathologists: none
  • Positive staining: neurons, monocytes; controversial if expressed on microglia or due to infiltrating monocytes
  • See Diagrams / tables
CD193 / CCR3
CD194 / CCR4
CD195 / CCR5
CD196 / CCR6
CD197 / CCR7
CD198 / CCR8
CD199 / CCR9
CDw210
  • Aka IL10 receptor
  • Interleukin 10 produced by B cells, T helper cells and monocyte / macrophages, exhibits diverse activities on different cell lines (OMIM 124092)
  • IL10 inhibits macrophage activation by interferon gamma
  • Positive staining - normal: monocytes, B and T cells, large granular lymphocytes, spleen, thymus, placenta, lung, liver
CD211
  • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
CD212
  • Aka IL12 receptor
  • Interleukin 12 promotes cell mediated immunity to intracellular pathogens by inducing type 1 helper T cell responses and interferon gamma production
  • Lack of IL12 associated with severe, idiopathic mycobacterial and Salmonella infections, mature granulomas
  • Positive staining - normal: T cells, NK cells
CD213
  • CD213a1:
    • Aka IL13 receptor, alpha 1
    • Binds IL13 with low affinity
    • With IL4r-alpha, can form a functional receptor for IL13
    • Positive staining - normal: ubiquitous, B cells, T cells and endothelial cells, highest levels in heart, liver, skeletal muscle and ovary
  • CD213a2:
    • Aka IL13 receptor, alpha 2
    • Inhibits binding of interleukin 13 to the IL13 cell surface receptor
    • Positive staining - normal: placenta
CD214
  • No information available
CD215
  • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
CD216
  • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
CDw217
  • Aka IL 17 receptor
  • Cytokine that is induced in activated CD4+ T cells
  • IL17 induces stromal cells to produce proinflammatory and hematopoietic cytokines; enhances expression in fibroblasts of ICAM1
CD218
  • No information available
CD219
  • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
CD220
  • Aka insulin receptor
CD221
  • Aka insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor
  • Mediates insulin stimulated DNA synthesis and IGF1 stimulated cell proliferation and differentiation
  • Often overexpressed in malignant tissue, where it functions as an anti-apoptotic agent by enhancing cell survival
CD222
  • Aka insulin-like growth factor 2 receptor, mannose 6 phosphate receptor
  • Also a receptor for lysosomal hydrolases (i.e. assists in sorting lysosomal enzymes from Golgi apparatus or extracellular space to lysosomes)
CD223
  • Aka Lymphocyte-Activation Gene 3 (LAG3)
  • Homologous to CD4
  • Associates with MHC class II molecules on monocytes/dendritic cells, which are subsequently activated
  • May help activated CD4+ and CD8+ T cells to fully activate monocytes and dendritic cells, leading to optimized MHC class I and class II T cell responses
  • Positive staining - normal: activated T cells, activated NK cells
CD224
  • Aka gamma-glutamyltransferase
  • Gene at 22q11.1-q11.2
  • Catalyzes the transfer of the glutamyl moiety of glutathione to a variety of amino acids and dipeptide acceptors, which maintains a homeostatic balance regarding oxidative stress
CD225
  • Aka Leu13, interferon-inducible transmembrane protein 1
  • Involved in relaying antiproliferative and homotypic adhesion signals
CD226
  • Aka DNAM1, Platelet and T cell Activation antigen 1 (PTA1)
  • Mediates adhesion to an unknown ligand
  • T cell expression increased in some patients with autoimmune disease and viral infection
  • Positive staining - normal: NK cells, platelets, monocytes, subset of B and T cells
  • Negative staining: granulocytes, erythrocytes
CD227
CD228
  • Aka melanotransferrin
  • Cell surface glycoprotein found on melanoma cells, with sequence similarity and iron binding properties of transferrin superfamily
CD229
  • Aka lymphocyte antigen 9
  • May be involved in adhesion between T cells and accessory cells
CD240CE
  • Also called RH 30 CE, Rh blood group Cc and Ee blood group antigens; encodes RhC and RhE antigens on a single polypeptide
  • On #1p36.11 adjacent to RH D gene
  • Rh (rhesus) blood group system is second most clinically significant blood group after ABO; is most polymorphic blood group, with variations due to deletions, gene conversions and missense mutations
  • Rh antigens are carried by an oligomer of two major erythroid specific polypeptides, the Rh (D and CcEe) proteins and the RhAG glycoprotein
  • Discrepant or doubtful serologic results can be resolved by sequence specific primer (PCR SSP) technique (Transfusion 2007;47:54S)
  • Rarely causes hemolytic disease of newborn (Transfus Med 2000;10:305)
  • Uses by pathologists: blood typing
  • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells
  • References: Blood 2000;95:375, OMIM 111700
CD240D
  • Also called RH30 D, Rh blood group D blood group antigen; is major antigen of the Rh system
  • On #1p36.11 adjacent to RHCE gene
  • Rh (rhesus) blood group system is second most clinically significant blood group after ABO; is most polymorphic blood group, with variations due to deletions, gene conversions and missense mutations
  • Weak D, formerly called D(u), occurs in 0.2 to 1% of whites
  • Individuals are classified as Rh positive or negative based on presence or absence of highly immunogenic D antigen on red cell surface
  • May have arisen historically by duplication of RHCE gene (Blood 2002;99:2272)
  • Discrepant or doubtful serologic results can be resolved by sequence specific primer (PCR SSP) technique (Transfusion 2007;47:54S)
  • Hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn: usually due to Rh negative woman whose partner is Rh+ or heterozygous and fetus is Rh+; woman has preexisting anti-RhD antibodies that cross placenta and harm fetus (Immunohematol 2006;22:188)
  • Can use maternal plasma in alloimmunized pregnancies to determine fetal RhD status or for RHD and RHCE genotyping (Fetal Diagn Ther 2006;21:404, Prenat Diagn 2005;25:1079)
  • Rh positive mothers may rarely (0.15%) develop new antibodies (other than anti-RHD) in third trimester but no clinical significance (J Matern Fetal Neonatal Med 2007;20:59)
  • Having Rh negative mother may be risk factor for autistic children, due to use of mercury containing Rho-immune globulin (J Matern Fetal Neonatal Med 2007;20:385)
  • Uses by pathologists: blood typing
  • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells
  • References: OMIM 111680, Wikipedia, eMedicine (Rh incompatibility)
CD240DCE
  • Rh30D / CE crossreactive monoclonal antibodies
  • Uses by pathologists: blood typing
  • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells of normal Rh types
  • Negative staining: Rh null erythrocytes
CD241
CD242
  • Also called intercellular adhesion molecule 4 (ICAM4), Landsteiner-Wiener (LW) blood group protein
  • Discovered with antibody raised in guinea pigs injected with the cells of rhesus monkeys but Rh designation had already been taken
  • Binds to CD11a / CD18, CD11b / CD18 and CD11c / CD18 (Blood 2007;109:802)
  • May be critical in erythroblastic island formation, where erythroid progenitors differentiate (Blood 2006;108:2064)
  • May be ligand for platelet activated alpha IIb beta 3 integrin (J Biol Chem 2003;278:4892)
  • In sickle cell disease, contributes to red cell endothelial cell adhesion and vasoocclusion (Transfus Clin Biol 2006;13:44)
  • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells
  • References: OMIM 111250
CD243
CD244
CD245
  • Also called p220 / 240
  • Very little information is available for CD245 directly; appears to be identical to NPAT (nuclear protein, ataxia-telangiectasia locus)
  • NPAT links S phase cyclin E / Cdk2 kinase activity to replication dependent histone gene transcription (Biochemistry 2006;45:15915, Mol Cell Biol 2005;25:6140)
  • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
  • Positive staining - normal: T cells (some), other white blood cells with varying intensity
CD246
CD247
CD248
CD249
CD281
  • TLR1_HUMAN (Q15399, OMIM 601194)
  • TLR1, toll-like receptor 1 (toll / interleukin 1 receptor-like) (TIL)
CD282
  • TLR2_HUMAN (O60603, OMIM 603028)
  • TLR2, TIL4, toll-like receptor 2 (toll / interleukin 1 receptor-like protein 4)
CD283
CD284
CD289
CD303
  • No information at this time
CD333
CD351
CD352
  • First described as CD352 at HLDA9 in 2011 (Immunol Lett 2011;134:104)
  • Also known as Signaling lymphocytic activation molecule F6 (SLAMF6), Ly108 and NTBA
  • Member of SLAM (CD150) family of receptors, which are leukocyte cell-surface glycoproteins involved in leukocyte activation; these molecules and their adaptor protein SAP contribute to germinal center formation, generation of plasma cells and memory B cells (Immunol Lett 2011;134:129)
  • Costimulatory molecule with CD28 implicated in formation of Th17 lymphocytes and IL17A expression (J Biol Chem 2012;287:38168)
  • One of several risk loci for Graves disease of thyroid (Hum Mol Genet 2013;22:3347)
  • Increased expression on surface of T cells in system lupus erythematosus (J Immunol 2012;188:1206); this pathway may be defective in SLE T cells (Autoimmunity 2011;44:211)
  • No usage for pathologists at this time
  • Positive staining (normal): B cells, plasma cells (Immunol Lett 2011;134:122); also NK, T cells (Wikipedia)
CD353
CD354
  • Triggering REceptor on Myeloid cells; member of Ig superfamily
  • sTREM1: soluble levels of TREM1
  • Part of family of immune sensors which signal innate immune system and amplifies immune responses that promote pro-inflammatory cytokine production; neutrophils are major source of TREM1
  • TREM1 is an activating receptor and requires association with transmembrane adapter molecule DAP12 (DNAX-associated protein 12) for cell signaling (PLoS One 2013;8:e82498, J Leukoc Biol 2013;93:209)
  • TREM1 and MMPs orchestrate an "adaptive" form of innate immunity by modulating the monocyte response to endotoxin (J Leukoc Biol 2012;91:933)
  • Dendritic cells: TREM1 induction by hypoxic microenvironment activates immature dendritic cells and regulates Th1 cell trafficking (Eur J Immunol 2013;43:949)
  • Positive staining: Myeloid cells

Clinical featuresUses by pathologists
  • Differentiate bacterial versus nonbacterial infections (PLoS One 2013;8:e65436)
  • Early diagnosis of sepsis (BMC Infect Dis 2012;12:157)
  • CD355
    • Class I MHC Restricted T cell Associated Molecule
    • First identified at 9th Human Leukocyte Differentiation Antigens Workshop in 2011 / HLDA9 (Immunol Lett 2011;134:104)
    • Expressed in epithelial cells along lateral membrane; important for early cell-cell contacts and cell-substrate interactions (J Cell Biochem 2010;111:111)
    • Binds to cell adhesion molecule nectin-like 2 (Necl2) (Structure 2013;21:1430)
    • Rapidly induced in NK, NKT and CD8+ T cells (Mol Immunol 2009;46:3379); may promote cytotoxic function of NK cells and lead to IFN-γ secretion by CD8+ T cells through interaction with Necl2 (J Immunol 2013;190:4868, Curr Opin Immunol 2012;24:246)
    • 3 common variants of CRTAM gene are associated with an increased rate of asthma exacerbations based on a low circulating vitamin D level (J Allergy Clin Immunol 2012;129:368)
    • No uses by pathologists at this time
    • Positive staining: Epithelial cells; activated CD8+ and natural killer T cells
    CD357
    CD358
    CD360
    CD361
    CD365
    CD366
    CD367
    CD368
    CD369
    CD370
    CD371
  • CLEC12A is a type II transmembrane protein easily detectable by flow cytometry (Clin Transl Immunology 2016;5:e57)
  • Identifies most DUX4+ B ALL cases (Haematologica 2019;104:e352)
  • May be useful in identifying residual disease in AML (Blood Rev 2019;34:26)
  • Has important role in recognizing dead cells, plasmodium derived hemozoin and cerebral malaria development (Cell Rep 2019;28:30)
  • Positive staining (normal): innate immune cells (granulocytes, macrophages and dendritic cells); basophils (Cytometry B Clin Cytom 2018;94:520)
  • Positive staining (disease): acute myeloid leukemia cells (Clin Transl Immunology 2016;5:e57)
  • Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CD182: inflammatory infiltration

    CCR2: lamina propria lymphocytes

    CCR5: HIV entry into CD4+ cell via CCR5 coreceptor

    CCR6: immature
    dendritic cells
    traffic to lung via
    CCR6 / CCL20 axis

    Missing Image

    CD247: T cell activation

    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CD182: ovarian carcinoma

    CD185: chronic H. pylori gastris (left); MALT lymphoma (right)

    CD185: AIDS related non-Hodgkin lymphoma

    CD185: synovium of nonrheumatoid arthritis (left) and rheumatoid arthritis (right)


    Missing Image

    CCR2: human glomeruli

    Missing Image

    CCR3: eosinophils and airway epithelium

    Missing Image

    CCR3: lymph nodes involved by Hodgkin disease

    Missing Image

    CCR3: cutaneous T cell lymphoma

    Missing Image

    CCR3: paraffin embedded malignant melanoma

    Missing Image

    CCR3: renal cell carcinoma


    Missing Image

    CCR4: lymph node normal

    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    CCR4: lymph node (adult T cell leukemia / lymphoma)

    Missing Image

    CCR4: Sézary syndrome

    Missing Image

    CCR6: nonsmall cell lung carcinoma


    Missing Image

    CCR6: lung sarcoidosis

    Missing Image

    CCR6: lymph node melanoma

    Missing Image

    CCR7: various breast carcinomas

    Missing Image

    CCR7: T cells in advanced adenocarcinoma in colorectum

    Missing Image

    CCR7: esophageal SCC and metastatic lymph node

    Missing Image

    CCR7: lymphoma T cells


    Missing Image

    CCR7: skin melanoma and sentinel lymph node

    Missing Image

    CCR9: normal and carcinoma ovaries

    Missing Image

    CD247: normal expression

    Missing Image

    CD247: reduced expression

    Missing Image

    CD248: IHC detection of FB5 antigen

    Virtual slides

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Cerebellum

    Tonsil

    Lymph node

    Pancreas

    Cerebral cortex

    Spleen


    Ovarian stroma cells

    Bone marrow

    Parathyroid

    Prostate

    Pancreatic cancer

    Peripheral smear images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CCR4:
    peripheral blood
    (adult T cell
    leukemia / lymphoma)


    CD1-9
    CD1
    • Family of nonpolymorphic MHC class I-like glycoproteins on surface of various antigen presenting cells; member of immunoglobulin superfamily
    • Mediate presentation of endogenous and foreign lipids (including bacterial lipid antigens) on cell surface for recognition by T cell receptors
    • To sample a diverse antigen pool, CD1 proteins are repeatedly internalized and recycled; this may be assisted by lipid transfer proteins such as saposins (J Biol Chem 2013;288:19528, Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2012;109:4357)
    • May also mediate thymic T cell development
    • Has 5 different subsets (CD1a, CD1b, CD1c, CD1d, CD1e), all noncovalently associated with beta 2 microglobulin, all on #1q22-23 (non MHC linked)
    • Different CD1 forms bind to different types of lipid antigen based on differences in their antigen binding grooves (Nat Rev Immunol 2005;5:387)
    • Separated into 2 groups based on sequence homology:
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Cellular infection with Mycobacteria tuberculosis or exposure to mycobacterial cell wall products converts CD1- myeloid precursors into competent CD1+ antigen presenting cells (J Immunol 2005;175:1758)
        • However M. tuberculosis possesses a successful tactic based, at least in part, on CD1 downregulation to evade CD1 dependent immunity (Clin Dev Immunol 2011;2011:790460)
      • Pollen lipids are also recognized as antigens by T cells via CD1 dependent pathway (J Exp Med 2005;202:295)
    • Clinical features:
    • Uses by pathologists: CD1a is used to diagnose Langerhans cell histiocytosis and to exclude other entities that are CD1a negative
    CD1a
    CD1b
    • On chromosome 1q22-23 (not MHC linked); noncovalently associated with beta2 microglobulin
    • Capable of binding ligands with greatly varying alkyl chain lengths (including Mycobacteria tuberculosis and Mycobacteria leprae) through a complex network of interconnected hydrophobic pockets (J Immunol 2004;172:2382, Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2011;108:19335, OMIM: 188360 [Accessed 13 May 2021])
    • Part of immune response to intracellular bacteria
    • Human gammadelta T cells recognize Lipid A in a CD1b or CD1c restricted manner as a first response to gram negative bacteria (Biol Direct 2009;4:47)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: cortical thymocytes, Langerhans cells (weaker staining than CD1a), myeloid dendritic cells, brain pyramidal cells and subpopulation of B cells
    • Positive staining - disease:
    • Negative staining: normal B cells
    CD1c
    • On chromosome 1q22-23 (not MHC linked); noncovalently associated with beta2 microglobulin
    • Mediates the presentation of primarily lipid and glycolipid antigens of self or microbial origin to T cells (Immunity 2010;33:853)
    • Has the capacity to present a wide repertoire of antigens to reactive T cells (Mol Immunol 2013;55:182, J Biol Chem 2011;286:37692)
    • Expressed on a subset of myeloid dendritic cells; secrete IL10 in response to Escherichia coli (Eur J Immunol 2012;42:1512)
    • Common CD1c antibody is BDCA1
    • Clinical features:
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Cortical thymocytes, Langerhans cells (weaker staining than CD1a), immature myeloid dendritic cells (J Clin Invest 2007;117:2517)
      • Subset of normal peripheral B cells, subset of activated T cells
    • Positive staining - disease:
    • Negative staining: normal B cells
    • Electron microscopy description: present in early and late endosomes (J Exp Med 2000;192:281)
    CD1d
    • CD1d presents lipid antigens to natural killer T (NKT) cells; when activated, NKT cells rapidly produce Th1 and Th2 cytokines, typically represented by interferon gamma and IL4 (Wikipedia: CD1D [Accessed 31 July 2018], OMIM: 188410 [Accessed 31 July 2018])
    • B cells also present lipid antigen to CD1d restricted invariant NKT cells, which contributes to maintaining tolerance in autoimmunity
    • On chromosome 1q22-23 (not MHC linked)
    • Also called R3G1
    • Sole group 2 member of the CD1 family of MHC-like glycoproteins
    • Clinical features:
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists; may play a role in future vaccine development (Proc Natl Acad Sci U S A 2010;107:13010)
    • Case reports: 6 year old boy with no apparent immunodeficiency who suffered severe life threatening infection with varicella vaccine virus, with low invariant natural killer T cells and diminished CD1d expression (J Infect Dis 2011;204:1893)
    • Positive staining - normal:
    • Positive staining - disease: some B and T cell malignancies; keratinocytes in psoriasis
    • Negative staining: normal B cells
    CD1e
    • Participates in lipid antigen presentation without interacting with T cell receptor; binds lipids in lysosomes and facilitates processing of complex glycolipids, thus promoting editing of lipid antigens; may positively or negatively affect lipid presentation by CD1b, CD1c, CD1d (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2011;108:14228)
    • Only CD1 protein existing in soluble form in late endosomes of dendritic cells; not expressed on cell surface
    • On chromosome 1q22-23 (not MHC linked); noncovalently associated with beta2 microglobulin
    • Clinical features:
      • Processes mycobacterial antigen (instead of presenting antigen directly) and may help expand repertoire of glycolipid T cell antigens to optimize the immune response (Science 2005;310:1321, Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2011;108:13230)
      • Initially accumulates in Golgi of immature dendritic cells or transfected cells as a membrane associated form, then is transported to early and then late endosomes, then is cleaved into a soluble form, which facilitates the processing of glycolipids presented by other CD1 molecules transiting through the same compartments (Biochem J 2009;419:661)
      • +6129 A/G gene polymorphisms are associated with multiple sclerosis (Immunol Invest 2010;39:874)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: dendritic cells
    CD2
    • Early T cell marker expressed on all peripheral blood T cells, 95% of thymocytes, NK cells but no B cells (OMIM: 186990 [Accessed 13 May 2021], J Biol Chem 2010;285:41755)
    • Gene is at 1p13.1; protein is member of immunoglobulin superfamily
    • Also called E rosette receptor because CD2 antibodies inhibit formation of rosettes with sheep erythrocytes
    • Also called LFA2 (leukocyte function antigen), T11
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Binds CD58 (LFA3) on antigen presenting cells, which enables T cells to respond to lower concentrations of antigen (J Exp Med 1999;190:1383)
      • Mediates adhesion between T cells and antigen presenting cells, induces costimulatory signals in T cells and T cell cytokine production, inhibits apoptosis of activated peripheral T cells (Immunology 2013;139:48)
      • Regulates T cell anergy
      • Regulates T and NK mediated cytolysis
      • CD2 distinguishes 2 subsets of human plasmacytoid dendritic cells with distinct phenotype and functions (J Immunol 2009;182:6815)
      • CD2 promotes NK cell membrane nanotube formation (PLoS One 2012;7:e47664)
    • Clinical features:
    • Uses by pathologists: T cell marker (membranous staining), although CD3 is more commonly used; marker of systemic mastocytosis
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Thymocytes (95%), mature peripheral T cells (almost all), NK cells (80 - 90%), mast cells
      • Variable thymic B cells (50%), Langerhans cells
    • Positive staining - disease:
    CD2R
    • CD2 epitope present on activated T cells, unmasked by conformational change of CD2 glycoprotein during activation
    • No recent articles in literature
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: activated T cells
    • Positive staining - disease: blood and synovial fluid T cells in rheumatoid arthritis; peripheral blood T cells in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, ankylosing spondylitis and Lyme disease (Scand J Immunol 1991;34:351)
    • Negative staining: resting T cells
    CD3
    CD4
    CD5
    CD6
    CD7
    CD8
    CD9
    • Cell surface protein that mediates adhesion, migration, signal transduction
    • Also called tetraspanin CD9, motility related protein 1 (MRP1) (note: MRP is multidrug resistance associated protein)
    • Antibodies are used to purge bone marrow in acute lymphoblastic leukemia prior to peripheral stem cell bone marrow transplant (Am J Pediatr Hematol Oncol 1993;15:162)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Member of transmembrane 4 superfamily (tetraspanin family); tetraspanins have 4 hydrophobic domains, organize multimolecular complexes in plasma membrane; each tetraspanin associates specifically with integrins and other tetraspanins, forming primary complexes and leading to molecular network of interactions, the "tetraspanin web"
      • Regulates cell motility, development, activation, growth and adhesion (Blood 2011;117:1840)
      • Regulates paranodal junction formation (between neurons and glia)
      • Required for microparticle release from coated platelets (Platelets 2009;20:361)
        • Triggers platelet activation and aggregation
      • Supports myotube maintenance and promotes muscle cell fusion
      • Downregulation in ovarian carcinoma may promote tumor dissemination (Cancer Res 2005;65:2617)
      • May suppress metastasis in small cell lung cancer by promoting apoptosis via calretinin expression (Cancer Res 2010;70:8025, FEBS Open Bio 2013;3:225)
      • May mediate invasion by upregulating MMP9 (PLoS One 2013;8:e67766)
    • Clinical features:
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Pre B cells, B cell subset, activated T cells, basophils, eosinophils (Am J Respir Cell Mol Biol 2012;46:188)
      • Macrophages, megakaryocytes, plasma cells, plasma cell precursors in germinal centers (Biochem Biophys Res Commun 2013;431:41), platelets
      • Brain, cardiac muscle, GI system, kidney (glomeruli, tubules and collective ducts), liver, lymphatic epithelium, ovarian surface epithelium, peripheral nerve, skin, spleen, thyroid, tonsil
    • Positive staining - disease:
    • Negative staining: red blood cells, renal collecting duct carcinomas (almost all)
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD1d: antigen presentation

    Missing Image

    CD1d: viral evasion of antigen presentation

    Missing Image

    CD1d: intestinal epithelial CD1d expression

    Missing Image

    CD2: T cells and antigen presenting cells

    Missing Image

    CD9: structure

    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD1: primary and metastatic melanoma

    Missing Image

    CD1: Langerhans cells of anal mucosa

    Missing Image

    CD1b: leprosy patient

    Missing Image

    CD1c: marginal zone B cells (spleen)

    Missing Image

    CD1c: stomach: H. pylori+ mucosa

    Missing Image

    CD1c: thyroid gland


    Missing Image

    CD1c: immature dendritic cells

    Missing Image

    CD1d: HPV associated lesions (cervix)

    Missing Image

    CD1d: trophoblast (placenta)

    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD1d: scalp skin

    Missing Image

    CD2: hydroa
    vacciniforme-like
    lymphoma


    Missing Image

    Brain (CD6-)

    Missing Image

    CD6: colon

    Missing Image

    Kidney (CD6-)

    Missing Image

    Skeletal muscle (CD6-)

    Missing Image

    CD6: tonsil

    Missing Image

    Uterus (CD6-)


    Missing Image

    CD7: normal tonsil

    Missing Image

    CD7: cutaneous T cell lymphoma

    Missing Image

    CD9: normal tissue (cerebrum)

    Missing Image

    CD9: normal tissue (cervical squamous epithelium)

    Missing Image

    CD9: cervical carcinoma


    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    CD9: CNS nonneuroepithelial tumors

    Missing Image

    CD9: well differentiated adenocarcinoma (gallbladder)

    Missing Image

    CD9: mesothelioma


    Missing Image

    CD9: basal and
    squamous cell
    carcinoma and
    actinic keratosis

    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD9: small cell lung cancer

    Electron microscopy images

    Image hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD1c: various cellular locations


    CD10
    Definition / general
    • Cell membrane zinc dependent metalloendopeptidase that is widely distributed in hematopoietic cells and hematopoietic neoplasms, normal kidney tissue and renal neoplasms, as well as a wide variety of additional tissues
    • Important in diagnosis, subclassification and surveillance of B lymphoblastic leukemia (B ALL) (OMIM: Membrane Metalloendopeptidase; MME [Accessed 17 January 2023])
    • Useful in diagnosis of other entities but must be used with caution, as staining is nonspecific
    Essential features
    • Membranous marker with extensive expression in normal tissues, complicating interpretation
    • Critical for use in diagnosis and subclassification of leukemias (e.g., B lymphoblastic leukemia, mixed phenotype acute leukemia, etc.) and lymphomas (e.g., follicular lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma, diffuse large B cell lymphoma, angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma)
    • Additional uses in diagnosis of solid tumors (e.g., renal cell carcinoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma, solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of the pancreas, etc.)
    Terminology
    • Cluster of differentiation 10
    • Also called common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen (CALLA), membrane metalloendopeptidase (MME), neutral endopeptidase, membrane associated (NEP), neutral endopeptidase 24.11, neprilysin, EC 3.4.24.11, enkephalinase, atriopeptidase
    Pathophysiology
    • Encoded by MME gene
    • 85-110 kDa cell membrane metalloendopeptidase at 3q25.1-q25.2 that inactivates bioactive peptides, including atrial natriuretic factor, bombesin, β amyloid, endothelin 1, enkephalins, gastrin and substance P and through the cytoplasmic domain, directly interacts with ezrin / radixin / moesin proteins, Lyn kinase and the phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN) protein (J Pediatr Hematol Oncol 2010;32:2)
    • In epithelial cells, CD10 loss from methylation leads to increased cell migration, cell growth and cell survival, contributing to neoplastic development and progression (J Pediatr Hematol Oncol 2010;32:2, Biochim Biophys Acta 2005;1751:52)
    • In the central nervous system, CD10 knockout mice demonstrate increased levels of Aβ peptides in the brain and exhibit amyloid-like deposits with signs of neurodegeneration in the hippocampus and behavioral deficits (J Neurosci Res 2006;84:1871, Science 2001;292:1550)
    • In the peripheral nervous system, CD10 decrease or loss resulting from MME gene loss of function mutations are associated with adult onset autosomal recessive Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (AR-CMT) (Ann Neurol 2016;79:659)
    Diagrams / tables

    Contributed by Bradford Siegele, M.D., J.D.
    Hans classification

    Hans classification

    Interpretation
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    • CD10- B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma is associated with t(v;11q23.3); KMT2A (MLL) rearrangement, infantile (< 1 year of age) presentation and poor prognosis (Leukemia 2002;16:1233)
    • CD10 in diffuse large B cell lymphoma is a marker for germinal center phenotype (also HGAL, BCL6, CD38, LMO2), generally considered a favorable prognostic factor, secondary in part to association with cell of origin classification (germinal center B cell versus activated B cell) (Mod Pathol 2005;18:1113, J Hematop 2009;2:187)
    • Stromal expression in invasive breast carcinoma, no special type is associated with increased biologic aggressiveness and poor prognosis (Mod Pathol 2007;20:84, Virchows Arch 2002;440:589)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Bradford Siegele, M.D., J.D.
    Lymphoblasts in B ALL / LBL

    Lymphoblasts in B ALL / LBL

    Lymphoblasts in B ALL / LBL, PAX5+

    Lymphoblasts in B ALL / LBL, PAX5+

    Lymphoblasts in B ALL / LBL, CD10+

    Lymphoblasts in B ALL / LBL, CD10+

    Lymphoblasts in B ALL / LBL, TdT+

    Lymphoblasts in B ALL / LBL, TdT+


    Starry sky of Burkitt lymphoma

    Starry sky of Burkitt lymphoma

    Burkitt lymphoma cells, CD20+

    Burkitt lymphoma cells, CD20+

    Burkitt lymphoma cells, CD10+

    Burkitt lymphoma cells, CD10+

    Burkitt lymphoma cells, BCL6+

    Burkitt lymphoma cells, BCL6+

    Burkitt lymphoma cells, TdT-

    Burkitt lymphoma cells, TdT-


    Large atypical cells of DLBCL

    Large atypical cells of DLBCL

    Large atypical cells of DLBCL, OCT2+

    Large atypical cells of DLBCL, OCT2+

    Large atypical cells of DLBCL, CD10+

    Large atypical cells of DLBCL, CD10+

    Large atypical cells of DLBCL, BCL6+

    Large atypical cells of DLBCL, BCL6+

    Large atypical cells of DLBCL, MUM1 variable

    Large atypical cells of DLBCL, MUM1 variable


    Atypical cells and blood vessels of AITL

    Atypical cells and blood vessels of AITL

    Atypical cells of AITL, CD3+

    Atypical cells of AITL, CD3+

    Atypical cells of AITL, CD4+

    Atypical cells of AITL, CD4+

    Atypical cells of AITL, CD8-

    Atypical cells of AITL, CD8-

    Atypical cells of AITL, CD10+

    Atypical cells of AITL, CD10+

    Atypical cells of AITL, ICOS+

    Atypical cells of AITL, ICOS+


    Nodules of atypical cells of FL

    Nodules of atypical cells of FL

    Nodules of atypical cells of FL, CD20+

    Nodules of atypical cells of FL, CD20+

    Nodules of atypical cells of FL, CD10+

    Nodules of atypical cells of FL, CD10+

    Nodules of atypical cells of FL, BCL2+

    Nodules of atypical cells of FL, BCL2+

    Nodules of atypical cells of FL, BCL6+

    Nodules of atypical cells of FL, BCL6+

    Atypical follicular dendritic cell meshworks of FL, CD21+

    Atypical follicular
    dendritic cell
    meshworks of
    FL, CD21+


    Pseudopapillae of SPN

    Pseudopapillae of SPN

    Pseudopapillae of SPN, CD10+

    Pseudopapillae of SPN, CD10+

    Pseudopapillae of SPN, alpha-1 antitrypsin+

    Pseudopapillae of SPN, alpha-1 antitrypsin+

    Endometriosis of sigmoid colon

    Endometriosis of sigmoid colon

    Endometriosis of sigmoid colon, CD10+

    Endometriosis of sigmoid colon, CD10+

    Endometriosis of sigmoid colon, ER+

    Endometriosis of sigmoid colon, ER+


    Moderately atypical spindle cells of ESS

    Moderately atypical spindle cells of ESS

    Spindle cells of ESS, CD10+

    Spindle cells of ESS, CD10+

    Minimally atypical cells of CCRCC

    Minimally atypical cells of ccRCC

    Atypical cells of CCRCC, CD10+

    Atypical cells of ccRCC, CD10+

    Atypical cells of CCRCC, CAIX+

    Atypical cells of ccRCC, CAIX+

    Atypical cells of CCRCC, vimentin+

    Atypical cells of ccRCC, vimentin+


    Atypical cells of CCRCC, CK7-

    Atypical cells of ccRCC, CK7-

    Atypical cells of CCRCC, CD117-

    Atypical cells of ccRCC, CD117-

    Atypical cells of CCRCC, CD15-

    Atypical cells of ccRCC, CD15-



    Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
    Missing Image

    Myoepithelial layer on CD10

    Missing Image

    Breast tubular adenoma immunoprofile

    Virtual slides

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Follicular lymphoma, duodenal

    Renal cell carcinoma, clear cell type

    Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of pancreas

    Leiomyoma, cellular

    Positive staining - normal
    • Hematopoietic cells:
      • Hematogones, pre-T cells, T follicular helper cells, germinal center B cells, mature granulocytes
    • Other cells:
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Leukemia / lymphomas:
      • Acute myeloid leukemia (AML), chronic lymphocytic leukemia / small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL / SLL), EBV+ lymphoproliferative disorders
      • Lymphoplasmacytic (LPL) (usually), mantle cell, marginal zone (MALT, splenic, nodal) (usually), primary cutaneous diffuse large B cell, leg type, pyothorax associated
      • Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma) (very rare) (Leuk Lymphoma 2012;53:1032)
      • Hairy cell leukemia (10%) (Am J Clin Pathol 2003;120:228)
      • Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (some), plasma cell myeloma (some), primary cutaneous diffuse large B cell (variable), plasmablastic (variable), primary mediastinal B cell (32%) (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1277)
    • Other:
      • Atypical polypoid adenomyoma (stromal cells), clear cell carcinoma of female genital tract
      • Colon (normal, diseased), erythroid and myeloid precursors, hemangioblastoma, high grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN) and basal cell hyperplasia, prostatic adenocarcinoma (all Gleason patterns 2 and 3, some 4 and 5) (Hum Pathol 2003;34:450)
      • Melanoma (40%) (Mod Pathol 2004;17:1251)
      • Schwannoma (45%)
    Flow cytometry images

    Contributed by Bradford Siegele, M.D., J.D. and Aashish Khatri, M.L.S., M.B.A.
    Flow cytometric analysis (diagnostic) Flow cytometric analysis (minimal residual disease)

    Flow cytometric analysis, B ALL / LBL

    Flow cytometric analysis (diagnostic)

    Flow cytometric analysis, T ALL / LBL



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Flow cytometric analysis, DLBCL

    Sample pathology report
    • Lymph node, right neck level 5, excision:
      • Large B cell lymphoma (see comment)
      • Morphology: diffuse large B cell type
      • Hans criteria: germinal center B cell phenotype (CD10+, BCL6+, MUM1-)
      • Double expressor status: double expressor phenotype (BCL2+, MYC+)
      • Ki67 proliferation index: high (60 - 70%)
      • EBER in situ hybridization studies: negative
      • Comment: The findings are consistent with a diagnosis of a CD10+ large B cell lymphoma, with diffuse large B cell morphology. Ancillary studies, including fluorescence in situ hybridization studies to evaluate for MYC, BCL2 and BCL6 rearrangement status, are pending and will be reported in an addendum.
    Board review style question #1

    A 72 year old man presented for evaluation of a distal gastrointestinal tract adenocarcinoma, with staging computed tomography (CT) radiography that incidentally revealed bulky confluent mesenteric lymphadenopathy. Excision of mesenteric lymph nodes show effacement of nodal architecture as well as infiltration of mesenteric fat by a nodular infiltrate of small lymphoid cells with cleaved nuclei and condensed chromatin. The tumor cells are positive for CD45, CD20, CD10, BCL6 and BCL2. The images above show H&E, CD20, CD10 and BCL2 staining. The Ki67 proliferation index is ~5%. The tumor cells are negative for CD5 and CD23. What molecular / cytogenetic abnormality may be associated with this lymphoma?

    1. Deletion of 13q14.3
    2. MYD88 L265P mutation
    3. t(11;14)(q13;q32)
    4. t(11;18)(q21;q21)
    5. t(14;18)(q32;q21)
    Board review style answer #1
    E. t(14;18)(q32;q21). The morphologic appearance, including nodular infiltrates of small lymphoid cells with cleaved nuclei and condensed chromatin, in conjunction with the immunophenotype showing lymphoid cell positivity for CD20, CD10, BCL6 and BCL2, with a low Ki67 proliferation index, is compatible with a diagnosis of a low grade (grade 1 - 2) follicular lymphoma. The t(11;14)(q13;q32) translocation between the IGH and BCL2 genes is present in approximately 90% of grade 1 - 2 follicular lymphomas. Other small B cell lymphomas demonstrate different immunophenotypes and characteristic cytogenetic or molecular abnormalities, including chronic lymphocytic leukemia / small lymphocytic lymphoma (CD20+, CD10-, CD5+, CD23+; deletion of 13q14.3), lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (CD20+, CD10-, CD5-; MYD88 L265P mutation) and extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma) (CD20+, CD10-, CD5-, t(11;18)(q21;q21) [pulmonary and gastric] and t(14;18)(q32;q21) [thyroid, ocular adnexa, orbit and skin]), aiding in diagnostic differentiation.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD10

    CD10-19
    CD10
    CD11
    • Alpha component of various integrins (CD11a, CD11b, CD11c, CD11d)
    • Integrins are heterodimeric integral membrane proteins composed of an alpha chain and a beta chain
    • Adhesion molecules of the beta2 integrin family (CD11 / CD18) plays an essential role in neutrophil recruitment and activation during inflammation
    • Clinical features: deficiency of CD18 component (leukocyte adhesion deficiency) is a rare, inherited disorder, causing recurrent severe bacterial infections early in life, possibly fatal (OMIM: 116920 [Accessed 10 May 2021], Hematol Oncol Clin North Am 1988;2:13)
    CD11a
    • Alpha integrin chain at 16p11-13.1 that binds to CD18 and has various leukocyte functions (OMIM: 153370 [Accessed 10 May 2021])
    • Also called integrin alpha L, ITGAL and LFA1 alpha chain (in complex with CD18)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Alpha integrin chain which binds to CD18 and mediates leukocyte adhesion to endothelium, leukocyte trafficking through activated endothelium, lymphocyte blastogenesis, lymphocyte endothelial cell adhesion, lymphocyte recirculation through lymph nodes, cytotoxic T cell mediated killing and antibody dependent killing by neutrophils and monocytes
      • Also mediates binding to unopsonized bacteria (e.g. E. coli) and fungi (e.g. Histoplasma capsulatum)
      • With CD18, binds to ICAM1 (CD54), ICAM2 (CD102), ICAM3 (CD50) and ICAM4 (CD242)
      • CD11a identifies effector and memory CD8+ T cells, independent of antigen specificity (Oncoimmunology 2013;2:e23972)
      • Decreased levels in CD4+ T cells in infants with biliary atresia, due to hypermethylation of CD11a promoter region (Biochem Biophys Res Commun 2012;417:986)
      • Increased levels in CD4+ T cells with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) (J Clin Immunol 2011;31:632)
    • Clinical features:
    CD11b
    • Alpha component of an integrin at 16p11-13.1 that mediates adhesion (OMIM: 120980 [Accessed 10 May 2021])
    • Also called integrin alpha M, Mac1 and CR3A
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Mediates monocyte / macrophage / granulocyte adhesion to substrates by opsonization with iC3b, leading to phagocytosis, neutrophil aggregation and chemotaxis
      • Ligands include fibrinogen, Factor X, ICAM1, iC3b, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Staphylococcus epidermidis and Histoplasma capsulatum
      • Expression is associated with activation of T cells
    • Clinical features:
    • Uses by pathologists:
      • Common myeloid marker and NK (natural killer cell) antigen
      • Differentiates recovery from acute agranulocytosis (CD11b+, CD117-) from acute promyelocytic leukemia (CD11b-, CD117+) (Am J Clin Pathol 2002;118:31)
      • Differentiates Down syndrome patients with AML (usually CD13+, CD11b+) from transient myeloproliferative disorder (usually CD13-, CD11b-) (Am J Clin Pathol 2001;116:204)
      • May be useful for flow cytometry diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome as part of panel (Ann Clin Lab Sci 2012;42:271)
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Granulocytes, macrophages
      • Follicular dendritic cells, myeloid cells beginning with promyelocytes, NK cells, some B / T cells
    • Positive staining - disease:
    • Negative staining: Gaucher cells (Am J Clin Pathol 2004;122:359)
    CD11c
    CD11d
    • Receptor for ICAM3 (CD50) and VCAM1 (CD106) at 16p11.2 (OMIM: 602453 [Accessed 10 May 2021])
    • Also called integrin alpha D
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - not malignant: macrophage foam cells within atherosclerotic plaques
    • Negative staining: B cells, follicular dendritic cells
    CDw12
    CD13
    CD14
    • Pattern recognition receptor that detects antigenic molecules on the surface of various microorganisms
    • Also called lipopolysaccharide (LPS) receptor, monocyte differentiation antigen
    • Mutations can prevent adequate inflammatory response to infection, leading to systemic infections
    • Pathophysiology:
      • GPI linked pattern recognition receptor that detects antigenic molecules on the surface of bacteria (lipoteichoic acid on gram positive, lipopolysaccharides on gram negative), myobacteria (glycolipids) and fungi (mannans), as part of the innate (nonadaptive) immune system (adaptive immune system refers to lymphocytes recognizing microorganism proteins via T cell receptors and antibodies) (Wikipedia: Innate Immune System [Accessed 10 May 2021]
      • Soluble form of CD14 is secreted by liver and monocytes; in low concentrations it confers LPS responsiveness to cells which are otherwise CD14 negative
      • Macrophages with a multiprotein complex of CD14, MD2 and TLR4 bind to LPS, causing macrophage activation and release of cytokines (Mol Immunol 2014;57:210)
      • Detection of lipopolysaccharide induces IL12 production (mediated by CD14), producing interferon gamma, which steers immune system away from allergy driven Th2 phenotype, associated with IgE production
      • Important for clearance of apoptotic cells (Nature 1998;392:505, PLoS One 2013;8:e70691)
      • Early promonocytes express MY4 epitope; mature monocytes express MO2 epitope; neoplastic monocytes also often express MY4 but not MO2 (Am J Clin Pathol 2005;124:930)
    • Clinical features:
    • Uses by pathologists: identify mature monocytes / macrophages
    • Positive staining - normal: macrophages / monocytes (90%), Langerhans cells, dendritic cells, B cells and granulocytes (weak, 30%)
    • Positive staining - disease: AML M4 / M5 (50 - 90%), chronic myelomonocytic leukemia and histiocytic sarcoma (Am J Clin Pathol 2011;135:720)
    • Negative staining:
      • Myeloid progenitors, AML M0 - M2 (usually), M3, M6 and M7
      • Sinusoidal histiocytes with phagocytic properties (erythrophagocytosis, anthracosis, tingible body macrophages) (Hum Pathol 2006;37:68)
      • Gaucher macrophages (Hum Pathol 1992;23:1410)
      • Most epithelial and endothelial cells
    • Reference: OMIM: 158120 [Accessed 10 May 2021]
    CD15
    CD15s
    CD15u
    • Adhesion protein representing the sulfated form of CD15
    • Also called sialyl 6-sulfo Lewis
    • Major L selectin ligand on high endothelial venules of human peripheral lymph nodes (Biochem Biophys Res Commun 2000;278:90)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Neutrophils, basophils, mature granulocytes, monocytes, NK cells and T lymphocytes
      • Also immature bone marrow cells, endothelial cells of high endothelium (HEV) of peripheral lymph nodes
      • Expression on lymphocytes is variable depending on the antibodies used for detection
    • Positive staining - disease: myelomonocytic leukemia cells, adenocarcinoma
    CD16 / CD16a
    • CD16 has been identified as IgG, Fc receptors FcγRIIIa (CD16a) and FcγRIIIb (CD16b), which participate in signal transduction
    • Also known as Fc gamma receptor III A, FCGR3A, low affinity immunoglobulin gamma Fc region receptor III A
    • CD14+ CD16+ monocytes have increased capacity to produce proinflammatory cytokines such as TNF alpha and are elevated in various inflammatory diseases, including coronary artery disease (Thromb Haemost 2004;92:419)
    • CD16a polymorphisms influence:
      1. Severity but not the incidence of IgA nephropathy in Japanese patients (Nephrol Dial Transplant 2005;20:2439)
      2. Pathogenesis of coronary artery disease (Atherosclerosis 2005;180:277)
      3. Clinical response to rituximab and infliximab for Crohn disease (DNA Cell Biol 2012;31:1671, Br J Haematol 2011;154:223, Immunogenetics 2013;65:265)
    • Loss of CD16a in children is associated with recurrent viral infections
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Gene is similar to that for CD16b
      • Binds various IgG molecules, including rheumatoid factor
      • Mediates antibody dependent cytotoxicity of foreign cells, phagocytosis and other antibody dependent responses but if target cell has class I MHC, the NK cell's killer cell inhibitory receptor (KIR) inhibits cytolysis
      • Mediates platelet satellitism (Am J Clin Pathol 1995;103:740)
      • Affinity to ligand is regulated by glycosylation (Immunology 2003;110:335)
    • Uses by pathologists:
      • NK cell and macrophage marker
      • Used to subtype leukemia / lymphomas
      • Note: preincubation with CD16 / CD32 antibodies is commonly used to prevent nonspecific binding
    • Positive staining - normal: NK cells, granulocytes, monocytes / macrophages, T cells (reactive), immature thymocytes and placental trophoblast
    • Positive staining - disease:
      • NK proliferative disorders, hepatosplenic alpha beta and gamma delta T cell lymphomas (variable), T cell large granular lymphocyte leukemia (variable)
      • CD16 expression, normally absent from eosinophils, is upregulated with allergic conditions (J Allergy Clin Immunol 2002;109:46)
    • Negative staining: basophils; NK / T cell lymphoma nasal type
    • Reference: OMIM: 146740 [Accessed 10 May 2021]
    CD16b
    • Most common receptor for the Fc domain of IgG on leukocytes
    • Also known as Fc gamma receptor III B, low affinity immunoglobulin gamma Fc region receptor III-B
    • Has allotypes that define the human neutrophil antigen 1 (HNA 1 and NA) system involved in major post transfusional reactions (Tissue Antigens 2004;64:119)
    • Polymorphisms are associated with susceptibility to idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (Lung 2010;188:475)
    • Polymorphisms may be associated with malaria (PLoS One 2012;7:e46197, Hum Genet 2012;131:289)
    • Low copy number is associated with glomerulonephritis in systemic lupus erythematosus (Nature 2006;439:851)
    • CD16+ eosinophils are upregulated in allergic conditions (J Allergy Clin Immunol 2002;109:463)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Highly homologous to CD16a
      • Only Fc receptor linked to the plasma membrane by a GPI (glycosylphosphatidylinositol) anchor
      • Occurs in 2 codominantly expressed allelic variants, NA1 and NA2, which exhibit different binding affinities for IgG1 and IgG3 subclasses
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: neutrophils, basophils (J Immunol 2009;182:2542)
    CD17 / CDw17
    • Most abundant glycosphingolipid in neutrophils; not a protein
    • Also known as lactosylceramide
    • CD17 is also a type of mutation in beta-thalassemia, unrelated to CD markers (Fetal Diagn Ther 2010;27:25)
    • Pathophysiology:
    • Clinical features: elevated levels are present in plasma of patients with familial hypercholesterolemia and in plaque intima of aorta in patients who died of cardiovascular disease (Proc Natl Acad Sci U S A 2004;101:6490)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: granulocytes, macrophages / monocytes, platelets, basophils, CD19+ B cells and tonsillar dendritic cells
    CD18
    • Integrin which forms the beta 2 chain of CD11a, CD11b, CD11c, CD11d to create a leukocyte adhesion molecule (OMIM: 600065 [Accessed 11 May 2021])
    • Gene is designated ITGB2 (integrin beta 2)
    • Combines with alpha L chain (CD11a) to form the integrin LFA1
    • Combines with the alpha M chain (CD11b) to form the integrin Mac1 (macrophage antigen 1, complement receptor 3)
    • Combines with the alpha X chain (CD11c) to form completement receptor 4
    • Also combines with the alpha D chain (CD11d)
    • Pathophysiology:
    • Clinical features:
      • Deficiency of the CD18 component (leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1) is a rare, inherited disorder, causing severe leukocytosis and recurrent severe bacterial infections early in life of skin and mucosal surfaces, possibly fatal, due to defective white blood cell adherence, chemotaxis, phagocytosis and bacterial killing (OMIM: 116920 [Accessed 11 May 2021], J Clin Immunol 2010;30:756)
      • Note: leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2 is due to a deficiency in CD15s
      • Reduced expression also seen in Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada (VKH) syndrome (PLoS One 2011;6:e14616)
      • CD11b / CD18 is receptor for Bordetella pertussis adhesin filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA) and for the adenylate cyclase toxin (ACT), which blocks neutrophil function (Infect Immun 2005;73:7317, J Exp Med 2001;193:1035)
      • CD11b / CD18 induces neutrophilic response leading to killing of Steptococcus pyogenes (Eur J Immunol 2005;35:1472)
      • May have role in development of diabetic retinopathy (Int J Ophthalmol 2012;5:202)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: neutrophils, macrophages, monocytes, NK cells and basophils
    • Negative staining - normal: often negative in acute promyelocytic leukemia (Am J Clin Pathol 2012;138:744)
    CD19
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD14: toll-like receptor pathways

    Missing Image

    Membrane bound and serum forms of CD14

    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD11a: intestinal mucosa (fig F)

    Missing Image

    CD11a: eruptive papules with efalizumab therapy

    Missing Image

    CD11b: normal spleen

    Missing Image

    CD11b: gastric cancer

    Missing Image

    CD14: normal bone marrow (fig C)


    Missing Image

    CD14: acute monoblastic leukemia (fig F) (bone marrow)

    Missing Image

    CD14: acute myelomonocytic leukemia (fig F) (bone marrow)

    Missing Image

    CD14: microglia in Alzheimer patients (CNS)

    Missing Image

    CD14: biliary atresia (liver)

    Anti CD15s
    antibody blocks
    infection of HL60
    cells by HGE agent


    CD15s expression correlates with HL60 cells

    CD15u: colorectal cancer

    CD15u: skin

    Missing Image

    CD18: fibrocytes


    CD100-109
    CD100
    • Also called SEMA4D, semaphorin 4D
    • Integral membrane protein and ligand for CD72 and plexin B1
    • Functions:
      1. Regulates axonal growth cone guidance in the developing CNS through its receptor plexin B1, which may be related to its expression in invading islands of transformed epithelial cells (but not normal and noninvasive dysplastic epithelium) (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2006;103:9017)
      2. Evokes angiogenic responses from endothelial cells (Blood 2005;105:4321)
      3. Impairs monocyte migration
      4. After vascular injury, platelet associated CD100 binds to CD100 receptors on nearby platelets to promote thrombus formation (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2007;104:1621)
      5. Increases CD45 induced T cell adhesion
      6. Down regulates B cell expression of CD23
    • Expression may have prognostic value in soft tissue sarcoma (Cancer 2007;110:164)
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: most hematopoietic cells including platelets, increased expression after T cell activation
    • Negative staining: immature bone marrow cells
    • References: OMIM: 601866 [Accessed 30 April 2021], Wikipedia: Semaphorins [Accessed 30 April 2021]
    CD101
    CD102
    • Also called ICAM2
    • Binds the leukocyte integrins LFA1 (CD11a / CD18) and Mac1 (CD11b / CD18)
    • Provides costimulatory signal in immune response
    • Endothelial ICAM2 mediates angiogenesis (Blood 2005;106:1636)
    • Elevated serum levels in:
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: resting lymphocytes, monocytes, platelets, vascular endothelial cells
    • Positive staining - disease: some lymphomas
    • Negative staining: neutrophils
    • Reference: OMIM: 146630 [Accessed 30 April 2021]
    CD103
    CD104
    • Also called integrin beta 4 chain
    • Tends to associate with alpha 6 subunit (CD49f)
    • Adhesion receptor (for laminins) in normal epithelia that plays a critical role in structure of hemidesmosomes; associated with intermediate filaments
    • May contribute to tumor progression via VEGF stimulation (Cancer Metastasis Rev 2005;24:413, J Cell Biol 2002;158:165)
    • Overexpressed in pancreatic adenocarcinoma (J Histochem Cytochem 2005;53:799)
    • Mutations are associated with epidermolysis bullosa with pyloric atresia (Exp Dermatol 2004;13:61)
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: epithelium, thymocytes, Schwann cells
    • Positive staining - disease: carcinomas (some)
    • Reference: OMIM: 147557 [Accessed 30 April 2021]
    CD105
    CD106
    CD107a
    CD107b
    CD108
    CD109
    • Also called platelet activation factor
    • Glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchored cell surface protein
    • Carries the biallelic platelet-specific Gov antigen system
      • Alloantibodies to HPA-15 residing on CD109 are implicated in refractoriness to platelet transfusion, fetal / neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia and posttransfusion purpura (Blood 2002;99:1692)
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Activation antigen for platelets and T cells
      • Subset of hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (Exp Hematol 1999;27:1282)
      • Myoepithelial cells (breast, prostate [basal cells] salivary and lacrimal glands) (Pathol Int 2007;57:245)
      • Widely expressed in other tissues
    • Negative staining: invasive ductal carcinoma (breast), prostate adenocarcinoma
    • Reference: OMIM: 608859 [Accessed 30 April 2021]
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD100: head and neck squamous cell carcinoma

    Missing Image

    CD107b: loss of staining in muscle and heart


    CD103
    Definition / general
    • CD103 is a heterodimeric transmembrane surface receptor that is expressed by several cell types of the immune system and is involved in cell to cell or cell to matrix interactions
    • CD103 mediates cell adhesion, migration and lymphocyte homing through interaction with E-cadherin, which is expressed in epithelial cells
    Essential features
    Terminology
    • Integrin alpha Eβ7 (ITGAE)
    • Integrin alpha E (αE)
      • αE subunit first described as human mucosal lymphocyte 1 (HML1) antigen
    Pathophysiology
    • CD103 is a heterodimer complex; the integrin αE chain (CD103 in the strict sense) dimerizes exclusively with the β7 integrin subunit
    • CD103 is the first integrin discovered that binds to a cadherin, namely E-cadherin
    • Binding of CD103 is heterophilic
      • αE subunit binds through its metal ion dependent coordination site (MIDAS) motif to the tip of the BC loop of E-cadherin (J Exp Med 2000;191:1555)
      • β7 chain does not bind directly to E-cadherin but appears to have more of a regulatory function in this process
    • CD103 mediates lymphocyte retention in epithelial tissues and allows immunocytes to maintain close contact with both peripheral lymphoid and nonlymphoid tissue (through binding to E-cadherin) (Nature 1994;372:190)
    • Transforming growth factor β (TGFβ) has been found to consistently upregulate its expression
      • This cytokine induces CD103 on human cytotoxic lymphocytes in conjunction with T cell receptor (TCR) activation
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Domain structure of the αE(CD103)β7 integrin

    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Membranous (primarily) and cytoplasmic (variable intensity) with overlay of irregular cytoplasmic borders (consistent with projections) (Am J Clin Pathol 2013;139:220)
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • CD103 expression is uniform with high intensity in cases of bone marrow involvement by hairy cell leukemia (in a diffuse interstitial pattern, ≥ 50% involvement)
    • CD103 expression follows the distribution of neoplastic cells in cases of a patchy intrasinusoidal / interstitial pattern of bone marrow involvement (low level, 15% involvement)
    • Reference: Am J Clin Pathol 2013;139:220
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Maurice Richardson, M.D. and Moiz Vora, M.D.

    Diffuse lymphoid infiltrate

    CD103+ neoplastic lymphocytes

    Intrasinusoidal lymphoid infiltrate

    CD103+ neoplastic lymphocytes

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Bone marrow, posterior iliac crest, aspirate and core biopsy:
      • Hypercellular marrow with involvement by CD103+ mature B cell neoplasm (see comment)
      • Comment: The trephine core biopsy shows intravascular and patchy interstitial infiltration by small to intermediate sized lymphoid cells with asymmetric cytoplasmic projections and occasional nucleoli. These cells are positive for CD20, bright CD11c, bright CD22, CD103 and show kappa light chain restriction. These cells are negative for CD5, CD10, CD25 and CD38.
      • The overall morphologic and immunophenotypic features are consistent with involvement by a splenic origin lymphoma. Absence of CD25 coexpression argues against a diagnosis of classical hairy cell leukemia. The primary diagnostic considerations include hairy cell leukemia variant and splenic marginal zone lymphoma. An additional differential may include splenic diffuse red pulp lymphoma (SDRPL). The morphologic features reflect a low grade process. There is no overt large cell transformation observed.
      • Correlation with clinical findings and additional pertinent laboratory and radiographic studies is recommended for comprehensive assessment. This case (core biopsy) was submitted for internal quality assurance review.
    Board review style question #1

    A 59 year old man visits his primary care doctor to be evaluated for progressive weakness and decreased exercise tolerance. Physical examination shows splenomegaly and petechial bruises on the upper limbs bilaterally. Laboratory studies reveal pancytopenia. Peripheral smear reveals the findings in the image above and flow cytometry shows a mature monotypic B cell population coexpressing bright CD20, CD22, CD25, CD11c, CD103, FMC7, CD200 and lambda light chain restriction. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. Adult T cell leukemia / lymphoma (ATLL)
    2. Angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma (AITL)
    3. Hairy cell leukemia (HCL)
    4. Splenic diffuse red pulp small B cell lymphoma (SDRPL)
    5. T cell large granular lymphocytic leukemia (TLGL)
    Board review style answer #1
    C. Hairy cell leukemia (HCL). The immunoprofile (particularly coexpression of CD11c, CD25 and CD103) and cytologic features (intermediate sized lymphocytes with circumferential cytoplasmic projections) are most consistent with hairy cell leukemia. The alternate disease entities listed either do not (or seldomly) coexpress CD103 with the other markers listed above (i.e., AITL, TLGL, SDRPL) or have different cytologic features in the peripheral blood (i.e., ATLL shows multilobed nuclei flower cells in the peripheral blood).

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD103
    Board review style question #2
    A 40 year old man presents to his physician with fever and left upper quadrant pain. Subsequent clinical evaluation shows anemia and monocytopenia. A bone marrow biopsy evaluation reveals a B cell lymphoproliferative disorder with the following immunoprofile: CD20+, CD25+, CD103+, annexin A1+, DBA44+. A diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia is made. Which of the following is the characteristic staining pattern of CD103 in this disease entity?

    1. Cytoplasmic
    2. Membranous (primarily) and cytoplasmic
    3. Nuclear
    4. Perinuclear dot-like
    5. Perinuclear golgi
    Board review style answer #2
    B. Membranous (primarily) and cytoplasmic. The most characteristic immunohistochemical pattern of CD103 staining is described in the literature as membranous (primarily) and cytoplasmic (variable intensity) with overlay of irregular cytoplasmic borders (consistent with projections). Since CD103 is a transmembrane surface receptor, the CD103 antibody would bind primarily to the cell membrane; therefore, the alternate choices (nuclear, perinuclear golgi or dot-like and cytoplasmic) are incorrect.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD103

    CD105
    Definition / general
    • Also called endoglin
    • Regulatory component of TGF-beta receptor complex; mediates cellular response to TGF-beta 1
    • Mutations cause Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia type I (Am J Hum Genet 1997;61:68)
    • Required for hemangioblast and early hematopoietic development (Development 2007;134:3041)
    Uses by pathologists
    • Specific and sensitive marker for tumor angiogenesis (better than CD31)
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Hepatocellular carcinoma and normal liver

    Missing Image

    Lung - non small cell carcinoma (fig D)

    Positive staining - normal
    • Activated monocytes, erythroid precursors in marrow; syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast in first trimester (transient expression)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Normal endothelial cells (or weak)
    Additional references

    CD110-119
    Table of Contents
    CD110 | CD111 | CD112 | CD113 | CD114 | CD115 | CD116 | CD117 | CD118 | CDw119
    CD110

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD110: protein and site, various mutations

    CD111
    • Also known as poliovirus receptor related 1 (PRR1), nectin1
    • Widely expressed adhesion molecule that is a component of the adherens junction; receptor for herpes simplex viruses 1 and 2
    • Positive staining - normal: cells from myeloid, monocyte, megakaryocytes and erythroid lineage, epithelial cells, neurons, endothelium
    CD112
    • Also known as poliovirus receptor related 2 (PRR2)
    • Adhesion molecule that is a component of the adherens junction; receptor for herpes simplex virus
    • Positive staining - normal: cells from myeloid, monocyte, megakaryocytes lineage, epithelial cells, neurons, endothelium
    CD113
    • Also called nectin3, poliovirus receptor related protein 3 precursor
    CD114
    • Also known as granulocyte colony stimulating factor receptor, G-CSFR
    • Specific regulator of myeloid proliferation and differentiation
    • Mutations present in some patients with severe congenital neutropenia
    • Positive staining - normal: granulocytes (all), monocytes, platelets, endothelium, placenta, trophoblastic cells
    • Positive staining - malignant: cultured tumor cells
    • Negative staining: eosinophils, lymphocytes, erythrocytes
    CD115
    • Also known as c-fms, receptor for macrophage colony stimulating factor, CSF-1R
    • Localized on cytoplasmic membrane; mediates biologic activity of CSF-1
    • v-fms is a viral oncogene present in the feline McDonough sarcoma virus (has several substitute mutations)
    • Related to platelet derived growth factor receptor, c-kit, vascular endothelial growth factor receptor, fibroblast growth factor receptor, high affinity nerve growth factor (TrkA)
    • Deficiency causes reduced osteoclasts and macrophages, abnormal bone remodeling and osteopetrosis, abnormal breast development and decreased fertility
    • Positive staining - normal: macrophages and precursors, osteoclasts, placental trophoblast, breast tissue, microglia, neurons, astrocytes
    • Positive staining - malignant: 10% AML, some endometrial, ovarian and breast cancers, vascular smooth muscle cells in atheromas, choriocarcinoma cells
    CD116
    • GM-CSF receptor alpha chain
    • Primary binding subunit of GM-CSF receptor
    • Positive staining - normal: monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, fibroblasts, endothelial cells, dendritic cells
    CD117
    CD118
    • Reserved for interferon alpha / gamma receptor
    CDw119
    • Interferon gamma receptor
    • Positive staining - normal: macrophages, B cells

    CD117
    Definition / general
    Essential features
    • Proto-oncogene activated in GISTs (Cureus 2022;14:e20868)
    • Gene at 4q11-21
    • Class III receptor tyrosine kinase
    • Highlights mast cells (normal and abnormal) in the assessment of mast cell neoplasms
    Terminology
    Pathophysiology
    • Has activating or gain of function mutations in most GISTs, often at exon 11, less often at exons 9 and 13 (Hum Pathol 2002;33:484, Cancer Med 2020;9:6485, Cureus 2022;14:e20868)
    • Tyrosine kinase activity of c-kit in GIST and BCR-ABL overexpression in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) are inhibited by imatinib mesylate (Gleevec, STI571), a tyrosine kinase inhibitor used to treat these diseases (Clin Cancer Res 2022;28:1672)
    • Mutated in mastocytosis, typically the D816V mutation
    Interpretation
    • Cytoplasmic staining
    Uses by pathologists
    • Confirming diagnosis of GIST (also see Positive staining - disease) (Cureus 2022;14:e20868)
    • Staining of mast cells
    • Staining of myeloid stem cells (myelodysplastic syndrome [MDS], acute myeloid leukemia [AML]: estimating quantity of blasts)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Debra L. Zynger, M.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
    Seminoma with IHC CD117

    Seminoma with IHC

    Testis

    Testis

    GIST

    GIST

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Alveolar soft part sarcoma, desmoplastic small round cell tumor, glomus tumor, leiomyoma (retroperitoneal, colorectal), leiomyosarcoma, myxoma (cardiac), schwannoma (colorectal), smooth muscle tumor of uncertain malignant potential, solitary fibrous tumor (Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:486)
    Sample pathology report
    • Gastric biopsy:
      • Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (see comment)
      • Comment: Infiltrates of a well circumscribed spindle cell tumor with few mitoses (2 / 5 mm2). Immunohistochemically, the tumor is CD117+, DOG1+ and CD34+.
    Board review style question #1

    Which of the following is the most likely underlying mutation in this gastrointestinal stromal tumor (staining with the associated protein for this mutation)?

    1. ALK
    2. KIT
    3. PDGFRA
    4. PDGFRB
    5. SDHB
    Board review style answer #1
    B. KIT

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD117

    CD120-129
    Table of Contents
    CD120 | CD121a | CDw121b | CD122 | CD123 | CD124 | CDw125 | CD126 | CD127 | CD128 | CD129
    CD120
    • CD120a: aka TNFR1, receptor for tumor necrosis factor alpha and beta, type I; receptor binding to ligand causes apoptosis
    • CD120b: aka receptor for tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha and beta, type II
    CD121a
    • Also known as Interleukin 1 receptor (IL-1R) type I, IL1-alpha
    • Interleukin-1, an inflammatory mediator, consists of 2 separate but related proteins, IL1-alpha and IL1-beta
    • Positive staining - normal: T cells, thymocytes, fibroblasts, endothelial cells
    CDw121b
    • Also known as Interleukin 1 receptor (IL-1 R) type II, IL1-beta
    • May inhibit IL1 activity by acting as a decoy target for IL1
    • Positive staining - normal: B cells, macrophages
    CD122
    • Aka Interleukin 2 receptor beta chain (IL-2R beta)
    • Critical component of IL-2 and IL-15-mediated signaling
    • Positive staining - normal: NK cells, B cells, T cells, monocytes
    CD123
    CD124
    • Aka Interleukin 4 receptor
    • Receptor subunit for Interleukin-4 and 13
    • Positive staining - normal: mature B cells, T cells; hematopoietic precursors; fibroblasts, endothelial cells
    CDw125
    • Aka Interleukin 5 receptor alpha subunit (IL5RA)
    • Therapeutic target of eosinophilic inflammation involved in bronchial asthma
    • Positive staining - normal: eosinophils, activated B cells, basophils
    CD126
    • Aka Interleukin 6 receptor
    • Continuous expression of IL-6 and CD130, ligands for CD126, causes hypergammaglobulinemia, glomeruloproliferative nephritis and lymphoid infiltration in some organs
    • Dysregulated stimulation may cause myeloma and plasmacytoma
    • Positive staining - normal: T cells, monocytes, activated B cells, hepatocytes
    CD127
    • Aka Interleukin 7 receptor
    • Positive staining - normal: B cell precursors, most T cells, monocytes
    CD128
    CD129
    • Reserved for Interleukin 9 receptor

    CD123
    Definition / general
    • Interleukin 3 receptor alpha chain (IL3Rα)
    • Upregulated and overexpressed in a variety of myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms
    • CD123 is a biomarker for targeted therapy
    Essential features
    • CD123 serves as a diagnostic, prognostic and therapeutic marker in some hematologic malignancies, especially acute leukemia
    • CD123 and TCF4 coexpression by immunohistochemistry is highly specific and sensitive for blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm (BPDCN)
    • Tagraxofusp (SL-401) is a CD123 targeted therapy for BPDCN
    Terminology
    • IL3Rα
    Pathophysiology
    • Membrane receptor that heterodimerizes with the β common (βc) subunit to constitute the functional IL3 receptor (IL3R)
    • IL3R is the IL3 specific member of the beta βc family of receptors, which also includes IL5R and granulocyte monocyte colony stimulating factor (GM CSF) receptor
    • Functions in regulating growth, proliferation, survival and differentiation of hematopoietic cells, along with immunity and inflammatory response
    • Downstream signaling is primarily through JAK / STAT, RAS / MAPK and phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase pathways (Cancers (Basel) 2020;12:3087)
    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Strongest level of CD123 staining is on plasmacytoid dendritic cells
    • CD123 is expressed by endothelial cells
    • CD123 is a membrane bound protein, resulting in a membranous pattern of staining by immunohistochemistry and surface expression by flow cytometry
    • CD123 expression in normal karyotype AML is associated with FLT3-ITD and NPM1 mutations (Br J Haematol 2020;188:181)
    • Reference: Am J Surg Pathol 2019;43:1429
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    • Prognostic impact of CD123 expression has not been established
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Joseph Khoury, M.D.
    Tonsil

    Tonsil

    Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm

    Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm

    Positive staining - normal
    • Hematopoietic stem cells
    • Endothelial cells
    • Plasmacytoid dendritic cells
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Board review style question #1
    Patient presents with a skin tumor comprised of blastoid neoplastic cells involving the dermis and subcutaneous tissue without epidermotropism. Which immunohistochemical profile suits the diagnosis of blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm?

    1. AE1 / AE3 positive, chromogranin positive
    2. CD21 positive, CD23 positive
    3. CD34 positive, MPO positive
    4. TCF4 / CD123 positive, CD4 positive, CD56 positive, CD303 positive
    Board review style answer #1
    D. TCF4 / CD123 dual expression is highly sensitive and specific for blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm. Such staining is rarely encountered in other malignancies.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD123

    CD13
    Definition / general
    • Myeloid antigen, although CD33 is more specific (OMIM #151530)
    • Also called aminopeptidase N (APN)
    Clinical features
    Pathophysiology
    • Cleaves peptides at brush border of small intestine, renal proximal tubules and placenta
    • Cleaves antigen peptides bound to MHC class II molecules of presenting cells
    • Degrades neurotransmitters at CNS synaptic junctions
    • Regulates sperm motility (Asian J Androl 2010;12:899)
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Leica Microsystems

    Prostate: normal



    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CNS: glioblastoma & colon: carcinoma

    Missing Image

    Colon: normal

    Missing Image Missing Image

    Liver: left-normal, right-hepatocellular carcinoma


    Missing Image Missing Image

    Prostate: carcinoma

    Missing Image

    Skin (inflammatory), tonsil

    Missing Image

    Various tumors

    Positive staining - normal
    • Granulocytes (most, but low levels in newbornss, Mod Pathol 1993;6:414), interdigitating dendritic cells, large granular lymphocytes (some), macrophages, mast cells, monocytes, myelomonocytes and osteoclasts
    • Also bile duct canaliculi, central nervous system synapses, endothelial cells, endometrial stromal cells, fibroblasts, liver, perineurium of peripheral nerves, placenta, prostate secretory cells, renal proximal tubules (PLoS One 2013;8:e66750), respitatory epithelium, small intestine and sperm
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining

    CD130-139
    Table of Contents
    CD130 | CDw131 | CD132 | CD133 | CD134 | FLT3 / CD135 | CDw136 | CDw137 | CD138 | CD139
    CD130
    • Aka gp 130
    • Required for transducing biological activities of IL6, IL11, leukemia inhibitory factor, ciliary neurotrophic factor, oncostatin M and cardiotrophin-1
    • IL6 and oncostatin M dependent activation of gp130 are involved in multiple myeloma
    • Positive staining - normal: almost all cell types (low levels)
    CDw131
    • Aka common beta subunit
    • Does not bind any cytokine by itself, but is a component of the high affinity IL-3, GM-CSF and IL-5 receptors
    • Defective CDw131 is associated with protein alveolar proteinosis
    • Positive staining - normal: myeloid (early and mature), early B cells
    CD132
    • Aka common cytokine receptor gamma chain - receptor for IL-2, IL-4, IL-7, IL-9 and IL-15
    • Mutation in humans causes X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency (no T cells, no NK cells)
    • CD132 is a target molecule for gene therapy for X-SCID
    • Positive staining - normal: T cells, B cells, NK cells, monocytes / macrophages, neutrophils
    CD133
    • Also known as Prominin 1, AC133
    • Transmembrane glycoprotein expressed on the hematopoietic stem cells, endothelial progenitors and dermal derived stem cells capable of differentiating into neural cells
    • Uses by pathologists: alternative to CD34 in selecting hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells for transplantation studies; marker of cancer stem cells (cells with tumor initiating potential) (Genes Chromosomes Cancer 2012;51:792)
    • Clinical features:
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Localized to microvilli and other plasma membrane protrusions
      • CD34 bright hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (umbilical cord blood-derived CD133+ cells can differentiate into endothelial cells and induce new blood vessel growth) (Front Biosci 2012;17:2247)
      • Progenitor cells within nephron (Expert Opin Ther Targets 2012;16:157)
      • Neural stem cells and other primitive cells such as retina
      • Villous and extravillous cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast
    • Positive staining - disease:
      • Numerous malignancies
      • Brain tumors (CD133+ cells have characteristics of endothelial progenitor cells) (Cancer Lett 2012;324:221)
    • Negative staining: adult epithelial tissue, villous stroma

    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Glial tumors

    Missing Image

    Hepatocellular carcinoma

    Missing Image Missing Image

    Pancreas - normal

    Missing Image

    Stomach: gastric carcinoma


    Missing Image Missing Image

    Colorectal carcinoma

    CD134
    • Aka tax-transcriptionally activated glycoprotein 1 receptor, OX40 antigen, lymphoid activation antigen
    FLT3 / CD135

    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image Missing Image

    Structure and function

    CDw136
    • Aka macrophage stimulating protein receptor, msp receptor
    • May regulate ciliary beat frequency in epithelial cells
    • Positive staining - normal: skin, kidney, lung, liver, intestine and colon
    CDw137
    • Costimulator of T cell proliferation
    • Positive staining - normal: T cells, especially CD45RA and CD45R0; also B cells, monocytes, epithelial cells
    CD138
    CD139
    • Positive staining - normal: B cells, monocytes, granulocytes, erythrocytes (weak), dendritic cells, glomeruli
    • Negative staining: T cells

    CD138
    Definition / general
    • Transmembrane proteoglycan expressed in various normal and malignant tissues
    • 1 of 4 members of the syndecan family, a cell surface protein involved in the regulation of cell proliferation, migration and organization of the cytoskeleton
    Essential features
    • Used to distinguish and quantitate plasma cells in hematolymphoid tissues and as a biomarker for multiple myeloma cells
    • CD138 expression is highly variable among different cancer types
    • Both high and low expression levels can be associated with poor prognosis depending on the tumor type
    Terminology
    • Syndecan 1 (SDC1)
    Pathophysiology
    • Involved in cell proliferation, migration, adhesion and angiogenesis with loss of CD138 expression leading to enhanced motility and invasion of neoplastic cells (Oncotarget 2015;6:28693)
    • Acts as coreceptor to bind growth factors and promote cell survival and proliferation; can also be shed into the surrounding cellular environment
    • Has been implicated in the regulation of the Wnt signaling, focal adhesion kinase (FAK), nuclear factor kappa B (NFkB) and mitogen activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathways (J Histochem Cytochem 2015;63:465, Int J Mol Sci 2022;23:9037)
    • Involved in leukocyte recruitment and extracellular matrix remodeling during injury repair (Front Immunol 2020;11:227)
    Clinical features
    • Expressed on cell surface of immature B cells and mature plasma cells
    • Overexpressed on malignant plasma cells
    Interpretation
    • Predominantly membranous but sometimes expressed in the cytoplasm or nucleus
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    • CD138 expression levels generally decrease as tumor grade, stage and invasiveness increase; however, variable expression levels may depend on tumor type
      • Expression levels are reduced in squamous cell lung cancer, advanced ovarian cancer, poorly differentiated head and neck squamous cell carcinomas and prostate cancer (Oncotarget 2015;6:28693)
    • CD138 expression levels are increased in
      • Neoplastic cells of urothelial carcinoma and correlates with high tumor grade, advanced stage and tumor recurrence
      • Increased CD138 expression in gallbladder cancer is associated with lymph node metastasis and poor survival (Dis Markers 2019;2019:4928315)
      • Most studies show increase of CD138 in breast carcinomas, which correlates with triple negative ductal tumors (negative for ER, PR and HER2) with poor survival (Oncotarget 2015;6:28693)
      • Pancreatic cancer, with better prognosis for epithelial expression of CD138 versus stromal expression (Oncotarget 2015;6:28693)
    • Some tumors lose CD138 membrane expression but show abnormal cytoplasmic or nuclear expression (Int J Mol Sci 2021;22:4227)
    • Appearance of CD138 in tumor stroma is almost always a sign of poor prognosis (Int J Mol Sci 2021;22:4227)
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Expressed on mature plasma cells and immature B cells (Oncotarget 2015;6:28693)
      • Expressed widely on the bone marrow hematopoietic cells, endothelial cells and on some breast cancer cells (Leukemia 2020;34:245)
      • Negative for other hematolymphoid cells
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Pamela Wirth, Ph.D. (source: University of Toronto and Human Protein Atlas) and Yuri Tachibana, M.D.
    Bone marrow biopsy Bone marrow biopsy

    Bone marrow biopsy

    Spleen Spleen

    Spleen


    Breast carcinoma

    Breast carcinoma

    Colon carcinoma

    Colon carcinoma

    Liver carcinoma

    Liver carcinoma

    Prostate carcinoma

    Prostate carcinoma

    Chronic endometritis

    Chronic endometritis

    Positive staining - normal
    • Normal plasma cells and immature B cells of hematolymphoid organs, plasma cell malignancies
    • Strong expression in normal squamous epithelium of various organs
    • Goblet and columnar cells of the gastrointestinal tract (Dis Markers 2019;2019:4928315)
    Positive staining - disease
    • Multiple myeloma tumor cells (95%)
    • Carcinomas with strong CD138 expression (tissue samples from microarray)
      • Anal carcinoma (63.6%)
      • Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (78.8%)
      • Colon adenoma (92%)
      • Urothelial carcinoma pTa (90.5%)
      • Squamous cell carcinoma of skin (61.9%)
      • Basal cell carcinoma of skin (82.9%)
      • Hepatocellular carcinoma (72.7%)
      • Granular cell tumor (62.5%)
      • Squamous cell lung carcinoma (61.9%) (Dis Markers 2019;2019:4928315)
    • Invasive ductal breast carcinoma (90%) (Cancer Treat Res Commun 2021;27:100312, Anal Cell Pathol 2018;2018:9432375)
      • Loss of membranous staining and the cytoplasmic accumulation of CD138 reflects a poorer outcome (Mol Carcinog 2019;58:2306)
    Negative staining
    • Low or absent expression in testicular germ cell tumors, sarcomas, melanoma and small cell urinary bladder carcinoma (Dis Markers 2019;2019:4928315)
    Molecular / cytogenetics description
    Sample pathology report
    • Core biopsy, bone marrow:
      • Multiple myeloma (see comment)
      • Comment: The patient is a 57 year old man with symptoms of exertional fatigue, anemia and back pain. Immunohistochemistry was performed to quantify plasma cells (CD138) in addition to Ig kappa and lambda to establish clonality. CD138 positive cells represent 20 - 25% of total cellularity. Results will be correlated with flow cytometry and FISH.
    Board review style question #1

    CD138 assists in the identification of multiple myeloma by labeling which of the following types of cells (as shown in the image)?

    1. Activated T cells
    2. Early B cell precursor cells
    3. Immature T cells
    4. Peripheral B lymphocytes
    5. Plasma cells
    Board review style answer #1
    E. Plasma cells. CD138 is a useful marker of plasma cells and can help support a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. Answers B, C and D are incorrect because CD138 is not a useful marker in identifying T or B cells. While B cells may express CD138 during earlier stages of development, they lose expression of this marker at maturity. Answer A is incorrect because CD138 is rarely expressed on other hematopoietic cells; CD38 and not CD138 would be a better marker for activated T cells.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD138
    Board review style question #2
    Increased expression of CD138 has been found in which of the following cancer types?

    1. Liposarcomas
    2. Melanomas
    3. Sarcomas
    4. Triple negative breast cancer
    Board review style answer #2
    D. Triple negative breast cancer. CD138 is expressed in most triple negative breast cancers (TNBC). The increased expression of CD138 may contribute to the formation of a tumor supportive microenvironment, promoting the aggressive growth and invasion of cancer cells that are commonly noted in TNBC. Answers A and C are incorrect because CD138 is rarely expressed in soft tissue tumors. Answer B is incorrect because expression of CD138 in melanomas is low to absent; however, low levels of staining have been observed in metastatic forms of melanoma.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD138

    CD140-149
    CD140
    • CD140a: also known as alpha platelet derived growth factor receptor
    • CD140b: also known as beta platelet derived growth factor receptor
    CD141 (Thrombomodulin)
    CD142
    • Aka coagulation Factor III, thromboplastin, tissue factor
    • Major initiator of clotting in normal hemostasis and many thrombotic diseases, via complex with factor VIIa
    • Also binds zymogen factor VII, the inactive precursor form; once bound, a variety of serine proteases rapidly activate factor VII to VIIa via limited proteolysis
    • Normally absent from all cells in direct contact with plasma
    • Positive staining - normal: epidermal keratinocytes, glomerular epithelial cells and various other epithelia, adventitial cells of blood vessels, astrocytes, myocardium, Schwann cells, stromal cells of liver, pancreas, spleen and thyroid
    CD143
    • Aka angiotensin-converting enzyme, ACE, peptidyl dipeptidase A
    • Involved in metabolism of angiotensin II and bradykinin; also cleaves substance P and LH-RH
    • Patients with high activity have DD genotype, associated with MI, strokes, diabetic nephropathy
    • Necessary for spermatozoa to bind to egg and associated with better penetration of egg
    • Positive staining - normal: endothelial cells of small/medium arteries, lung capillary endothelium, proximal renal tubule brush borders, basal ganglia neuropil, granulosa cells, Leydig cells, variable on other cells
    CD144
    • Endothelial-specific cadherin localized at intercellular junctions
    • Aka vascular endothelial-cadherin precursor, VE-cadherin, cadherin 5
    • Cadherins are cell adhesion proteins that preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells, thus contributing to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types
    • Positive staining - normal: endothelial cells, brain
    CDw145
    • Endothelium cell marker
    • Minimal information present as of 1Dec11
    • Note: one paper indicates CD145 is equivalent to CD40L (Rev Clin Esp 2007;207:418), but this appears to be a typo; CD154 is equivalent to CD40L
    • Positive staining - normal: endothelium; basement membrane of Bowman's membrane and tonsillar epithelium (CDw145 Worksheet Panel report-broken link)
    CD146
    • Aka melanoma cell adhesion molecule (MEL-CAM), cell surface glycoprotein MUC18
    • May be a neural crest cell adhesion molecule during embryogenesis
    • Associated with tumor progression and the development of metastasis in human malignant melanoma
    • Sensitive but nonspecific marker of desmoplastic/spindle cell melanoma; use if suggestive histology, S100 positive, melanoma markers otherwise negative (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:58)
    • Interpretation: membranous staining
    • Positive staining - normal: vascular smooth muscle, endothelium, intermediate trophoblast in exaggerated placental sites and placental site trophoblastic tumors (Hum Pathol 1999;30:687), subpopulation of T cells, endothelium, smooth muscle, Schwann cells
    • Positive staining - malignant
      • Clear cell sarcoma (90%)
      • Leiomyosarcomas (almost all)
      • Melanoma (desmoplastic-84%, epithelioid melanomas-100%, advanced primary tumors and metastatic tumors)
      • Melanotic schwannoma (100%)
      • MPNST (27%), neurofibroma (40%)
      • Prostatic adenocarcinoma and high grade PIN
      • Squamous cell carcinomas (some)
      • Vascular sarcomas (almost all)
    • Negative staining: normal melanocytes, melanocytic nevi, cellular blue nevus, thin primary melanomas, placental site nodules (or focal), epithelioid trophoblastic tumors (or focal), cytotrophoblast, atypical fibroxanthoma
    CD147
    • Aka neurothelin, extracellular matrix metalloproteinase inducer
    • Positive staining - normal: all leukocytes, red blood cells, platelets and endothelial cells
    CD148
    • Aka HPTP-eta
    • May be involved in contact inhibition of cell growth
    • Positive staining - normal: eranulocytes, monocytes, memory T cells, dendritic cells, platelets, fibroblasts, neurons, Kupffer cells
    CD149
    • CDw149 antibodies actually recognize a subset of CD47, also known as integrin-associated protein (IAP), present on leukocytes but not erythrocytes (Tissue Antigens 2000 ;56:258)

    CD15
    Definition / general
    • A carbohydrate (not a protein) widely used for diagnosis of Hodgkin lymphoma
    • Also known as LeuM1, Lewis X, 3-fucosyl-N-acetyl-lactosamine
    • Mediates phagocytosis and chemotaxis
    • Synthesis is directed by FUT4 (OMIM #104230) in lymphoid cells and mature granulocytes, and by FUT9 (OMIM #606865) in promyelocytes and monocytes
    • References: Quality control for CD15
    Clinical features
    Uses by pathologists
    • Hodgkin lymphoma: membranous, diffuse cytoplasmic or Golgi staining of Reed-Sternberg cells; CD15 staining is used to confirm diagnosis, or to differentiate Hodgkin lymphoma (CD15+) from anaplastic large cell lymphoma (usually CD15-)
    • Granulocyte marker
    Case reports
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Raghava Munivenkatappa, M.D. (Case #48) and AFIP

    Paranuclear / Golgi staining pattern

    Nodular lymphocyte predominant

    Renal cell carcinoma: papillary type



    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Small intestine: normal Paneth cells (fig B)

    Missing Image Missing Image

    Colon: invasive colorectal carcinoma

    Positive staining - normal
    • Myeloid cells and eosinophils; activated B and T cells (including infectious mononucleosis); variable monocytes and basophils
    • Kidney proximal convoluted tubules; small intestine Paneth cells (J Clin Pathol 1996;49:474)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining

    CD150-159
    Table of Contents
    CD150 | CD151 | CD152 | CD153 | CD154 | CD155 | CD156a | CD156b | CD156c | CD157 | CD158 | CD158a | CD158b | CD159a | CD159c
    CD150
    • Also known as signal lymphocyte activation molecule (SLAM)
    • Costimulatory molecule on B lymphocytes and dendritic cells
    • Positive staining - normal: thymocytes, CD45RO positive subpopulation of T cells, B cells, dendritic cells, endothelium
    CD151
    • May modify integrin function or signaling
    • Positive staining - normal: endothelium, platelets, megakaryocytes, epithelium
    CD152
    • Also known as cytotoxic T lymphocyte associated protein 4, CTLA4
    • Negative regulator of T cell activation
    • CTLA4 restriction fragment length polymorphisms are linked to various autoimmune disorders
    • Shares sequence homology with CD28; also shares ligands CD80 and CD86 with CD28
    • Positive staining - normal: activated but not resting T cells, activated B cells
    • Reference: OMIM CD152
    CD153
    • Also known as CD30 ligand
    • Enhances CD3 activated T lymphocyte proliferation
    CD154
    • Also known as CD40 ligand, CD40L, TNF related activation protein (TRAP)
    • Regulates B cell function by engaging CD40
    • Defective gene prevents immunoglobulin class switch and is associated with hyper IgM syndrome, autoimmune hematologic disorders, disorganized nodal follicular architecture and PAS positive plasmacytoid cells containing IgM, lymph nodes without germinal centers, shortened lifespan, often with gastrointestinal cancers (cholangiocarcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma and adenocarcinoma) and Cryptosporidium parvum infection
    • Positive staining - normal: T cells
    CD155
    • Also known as polio virus receptor
    • Involved in intercellular adhesion
    • Positive staining - normal: embryonic structures giving rise to spinal cord anterior horn motor neurons
    CD156a
    • Also known as ADAM8
    • May play a role in muscle differentiation
    • Possible role in neutrophilic extravasation
    • Stains neutrophils, monocytes
    CD156b
    • Also known as Tumor necrosis factor Alpha Converting Enzyme (TACE), ADAM17
    • Adhesion structure; releases soluble forms of tumor necrosis factor and transforming growth factor alpha from cells
    • Stains all cells examined, with pro domain removed
    CD156c
    CD157
    • Also known as Bone marrow STromal cell antigen 1 (BST1)
    • Facilitates pre B cell growth
    • 33% homology to CD38
    • Overexpression may cause polyclonal B cell abnormalities in rheumatoid arthritis
    • Positive staining - normal: granulocytes, monocytes, B cell progenitors, T cell subpopulations
    CD158
    • Member of KIR (killer cell immunoglobulin like receptor) family, also called killer cell inhibitory receptors
    • Binding by HLA class I molecules causes inhibition of NK or T cell cytotoxic activity
    • Melanoma specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes may express KIR and regulate their ability to kill these tumors
    • Terminology:
      • CD158c: KIR2DS6 / KIRX
      • CD158d: KIR2DL4
      • CD158e1: KIR3DL1 / p70
      • CD158e2: KIR3DS1 / p70
      • CD158f: KIR2DL5 (Front Immunol 2017;7:698)
      • CD158g: KIR2DS5
      • CD158h: KIR2DS1 / p50.1
      • CD158i: KIR2DS4 / p50.3
      • CD158j: KIR2DS2 / p50.2
      • CD158k: KIR3DL2 / p140
      • CD158z: KIR3DL7 / KIRC1
    • Positive staining - normal: natural killer cells (NK cells), some T cells
    CD158a
    • Also known as KIR2DL1 / p58.1
    • Regulates NK cell mediated cytolytic activity
    • Includes 2 different molecules with inhibitory and activation effects, presumably encoded by different genes of the same family
    • Positive staining: NK cell subset
    CD158b
    • CD158b1: KIR2DL2 / p58.2
    • CD158b2: KIR2DL3 / p58.3
    • Regulates NK cell mediated cytolytic activity
    • Includes 2 different molecules with inhibitory and activation effects, presumably encoded by different genes of the same family
    • Positive staining: NK cell subset, rare T cells
    CD159a
    • Also known as NKG2A, killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily C member 1
    • Mediates signaling in the killing process by NK cells
    • Positive staining - normal: NK cells
    CD159c
    • Plays a role as a receptor for the recognition of MHC class I HLA-E molecules by natural killer cells and some cytotoxic T cells (Front Immunol 2018;9:686)
    • Also known as NKG2C, KLRC2
    • Positive staining - normal: natural killer cells and CD8+ T cells

    CD160-169
    CD160
    • Aka BY55
    • Expression tightly associated with peripheral blood NK cells and CD8+ T lymphocytes with cytolytic effector activity
    • Positive staining - normal: circulating NK (CD56 dim, CD116+) and T cells, spleen, small intestinal intraepithelial lymphocytes
    CD161
    • Aka killer cell lectin-like receptor subfamily B, member 1
    • May mediate NK cell function
    • Positive staining - normal: NK cells, subset of CD4+ and CD8+ T cells, memory T cells, thymocytes (some)
    CD162
    • Aka P-Selectin Glycoprotein Ligand 1 (PSGL-1)
    • Important in adhesive interactions between circulating leukocytes and platelets and endothelial cells
    • Mediates rolling on activated endothelium or activated platelets (which express P selectin / CD62P) and other leukocytes at inflammatory sites
    • Site of binding of human granulocyte ehrlichiosis bacteria
    • Positive staining - normal: myeloid cells, stimulated T cells
    • CD162R:
      • Aka PEN5
      • Positive staining - normal: NK cells
    CD163
    • Hemoglobin / haptoglobin scavenger receptor
    • Soluble form attenuates immune response
    • Positive staining - normal: monocytes / macrophages
    • Positive staining - disease: histiocytic sarcoma (Diagn Pathol 2007;2:7)
    CD164
    • Aka MUC-24, sialomucin
    • Mucin-like cell surface glycoprotein that facilitates adhesion of CD34+ cells
      • Regulates hematopoietic cell proliferation
    • Positive staining - normal: small and large bowel epithelia; lung, thyroid epithelia
    • Positive staining - disease: colorectal carcinoma, pancreatic adenocarcinoma
    CD165
    • Involved in adhesion between thymocytes and thymic epithelial cells
    • Positive staining - normal: immature thymocytes, monocytes, platelets, CNS neurons, islet cells, Bowman's capsule of kidney
    • Positive staining - disease: many T acute lymphoblastic leukemias (ALL)
    CD166
    • Aka Activated Leukocyte Cell Adhesion Molecule (ALCAM)
    • Adhesion molecule, binds to CD6
    • Involved in neuronal neurite extension, embryonic hemopoiesis, embryonic angiogenesis
    • Positive staining - normal: neurons, activated T cells, activated monocytes, epithelium, fibroblasts
    CD167
    • Aka Discoidin Domain Receptor 1 (DDR1)
    • Has homologous region to the Dicytostelium discoideum protein discoidin I in extracellular domain
    • Tyrosine kinase receptor, may be important in cytoskeletal organization and the ability to align with other cells during aggregation
    • Receptor tyrosine kinases help cells communicate with their microenvironment and regulate cell growth, differentiation and metabolism
    • Activated by collagen types I - V, VIII
    • May have a role in tumor invasion and metastasis
    • Positive staining - normal: epithelial cells (breast, kidney, lung, GI, brain)
    • Positive staining - disease: carcinomas (various)
    CD168
    • Aka Receptor for Hyaluronic Acid-Mediated Motility (RHAMM)
    • Binding to hyaluron stimulates ciliary beating
    • Also has role in cell signaling, migration and adhesion
    • Positive staining - normal: bronchial epithelium, CNS neurons
    CD169
    • Aka sialoadhesin
    • Macrophage restricted cellular interaction molecule that binds sialylated ligands
    • Highly expressed on macrophages in chronically inflamed tissues, such as rheumatoid synovium and atherosclerotic plaques
    • Positive staining - normal: macrophages (all sites but microglia)
    • Negative staining: microglia
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Charles J. Sailey, M.D.,
    Borislav A. Alexiev, M.D. and
    John C. Papadimitriou, M.D.

    Missing Image

    CD163: histiocytic sarcoma


    Contributed by
    Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D.
    and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

    CD163: juvenile xanthogranuloma immunoprofile


    CD170-179
    Table of Contents
    CD170 | CD171 | CD172a | CD173 | CD174 | CD175 | CD176 | CD177 | CD178 | CD179
    CD170
    • Aka Sialic acid binding IG-like Lectin 5 (SIGLEC5)
    • May function in cell-cell interaction
    • Positive staining - normal: neutrophils
    CD171
    • Aka L1
    • Adhesion molecule required for normal neurohistogenesis
    • Mutations cause CRASH (Corpus callosum hypoplasia / agenesis, Retardation, Aphasia, Spastic paraplegia / shuffling gait and Hydrocephalus due to stenosis of aqueduct of Sylvius), an X linked neurologic disorder
    • May mediate kidney branching morphogenesis, maintenance of lymph node architecture during immune response, costimulation of T cell activation in vitro
    • Positive staining - normal: postmitotic neurons, glia, epithelial cells (some), lymphoid cells (some), myeloid (some), monocytes
    CD172a
    • Aka SIRP alpha
    • Adhesion structure
    CD173
    • Aka blood group H2
    • Marker of early hematopoiesis
    • Positive staining - normal: CD34+ hematopoietic progenitor cells
    • Negative staining: mature lymphocytes
    CD174
    • Aka Lewis Y antigen
    • Marker of early hematopoiesis
    • Positive staining - normal: CD34+ hematopoietic progenitor cells
    • Negative staining: mature lymphocytes
    CD175
    • CD175:
      • Aka Tn
      • Simple mucin type carbohydrate antigen produced in the initial steps of mucin biosynthetic pathway, due to aberrant or incomplete glycosylation of mucins
    • CD175s:
      • Aka Sialyl Tn (STN)
      • Carbohydrate associated with apomucins MUC1, MUC2; produced in the initial steps of mucin biosynthetic pathway
      • Presence associated with aggressive tumors
      • High pre-operative serum levels predict liver metastasis and poor prognosis after resection for gastric cancer
      • Definitive Phase III trial of STN vaccine in metastatic breast cancer patients began 2001
      • Positive staining - disease: carcinoma
    CD176
    • Aka Thomsen-Friedenreich (TF) oncofetal blood group antigen, galactose beta 1-3 N-acetylgalactosamine alpha
    • Occurs in colon cancer and colitis
    CD177
    • Aka NB1 glycoprotein
    • Major immunogenic molecule of neutrophil membrane
    • Positive staining - normal: myeloid cells
    CD178
    • Aka CD95 ligand, Fas ligand (FasL)
    • Important role in T cell mediated cytotoxicity; induces apoptosis in Fas expressing target cells
    • Cells in immune privileged sites (testis, anterior chamber of eye, placenta) constitutively express FasL, which induces apoptosis in Fas expressing infiltrating T cells, minimizing inflammatory responses that might damage important physiologic functions at these sites
    • May influence interaction of tumor cells with host immune system; theory is that FasL+ tumor cells induce apoptosis in infiltrating Fas+ mononuclear cells
    • Fas-FasL binding triggers apoptosis in lymphocytes
    • Mutations may be related to some cases of Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (SLE)
    • Processed by metalloproteases which cause shedding of extracellular portion into blood (sFas L)
    • Positive staining - normal: activated and cytotoxic T cells, testis, anterior chamber of eye, placenta; also Sertoli cells, neurons, thyroid epithelial cells
    • Positive staining - tumors: Reed-Sternberg cells of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (nodular sclerosis and mixed cellularity) (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:388)
    CD179
    • CD179a:
      • Aka VpreB1
      • Associates noncovalently with CD179b to form surrogate light chain as component of preB cell receptor, which plays a critical role in early B cell differentiation
    • CD179b:
      • Aka lambda-5
      • Associates noncovalently with CD179a to form surrogate light chain as component of preB cell receptor, which plays a critical role in early B cell differentiation
      • Mutations impair B cell development and cause agammaglobulinemia
    • Positive staining - normal: preB cells

    CD180-189
    CD180
    • Also called RP105
    • Regulates B cell recognition of lipopolysaccharide, a membrane constituent of gram-negative bacteria
    • Positive staining - normal: mantle zone and marginal zone B cells (strong), other B cells (weak/negative); peripheral blood monocytes, dendritic cells
    CD181
    • Also called CXCR1, IL8Ralpha; previously called CDw128A
    • Chemokine receptor, powerful neutrophil chemotactic factor
    • Positive staining - normal: neutrophils, basophils, T cell subset, monocytes, keratinocytes
    • Positive staining - disease: T cells in allergic rhinitis (J Immunol 2004;172:268)
    CD182
    • Also called CXCR2; formerly called CD128b
    • Interleukin 8 receptor beta subunit (IL8RB); binds multiple CXC chemokines including IL-8 (CXCL8)
    • Chemokine receptor, powerful neutrophil chemotactic factor, particularly to sites of inflammation
    • Interpretation: cytoplasmic staining
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant uses by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: mature granulocytes, keratinocytes, neuroendocrine cells, projection neurons (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2000;124:520)
    • Positive staining - disease: carcinoid tumor (classic, atypical, metastatic), pituitary adenoma, pheochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma
    • Negative staining: parathyroid cells; small cell carcinoma of lung / cervix, large cell lung neuroendocrine carcinoma, Merkel cell carcinoma, neuroblastoma, melanoma
    CD183
    • Also called CXCR3
    • Receptor for some chemokines; binding of chemokines to CD183 induces integrin activation, cytoskeletal changes and chemotactic migration in inflammation-associated effector T cells
    • CD183+ T cells detected in inflamed tissues of patients with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis, sarcoidosis, hepatitis C
    • Positive staining - normal: T cells in inflamed tissue, eosinophils, plasmacytoid dendritic cells, hematopoietic progenitors
    • Negative staining: naïve T cells in peripheral blood
    CD184
    • Also called CXCR4, Stromal cell Derived Factor 1 (SDF1)
    • Receptor for the CXC chemokine SDF-1
    • Also major HIV/SIV co-receptor (with CCR5/CD195)
    • Involved in B cell development, myelopoiesis, cardiac ventricular septum formation, blood vessel formation in GI tract, cerebellar granular cell development
    • Positive staining - normal: all mature blood cells, blood progenitor cells, endothelial and epithelial cells, astrocytes, neurons
    CD185
    • Multipass membrane protein of CXC chemokine receptor family
    • Also called CXCR5, BLR1 (Burkitt lymphoma receptor 1)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Binds to B Lymphocyte Chemoattractant (BLC / CXCL13) (J Exp Med 1998;187:655)
      • Involved in B cell migration into B cell follicles of spleen and Peyer patches (J Immunol 2009;182:2610)
      • Critical for function of follicular helper T (TFH) cells
      • May have role in survival and maintainance of cardiac structure upon pressure overload by regulating proteoglycans essential for correct collagen assembly (PLoS One 2011;6:e18668)
      • May be important for ectopic mucosa associated lymphoid tissue neogenesis in chronic Helicobacter pylori induced inflammation (J Mol Med (Berl) 2010;88:1169)
      • During HIV1 infection, altered expression of CXCR5 / CXCL13 may cause B cell dysfunction (Blood 2008;112:4401)
      • Upregulated in rheumatoid arthritis synovial tissue and expressed in various cell types (Arthritis Res Ther 2005;7:R217)
    • Interpretation: cytoplasmic staining
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant uses by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: mature B cells
    • Positive staining - disease: Burkitt's lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma; AIDS-related non-Hodgkin lymphoma (Blood 2009;113:4604, AIDS Res Treat 2010;2010:164586)
    CD186
    • No information available
    CD187
    • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
    CD188
    • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
    CD189
    • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CD182: inflammatory infiltration

    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CD182: ovarian carcinoma

    CD185: chronic H. pylori gastris (left); MALT lymphoma (right)

    CD185: AIDS related non-Hodgkin lymphoma

    CD185: synovium of non-rheumatoid arthritis (left) and rheumatoid arthritis (right)



    CD19
    Definition / general
    • Common B cell marker (also CD20, CD79a, PAX5)
    • Expressed by B cells and follicular dendritic cells
    • Early B lineage-restricted antigen present on most pre-B cells, B-ALL and B-CLL cells (OMIM #107265)
    Pathophysiology
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD19 structure and signaling

    Clinical features
    • Defects in CD19 cause immunodeficiency common variable type 3 (OMIM #613493), characterized by antibody deficiency, hypogammaglobulinemia, recurrent bacterial infections and an inability to mount an antibody response to antigen
    • CD19 count may be useful to screen for B cell lymphoproliferative disorders (Clin Chem Lab Med 2011;49:115)
    • Adoptive transfer of anti-CD19-chimeric antigen receptor-expressing T cells may be effective for B cell malignancies (Blood 2010;116:4099, Sci Transl Med 2013;5:177, Blood 2013;122:4129)
    Uses by pathologists
    Positive staining - normal
    • Pre-B cells, B cells; follicular dendritic cells
    • Hematogones in bone marrow by flow cytometry
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining

    CD1a
    Definition / general
    • T cell surface antigen (gene on #1q22-23, not MHC linked)
    • CD1a+ T cells are normal component of T cell repertoire (Nat Immunol 2010;11:1102), important in dendritic cell presentation of glycolipids and lipopeptide antigens, particularly those that traffic through early endocytic and recycling pathways (J Immunol 2010;184:1235)
    • Also called Leu6
    • Activin A, a TGFβ family member induced by pro-inflammatory cytokines and involved in skin morphogenesis and wound healing, induces the differentiation of human monocytes into Langerhans cells in absence of TGFβ (PLoS One 2008;3:e3271)
    Clinical features
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Langerhans cell histiocytosis:
    Missing Image

    Brain

    Missing Image Missing Image

    Lung: right is bronchioalveolar lavage

    Missing Image

    Skin



    Other:
    Missing Image

    Esophagus: Barrett metaplasia

    Missing Image

    Oral cavity: gingiva - normal and diseased

    Missing Image

    Skin: mycosis fungoide

    Cytology images

    Case #72

    Langerhans cell histiocytosis:

    Skull - cytology

    Positive staining - normal
    • Cortical thymocytes
    • Immature dendritic cells (Langerin-, CD86-, HLA-DR low, CD40 low)
    • Indeterminate cells (resemble Langerhans cells but no Birbeck granules on EM)
    • Langerhans cells (Langerin+, CD86+)
    Positive staining - not malignant
    Positive staining - tumors
    Negative staining
    • B cells, follicular dendritic cells
    • Dendritic cells in most cutaneous B cell lymphomas (or weak staining, Am J Clin Pathol 2001;116:72), dendritic cell neurofibroma, Erdheim-Chester disease, follicular dendritic cell tumor, histiocytic lymphoma / sarcoma, histiocytoma, interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma, juvenile xanthogranuloma, sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy
    • PECOmas: CD1a negative, but may show aberrant cytoplasmic staining due to endogenous biotin (Hum Pathol 2011;42:369); prior report of CD1a+ PEComas at Pathol Int 2008;58:169
    Electron microscopy images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Langerhans cell histiocytosis: Birbeck granules


    CD20
    Definition / general
    • Common B cell marker (also CD19, CD79a, PAX5)
    • Also called L26, membrane spanning 4 domains (MS4A1)
    Essential features
    • Widely used B cell marker (also CD19, CD79a, PAX5)
    • Retained on mature B cells until plasma cell differentiation
    • Anti-CD20 therapy (e.g., rituximab) is available for treatment of non-Hodgkin B cell lymphoma and autoimmune diseases
    Pathophysiology
    • 33kd phosphoprotein with 3 hydrophobic regions that traverse the cell membrane, creating a structure similar to an ion channel that allows for the influx of calcium required for cell activation
    • Initially expressed on B cells after CD19 / CD10 expression and before CD21 / CD22 and surface immunoglobulin expression; retained on mature B cells until plasma cell differentiation
    • Delivers early signal in B cell activation
    • FMC7 detects a conformational epitope on the CD20 molecule with probable cholesterol dependency (Cytometry 2001;46:98, Leukemia 2003;17:1384)
    Clinical features
    Uses by pathologists
    • Commonly used B cell marker used in the workup of benign and malignant processes
    Case reports
    • 21 year old man with nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma with large atypical cells (Case #284)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Leonie Frauenfeld, M.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Kaveh Naemi, D.O.
    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    Germinal center with strong CD20 positive B cells

    Missing Image Missing Image

    SLL / CLL infiltrate in a lymph node


    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    Hairy cell leukemia infiltrate in the bone marrow

    MALT lymphoma

    Burkitt lymphoma
    of ileocecal valve



    Cases #101, 118, 127, 130, 284 and AFIP images

    Lymph node: angiomyomatous hamartoma

    Skin: halo nevus

    MALT lymphoma of stomach

    Myeloid sarcoma of bone (negative)

    NK / T cell lymphoma, nasal type (tumor cells are negative)


    T cell lymphoma

    Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular lymphocyte predominant subtype

    Positive staining - normal
    • Most B cells (considered a pan-B cell antigen), also follicular dendritic cells
    • Hematogones can be CD20+ (acquire CD20 during maturation) and a panel is useful in distinguishing them from leukemia cells (Am J Clin Pathol 2000;114:66, Blood 2001;98:2498)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Nonhematopoietic cells, most T cells, basophils, plasma cells and mast cells
    • Note: staining does not work well with Bouin fixative
    Flow cytometry description
    • CD20 can be evaluated by flow cytometric immunophenotyping as well as immunohistochemical stains
    • Dim or bright CD20 expression can provide clues to diagnoses
      • Brighter expression in follicular lymphomas than normal B cells (Am J Clin Pathol 2005;124:576)
      • In chronic lymphocytic leukemia / small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL / SLL), CD20 expression may be dim to negative
    Sample pathology report
    • Lymph node, excision:
      • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL)
      • Comment: Lymph node presents with effaced architecture and demonstrates a dense, sheet-like proliferation of immunoblastic cells with strong, homogeneous CD20 positivity. Additionally, the cells mark positive for CD10 and BCL6 but are negative for MUM1, according to a germinal center type DLBCL (Hans algorithm). The cells are positive for BCL2 and weakly positive for MYC (20%).
    Board review style question #1

    Which normal cell type is most associated with CD20 expression?

    1. Basophils
    2. Germinal center B cell
    3. Plasma cells
    4. T cells
    Board review style answer #1
    B. Germinal center B cell

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD20
    Board review style question #2
    CD20 is the target of monoclonal antibodies used in the therapy against

    1. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
    2. Mycosis fungoides
    3. Rheumatoid arthritis
    4. T cell large granular lymphocytic leukemia (T-LGL)
    Board review style answer #2
    C. Rheumatoid arthritis

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD20

    CD20-29
    CD20
    CD21
    CD22
    CD23
    CD24
    CD25
    CD26
    CD27
    CD28
    • Receptor important in CD4+ T cell activation, IL2 production and T helper 2 development (OMIM #186760)
    • Plays a critical role in controlling the adaptive arm of the immune response (Blood 2005;105:13)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • T cells require 2 signals for full activation: (1) binding of the antigen / MHC complex on the antigen presenting cell to the T cell receptor; (2) interaction of CD28 with its ligands CD80 (B7-1) or CD86 (B7-2), found on activated B cells and called a costimulation signal
      • Costimulatory signal induces T cell activation and survival, interleukin 2 production, T helper type 2 development and clonal expansion
      • CD28 is a constitutive, high abundance, low affinity receptor; its binding also increases expression of CTLA4 (CD152), a structurally related cell surface receptor on T cells which competes with CD28 for the same ligands but has opposite effects (J Clin Immunol 2002;22:1, Curr Pharm Des 2006;12:149)
      • CD8+, CD28+ T cells are antigen specific cytotoxic T cells (class I restricted) and constitute 90% of CD8+ T cells
      • CD8+, CD28- T cells are suppressor T cells; loss of CD28 expression in T cells is associated with various infectious and autoimmune diseases and aging:
    • Clinical features:
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: CD4+ T cells (95%), CD8+ T cells (50%); activated B cells, thymocytes and plasma cells (some)
    • Positive staining - disease: myeloma (95%) (Blood 2014;123:3770)
    CD29
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD28: costimulation

    Missing Image

    Competition between CTLA4 and CD28 for same ligands

    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD28 costimulation is also required for proper memory cell activation

    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD22: high grade B cell lymphoma, fig F

    Missing Image

    CD22: B-ALL, fig D

    Missing Image

    CD22: Burkitt lymphoma, fig D

    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD22: normal tonsil

    Missing Image

    CD24: bladder carcinoma


    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    CD24: colon, lung, ovary (left to right)

    Missing Image

    CD24: DCIS (breast)

    Missing Image

    CD24: extrahepatic bile duct carcinoma

    Missing Image

    CD24: salivary gland mucoepidermoid carcinoma


    Missing Image

    CD25: HTLV1+ adult T cell leukemia / lymphoma

    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD25: mastocytosis

    Missing Image

    CD26: normal colon

    Missing Image

    CD26: proximal tubules (kidney)


    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD26: prostate carcinoma

    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD29: lung cancer


    CD200-209
    Table of Contents
    CD200 | CD201 | CD202b | CD203c | CD204 | CD205 | CD206 | CD207 | CD208 | CD209
    CD200
    • Aka OX2
    • An immunoadhesin that may deliver immunosuppressive signals and regulate autoimmune disorders
    • Inhibitory for macrophage lineage cells
    • Positive staining - normal: follicular dendritic cells, thymocytes, B cells, T cells, neurons, kidney glomeruli, syncytiotrophoblast, endothelial cells
    CD201
    • Binds protein C in a calcium-dependent manner
    • Aka Endothelial Protein C Receptor (EPC R), protein C receptor
    • Protein C is a vitamin K dependent enzyme with major role in coagulation of blood; activated when thrombin binds to thrombomodulin on endothelium.
    • Mutations in CD201 and thrombomodulin associated with late fetal loss; similar mutation associated with venous thromboembolism and myocardial infarction
    • Positive staining - normal: endothelial cells (not in liver and kidney)
    CD202b
    • Aka Tie2 (Tyrosine kinase with Ig-like loops and Epidermal growth factor homology domains), aka Tek
    • Receptor tyrosine kinase at #9p21, binds to angiopoietin-1
    • May be earliest mammalian endothelial cell lineage marker
    • Involved in vein morphogenesis and communication between endothelial and smooth muscle cells for remodeling and repair of blood vessels
    • Defects associated with inherited venous malformations
    • Positive staining - normal: endothelial cells, hematopoietic cells
    CD203c
    • Aka E-NPP3/PDNP3
    • Enzyme that catalyzes hydrolysis of oligonucleotides, nucleoside phosphates, and NAD
    • Positive staining - normal: prostate, uterus, basophils, mast cells, gliomas, myeloid cells
    CD204
    • Aka macrophage scavenger receptor 1
    • Plays a role in endocytosis of macromolecules
    • Positive staining - normal: myeloid cells
    CD205
    • Aka DEC205
    • Possible antigen-uptake receptor with a role in initiating immune response
    • Positive staining - normal: dendritic cells
    CD206
    • Aka macrophage mannose receptor
    • Acts in phagocytosis and pinocytosis of mannose-containing solutes
    • Positive staining - normal: dendritic cells
    CD207
    • Aka langerin (Langerhans cell specific c-type lectin)
    • Functions as endocytic receptor
    • Localized to Birbeck granules
    • Mannose binding to this protein may cause antigen internalization into Birbeck granules and access to a nonclassical antigen-processing pathway
    • Positive staining - normal: Langerhans cells (immature dendritic cells of epidermis and mucosa)
    CD208
    • Dendritic cell LAMP (DC-Lamp)
    • Indicates dendritic cell maturation
    • Positive staining - normal: dendritic cells
    CD209
    • Aka DC-Sign
    • Binds to HIV1 gp120
    • Mediates transient adhesion of dendritic cells with T cells
    • Positive staining - normal: dendritic cells

    CD21
    Definition / general
    • Receptor for Epstein Barr virus (EBV) and HHV8 (J Virol 2005;79:4651)
    • Marker of dendritic cells (also CD23 and CD35)
    • Also called CR2 (complement receptor type 2), C3d receptor and EBV receptor (OMIM #120650)
    • Note: although CD21 is the receptor for EBV, it is not necessarily expressed in EBV+ tumors
    Pathophysiology
    • Forms a complex with CD19, CD81 and CD225 in the membrane of mature B cells; complex is often called the B cell coreceptor complex, because CD21 binds to antigens through attached C3d (or iC3b or C3dg) when the membrane IgM binds to the antigen, which results in a greatly enhanced response B cell response to the antigen (Wikipedia)
    • Besides EBV and HHV8, also binds to breakdown products of complement component C3 (C3d), CD23 (plays a role in IgE synthesis) and possibly gamma interferon
    • CD21/35 promotes protective immunity to Streptococcus pneumoniae through a complement-independent, but CD19-dependent pathway that regulates PD-1 expression (J Immunol 2009;183:3661)
    • Follicular dendritic cells produce a different isoform of CD21 than B cells (J Exp Med 1997;185:165)
    • Genetic CD21 deficiency is associated with hypogammaglobulinemia (J Allergy Clin Immunol 2012;129:801)
    Clinical features
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    AFIP images and Cases #81, 179 and 284

    Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma

    Littoral cell angioma of spleen

    Lymph node



    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Mediastinum

    Missing Image

    Tonsil

    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    Nodal marginal zone B cell lymphoma

    Positive staining - normal
    • Mature B cells (particularly marginal and mantle cells), follicular dendritic cells, pharyngeal and cervical epithelial cells, some thymocytes and some T cells
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Basophils, fibroblastic reticulum cells and related tumors, interdigitating dendritic cells and related tumors (Am J Clin Pathol 2001;115:589), Langerhans cells and related tumors, plasma cells
    • Dendritic cell neurofibroma with pseudorosettes (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:587)
    • Histiocytic sarcoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2004;28:1133), indeterminate cell tumors in lymph nodes
    • Inflammatory fibroid polyps of GI tract (Am J Surg Pathol 2004;28:107), inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor and splenic hamartomas
    • Sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy (Rosai-Dorfman disease)

    CD220-229
    Table of Contents
    CD220 | CD221 | CD222 | CD223 | CD224 | CD225 | CD226 | CD227 | CD228 | CD229
    CD220
    • Aka insulin receptor
    CD221
    • Aka insulin-like growth factor 1 receptor
    • Mediates insulin stimulated DNA synthesis and IGF1 stimulated cell proliferation and differentiation
    • Often overexpressed in malignant tissue, where it functions as an anti-apoptotic agent by enhancing cell survival
    CD222
    • Aka insulin-like growth factor 2 receptor, mannose 6 phosphate receptor
    • Also a receptor for lysosomal hydrolases (i.e. assists in sorting lysosomal enzymes from Golgi apparatus or extracellular space to lysosomes)
    CD223
    • Aka Lymphocyte-Activation Gene 3 (LAG-3)
    • Homologous to CD4
    • Associates with MHC class II molecules on monocytes/dendritic cells, which are subsequently activated
    • May help activated CD4+ and CD8+ T cells to fully activate monocytes and dendritic cells, leading to optimized MHC class I and class II T cell responses
    • Positive staining - normal: activated T cells, activated NK cells
    CD224
    • Aka gamma-glutamyltransferase
    • Gene at 22q11.1-q11.2
    • Catalyzes the transfer of the glutamyl moiety of glutathione to a variety of amino acids and dipeptide acceptors, which maintains a homeostatic balance regarding oxidative stress
    CD225
    • Aka Leu13, interferon-inducible transmembrane protein 1
    • Involved in relaying antiproliferative and homotypic adhesion signals
    CD226
    • Aka DNAM-1, Platelet and T cell Activation antigen 1 (PTA1)
    • Mediates adhesion to an unknown ligand
    • T cell expression increased in some patients with autoimmune disease and viral infection
    • Positive staining - normal: NK cells, platelets, monocytes, subset of B and T cells
    • Negative staining: granulocytes, erythrocytes
    CD227
    CD228
    • Aka melanotransferrin
    • Cell surface glycoprotein found on melanoma cells, with sequence similarity and iron binding properties of transferrin superfamily
    CD229
    • Aka Lymphocyte antigen 9
    • May be involved in adhesion between T cells and accessory cells

    CD23
    Definition / general
    Essential features
    • CD23 is a low affinity IgE receptor
    • Differentiates small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL) / chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) (CD23+) from mantle cell lymphoma or MALT lymphoma (CD23-)
    • B cell marker, particularly for SLL / CLL, mediastinal large B cell lymphoma, lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma and diffuse follicular lymphoma (Mod Pathol 2012;25:1637, Blood Adv 2020;4:5652)
    • Distinguish nodal marginal zone lymphoma from follicular lymphoma by identifying a disrupted follicular dendritic cell pattern (Int J Surg Pathol 2005;13:73)
    Terminology
    • Low affinity IgE receptor, Fc fragment of IgE receptor, FCER
    Pathophysiology
    • Secretable type C lectin
    • After physiologic germinal cell development, the follicular dendritic cell meshwork expands and follicular dendritic cells in the light zone of the germinal center become CD23 positive
    • CD23 acts as a B cell growth and activation factor, promoting differentiation into plasma cells
    • Shows variability in flow cytometry expression between specimens from same patient (Am J Clin Pathol 2002;117:615)
    • CD21, CD23 and CD35 are dendritic cell markers
    • Interactions with IgE:
    • CD23 is noncovalently associated with HLA-DR and plays a role in endocytosis and recycling of the complex, which may contribute to the efficiency of antigen presentation (Immunology 2001;103:319)
    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Diffuse cell membrane staining, cytoplasmic staining
    Uses by pathologists
    • CD21, CD23 and CD35 are follicular dendritic cell markers
    • Differentiate SLL / CLL (CD23+) versus mantle cell lymphoma or MALT lymphoma (CD23-)
    • B cell marker, particularly for SLL / CLL, mediastinal large B cell lymphoma, lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma and diffuse follicular lymphoma (Mod Pathol 2012;25:1637, Blood Adv 2020;4:5652)
    • Distinguish nodal marginal zone lymphoma from follicular lymphoma by identifying a disrupted follicular dendritic cell pattern in marginal zone lymphoma (Int J Surg Pathol 2005;13:73)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Mihaly Sulyok, M.D., Ph.D. and Christian M. Schürch, M.D., Ph.D.

    CLL / SLL

    Follicular lymphoma

    Tonsilla

    Virtual slides

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CD23 positive FDCs of germinal centers

    CD23 positive nodal infiltrate of CLL / SLL

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Left axillary lymph node, excision:
      • Left axillary lymph node excision infiltrated by chronic lymphocytic leukemia / small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL / SLL) with large proliferation centers; no signs of Richter transformation (see comment)
      • Comment: A large lymph node with disrupted architecture due to a lymphocytic infiltrate with a vaguely nodular growth pattern. The infiltrate consists of small cells with round nuclei, mature chromatin and a barely visible cytoplasmic border. The nodular parts (so called proliferation centers) consist of small and large cells and some large prominent paraimmunoblasts.
      • Immunohistochemically, the infiltrate is positive for CD20, CD5, CD23 and BCL2. The staining for CD3 shows numerous accompanying reactive T lymphocytes. The stains for cyclin D1, BCL6 and CD10 remain negative in the lymphocytic infiltrate but BCL6 and CD10 are positive in a few residual reactive germinal centers. The proliferation is high and polarized in the residual germinal centers and somewhat increased in the proliferation centers with a proliferation rate of about 20%.
    Board review style question #1
    Which tumor typically exhibits CD23 positivity?

    1. Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm
    2. Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma
    3. HHV8 associated germinotropic lymphoproliferative disorder
    4. Indeterminate dendritic cell tumor
    5. Interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma
    Board review style answer #1
    B. Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD23

    CD230-239
    Table of Contents
    CD230 | CD231 | CD232 | CD233 | CD234 | CD235 | CD236 | CD237 | CD238 | CD239
    CD230
    • Aka prion protein (“PRotein INfectious agent”)
    • Mutations associated with Gerstmann-Straussler disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), familial fatal insomnia, which are neurodegenerative conditions transmissible by inoculation or inherited as autosomal dominant disorders
    • Aberrant isoforms can act as an infectious agent in these disorders as well as in kuru and in scrapie in sheep
    • Replication (infectivity) occurs as abnormal protein with conformational change recruits cellular prion and converts it into infective form with same conformational change
    • Positive staining - normal: neurons (nonpathogenic isoform)
    • Reference: OMIM 176640
    CD231
    • Aka T cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia Antigen-1 (TALLA-1), TM4SF2, A15
    • Involved in X-linked intellectual disability (Nat Genet 2000;24:167)
    • Positive staining - normal: T cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia, neuroblastoma cells
    • Positive staining - malignant: T cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia, neuroblastoma cells
    • Negative staining: B cells, monocytes
    CD232
    • Aka Virus Encoded Semaphoring Protein Receptor (VESP R)
    • May function as an immune modulator during virus infection
    CD233
    • Aka band 3
    • Erythrocyte membrane protein that functions as an anion (chloride/bicarbonate) exchanger and attachment site for cytoskeleton (where spectrin/actin bind to membrane lipid bilayer)
    • Truncated form of CD233 is expressed in kidney and involved in acid secretion
    • Mutations cause hereditary spherocytosis or distal renal tubular acidosis (due to defective acid secretion)
    • Other mutations cause novel blood group antigens which form the Diego blood group system
    • Southeast Asian ovalocytosis is due to heterozygous deletions, common where Plasmodium falciparum malaria is endemic, associated with abnormally rigid, stomatocytic erythrocytes, asymptomatic; children are protected against cerebral malaria
    • Positive staining - normal: erythrocyte plasma membrane (strong), basolateral membrane of a-intercalated cells of the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney
    • Negative staining: all other cells
    CD234
    • Aka Duffy blood group antigen (Fy glycoprotein); erythrocyte chemokine receptor, Duffy Antigen Receptor for Chemokines (DARC)
    • RBC receptor for Plasmodium vivax, a malarial parasite
    • Negativity associated with sickle cell trait, due to common protection against malaria provided by both traits African-Americans often Duffy negative and resistant to P. vivax malaria
    • Positive staining - normal: endothelial cells of postcapillary venules, Purkinje cells of cerebellum
    • See also Duffy system
    CD235
    • Glycophorins A and B are major sialoglycoproteins of the human erythrocyte membrane; contain antigenic determinants for the MN blood group
    • CD235a: also called glycophorin A
    • CD235b: also called glycophorin B
    • CD235ab: also called glycophorin A/B crossreactive antibodies
    • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells
    • Positive staining - disease: AML-M6
    • Negative staining: AML M0-M5, M7
    CD236
    • CD236: also called glycophorin C/D
    • CD236R: also called glycophorin C
      • Regulates mechanical stability of red cells
      • Mutations cause Gerbich and Yus blood group phenotypes
    • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells
    CD237
    • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
    CD238
    • Aka Kell blood group antigen
    • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells
    • See also Kell group
    CD239
    • Aka Lutheran blood group antigen; B-CAM
    • May mediate cell-cell, cell-matrix adhesion, signal transduction
    • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells

    CD240-249
    CD240CE
    • Also called RH 30 CE, Rh blood group Cc and Ee blood group antigens; encodes RhC and RhE antigens on a single polypeptide
    • On #1p36.11 adjacent to RH D gene
    • Rh (rhesus) blood group system is second most clinically significant blood group after ABO; is most polymorphic blood group, with variations due to deletions, gene conversions and missense mutations
    • Rh antigens are carried by an oligomer of two major erythroid specific polypeptides, the Rh (D and CcEe) proteins and the RhAG glycoprotein
    • Discrepant or doubtful serologic results can be resolved by sequence specific primer (PCR SSP) technique (Transfusion 2007;47:54S)
    • Rarely causes hemolytic disease of newborn (Transfus Med 2000;10:305)
    • Uses by pathologists: blood typing
    • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells
    • References: Blood 2000;95:375, OMIM 111700
    CD240D
    • Also called RH30 D, Rh blood group D blood group antigen; is major antigen of the Rh system
    • On #1p36.11 adjacent to RHCE gene
    • Rh (rhesus) blood group system is second most clinically significant blood group after ABO; is most polymorphic blood group, with variations due to deletions, gene conversions and missense mutations
    • Weak D, formerly called D(u), occurs in 0.2 to 1% of whites
    • Individuals are classified as Rh positive or negative based on presence or absence of highly immunogenic D antigen on red cell surface
    • May have arisen historically by duplication of RHCE gene (Blood 2002;99:2272)
    • Discrepant or doubtful serologic results can be resolved by sequence specific primer (PCR SSP) technique (Transfusion 2007;47:54S)
    • Hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn: usually due to Rh negative woman whose partner is Rh+ or heterozygous and fetus is Rh+; woman has preexisting anti-RhD antibodies that cross placenta and harm fetus (Immunohematol 2006;22:188)
    • Can use maternal plasma in alloimmunized pregnancies to determine fetal RhD status or for RHD and RHCE genotyping (Fetal Diagn Ther 2006;21:404, Prenat Diagn 2005;25:1079)
    • Rh positive mothers may rarely (0.15%) develop new antibodies (other than anti-RHD) in third trimester but no clinical significance (J Matern Fetal Neonatal Med 2007;20:59)
    • Having Rh negative mother may be risk factor for autistic children, due to use of mercury containing Rho-immune globulin (J Matern Fetal Neonatal Med 2007;20:385)
    • Uses by pathologists: blood typing
    • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells
    • References: OMIM 111680, Wikipedia, eMedicine (Rh incompatibility)
    CD240DCE
    • Rh30D / CE crossreactive monoclonal antibodies
    • Uses by pathologists: blood typing
    • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells of normal Rh types
    • Negative staining: Rh null erythrocytes
    CD241
    CD242
    • Also called intercellular adhesion molecule 4 (ICAM-4), Landsteiner-Wiener (LW) blood group protein
    • Discovered with antibody raised in guinea pigs injected with the cells of rhesus monkeys but Rh designation had already been taken
    • Binds to CD11a / CD18, CD11b / CD18 and CD11c / CD18 (Blood 2007;109:802)
    • May be critical in erythroblastic island formation, where erythroid progenitors differentiate (Blood 2006;108:2064)
    • May be ligand for platelet activated alpha IIb beta 3 integrin (J Biol Chem 2003;278:4892)
    • In sickle cell disease, contributes to red cell endothelial cell adhesion and vasoocclusion (Transfus Clin Biol 2006;13:44)
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: erythroid cells
    • References: OMIM 111250
    CD243
    CD244
    CD245
    • Also called p220 / 240
    • Very little information is available for CD245 directly; appears to be identical to NPAT (nuclear protein, ataxia-telangiectasia locus)
    • NPAT links S phase cyclin E / Cdk2 kinase activity to replication dependent histone gene transcription (Biochemistry 2006;45:15915, Mol Cell Biol 2005;25:6140)
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: T cells (some), other white blood cells with varying intensity
    CD246
    CD247
    CD248
    CD249
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD247: T cell activation

    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD247: normal expression

    Missing Image

    CD247: reduced expression

    Missing Image

    CD248: IHC detection of FB5 antigen


    CD27
    Definition / general
    • Tumor necrosis factor receptor (TNF) family member expressed on T and B cells
    Essential features
    • CD27 is a costimulatory receptor of the TNF receptor superfamily expressed on lymphocytes
    • CD27 is triggered by its unique ligand CD70, which is expressed on immune cells and often in cancers
    • Soluble CD27 can be measured in serum and is an indicator of the CD70 - CD27 interaction in vivo
    • CD27 deficiency should be considered in patients with immunodeficiencies
    • CD27 staining in flow cytometry can help detect immunodeficiencies
    Terminology
    • Also known as tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 7 (TNFRSF7)
    Pathophysiology
    Diagrams / tables

    Contributed by Frido Bruehl, M.D.
    CD27 flow cytometry for detection of abnormal plasma cells

    Flow cytometry detects abnormal plasma cells

    Function of the CD27 - CD70 axis

    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Membranous staining
    Uses by pathologists
    • CD27 dim expression detected by flow cytometry is a marker of atypical plasma cells (see Diagrams / tables) (Br J Haematol 2022;196:1175)
    • B cell phenotyping for evaluation of immunodeficiency syndromes and immune competence analysis by flow cytometry
    • T cell phenotyping for evaluation of immunodeficiency syndromes and immune competence analysis by flow cytometry
    Prognostic factors
    • Solid tumors
      • CD27 positive tumor infiltrating lymphocytes predict inferior survival in renal cell carcinoma (Clin Cancer Res 2015;21:889)
      • CD27 negative tumor infiltrating lymphocytes are associated with an improved survival in high grade serous ovarian carcinoma (Clin Cancer Res 2012;18:3281)
      • CD27 negative tumor infiltrating lymphocytes are associated with an improved survival in hepatocellular carcinoma (Clin Cancer Res 2013;19:5994)
    • Hematolymphoid neoplasms
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Christian Schürch, M.D., Ph.D.
    Immunohistochemical double staining (CD27 and CD34)

    Immunohistochemical
    double staining
    (CD27 and CD34)

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Flow cytometry images

    Contributed by Frido Bruehl, M.D. and Betty Gay, B.S.
    Flow cytometry of CVID patient Flow cytometry of CVID patient

    Flow cytometry of CVID patient

    Molecular / cytogenetics description
    Sample pathology report
    • Peripheral blood, flow cytometry, quantitative B cell phenotyping analysis:
      • Abnormal (see comment)
      • Comment: A decrease of class switched memory B cells (CD19 positive, CD27 positive, IgM negative, IgD negative) is consistent with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID). Switched memory B cells are quantitatively decreased in relation to marginal zone B cells (CD19 positive, CD27 positive, IgM positive, IgD negative). This result is consistent with but not diagnostic of CVID. Quantitative B cell phenotyping is helpful for the classification and prognosis of CVID and should be considered in the context of clinical and other immunological and laboratory findings. Decreased class switched memory B cells may also be seen in some autoimmune diseases, secondary to certain medications and in patients with other hereditary syndromes.
    Board review style question #1

    Which statement about CD27 is true?

    1. CD27 is constitutively expressed in nonlymphoid tissues
    2. CD27 is not expressed on myeloid precursor cells
    3. CD27 shows nuclear expression
    4. CD70, the ligand of CD27, is often overexpressed in cancer
    5. There are no current clinical uses of CD27
    Board review style answer #1
    D. CD70, the ligand of CD27, is often overexpressed in cancer. CD70 is overexpressed in many cancers and the CD27 / CD70 immune axis is utilized by cancers to escape immune surveillance (Oncoimmunology 2012;1:1604). The expression of CD27 in lymphoid and myeloid progenitor cells is tightly controlled. The expression pattern of CD27 is predominantly membranous. Clinical uses include immunophenotypic evaluation of plasma cell neoplasms and analysis of lymphocytes in patients with immunodeficiency syndromes.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD27

    CD270-279
    Table of Contents
    CD270 | CD272 / BTLA | CD273 | CD274 | CD278 | CD279
    CD270
    • Also known as tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 14 (TNFRSF14), Herpesvirus entry mediator (HVEM) (GeneCards)
    • Ligand to B and T lymphocyte attenuator (BTLA, Diagn Pathol 2012;7:142)
    • Acts as receptor for Herpes simplex virus (Virology 2014;448:185)
    • Recurrent mutations associated with pediatric follicular lymphoma (Haematologica 2013;98:1237)
    • Acquired mutations associated with worse prognosis in follicular lymphoma (Cancer Res 2010;70:9166)
    • No uses for pathologists at this time
    • Positive staining: T cells (constitutive or induced)
    CD272 / BTLA
    CD273
    • Programmed cell death ligand 2; also called B7DC
    • Involved in the costimulatory signal, essential for T lymphocyte proliferation and interferon gamma production
    • Found in the plasma membrane
    CD274
    CD278
    • Also called ICOS
    • Enhances basic T-cell responses to a foreign antigen, namely proliferation, secretion of lymphokines, upregulation of molecules that mediate cell-cell interaction and effective help for antibody secretion by B-cells
    • Essential both for efficient interaction between T and B-cells and for normal antibody responses to T-cell dependent antigens
    • Plays a critical role in CD40-mediated class switching of immunoglobin isotypes
    • A type I membrane protein
    • Defects cause ICOS deficiency (OMIM 607594), a form of common variable immunodeficiency characterized by recurrent bacterial infections of the respiratory and digestive tracts, but without splenomegaly, autoimmune disease, sarcoid-like granulomas, overt T cell immunodeficiency
    • Present in: activated T cells, tonsillar T cells, fetal and newborn thymic medulla
    • Reference: Swiss-Prot entry
    CD279

    CD278 / ICOS (pending)
    [Pending]

    CD280-289
    Table of Contents
    CD281 | CD282 | CD283 | CD284 | CD289
    CD281
    • TLR1_HUMAN, Q15399, OMIM 601194, TLR1, Toll-like receptor 1 (Toll/interleukin-1 receptor-like) (TIL)
    CD282
    • TLR2_HUMAN, O60603, OMIM 603028, TLR2, TIL4, Toll-like receptor 2 (Toll/interleukin-1 receptor-like protein 4)
    CD283
    CD284
    CD289

    CD3
    Definition / general
    • Common antibody for identifying T cells
    • Member of immunoglobulin superfamily on 11q23
    • Also called OKT3
    Essential features
    • Common antibody for identifying T cells
    Pathophysiology
    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Cytoplasmic positivity in immature T cells (cCD3), while negative surface CD3 (sCD3)
    • Complete and membranous positivity in mature T cells (CD3)
    • Reference: Histopathology 2000;36:544
    Uses by pathologists
    • Most specific T cell antibody; usually used to identify T cells in benign and malignant disorders; most antibodies are directed against epsilon chain
      • CD3 in IHC stains both membrane and cytoplasm and stains both T cells and NK cells, thus NK cell processes / lymphomas are CD3 by IHC
      • Flow cytometry can distinguish surface from cytoplasmic CD3 and therefore T cells (surface CD3+ from NK cells (surface CD3-)
      • Flow cytometry can also distinguish T cells with surface CD3 (mature T cells) from T cells with cytoplasmic CD3 but without surface CD3 (T lymphoblasts)
    • CD3 / CD20 combined immunostains are often performed in initial cytological evaluation of lymphoid rich pleural effusions but their cost effectiveness has been questioned (Diagn Cytopathol 2012;40:565)
    • Does not improve detection of gluten sensitive enteropathy when H&E sections are normal (Mod Pathol 2013;26:1241)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Leonie Frauenfeld, M.D.

    CD3+ mature T cells in lymphadenitis

    CD3+ neoplastic cells in PTCL, TBX21

    Positive staining - normal
    • Thymocytes, peripheral T cells (cytoplasmic expression at early T cell differentiation, then membranous expression) (Adv Biol Regul 2019;74:100638, Nat Methods 2017;14:531)
    • NK cells (CD3 epsilon, cytoplasmic in 56%, not membranous); also Purkinje cells of cerebellum
    • Note: nonspecific cytoplasmic staining may be present in plasma cells and macrophages (faint reactivity)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Flow cytometry description
    Flow cytometry images

    Case #36

    Soft tissue: anaplastic large cell lymphoma

    Sample pathology report
    • Lymph node, excision:
      • Peripheral T cell lymphoma, TBX21 (see comment)
      • Comment: Lymph node with polymorphous infiltrate with atypical lymphocytic cells. The tumor cells are positive for CD3 with coexpression of CD4, CD2, CD5 and loss of CD7. CD8 marks reactive cytotoxic T cells. TFH markers (PD-1, ICOS, BCL6, CD10, CXCR13) remain negative. The tumor cells coexpress TBX21 / T bet and CXCR3 but remain negative in GATA3 and CCR4 (Blood 2019;134:2159).
    Board review style question #1

    The image shows the typical membranous staining pattern for CD3 in mature T cells. Which of the following is the typical staining pattern of immature T cells in CD3 immunohistochemistry?

    1. Cytoplasmic
    2. Cytoplasmic and membranous
    3. Membranous
    4. Nuclear
    Board review style answer #1
    A. Cytoplasmic

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD3

    CD30
    Definition / general
    Essential features
    Terminology
    Pathophysiology
    • CD30 gene is located at 1p36
      • Close to TNFR2 and OX40
    • Molecular weight of the protein: 120 kD
      • Mature form of CD30 protein is processed from a precursor weighing 84 kD and during transit in the Golgi complex gains weight through glycosylation
    • 3 domains:
      • Extracellular (361 amino acids)
        • Flower-like configuration
        • 2 subdomains: D1 and D2
        • Similar sequence when compared to TNFR molecules: 6 cysteine rich stretches of amino acids
        • Implications in antibody binding
        • Soluble form of CD30 (sCD30) is an 85 - 88 kD protein detected in inflammatory scenario and it is a product of the extracellular domain
      • Transmembrane (28 amino acids)
      • Intracellular (188 amino acids)
        • Contains several serine / threonine residues, which can be phosphorylated
          • Docking sites for protein binding and signaling transduction
    • Expression and function are related to the composition and functionality of the immune microenvironment (Blood Cancer J 2017;7:e603, Arch Pathol Lab Med 2022 Apr 26 [Epub ahead of print], J Mol Recognit 2003;16:28, Oncologist 2022 Aug 10 [Epub ahead of print], Blood 1995;85:1, Histopathology 2022;81:55, Clin Adv Hematol Oncol 2014;12:1)
    • First monoclonal antibody was derived from Hodgkin lymphoma cell lines and identified in 1982 (Blood Cancer J 2017;7:e603)
    • Ligand is CD30L (or TNFSF8 or CD153) (Blood Cancer J 2017;7:e603, J Mol Recognit 2003;16:28)
      • Type II glycoprotein
      • Extracellular C terminal domain is similar to TNFα, TNFβ, FasL, CD40L and CD70
      • Can be detected in activated lymphocytes, histiocytes and granulocytes
    • Stimulation of CD30 transmembrane protein leads to receptor trimerization and transduction of the signal to TNFR associated factor (TRAF) proteins (TRAF1, TRAF2 and TRAF5) (Blood Cancer J 2017;7:e603, Histopathology 2022;81:55)
      • Signaling complex may activate both MAPK / ERK1 / ERK2 and NFκB pathways
        • Direct or indirect (via JunB) activation of antiapoptosis, prosurvival or activation effects
    • Viral infection may induce activation of CD30 in both B and T cells (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2022 Apr 26 [Epub ahead of print], Clin Adv Hematol Oncol 2014;12:1)
      • Cells that carry Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and human T cell leukemia / lymphoma virus type I (HTLV1)
    • Elevated expression in autoimmune diseases (Clin Adv Hematol Oncol 2014;12:1)
      • Rheumatoid arthritis, primary progressive multiple sclerosis, localized scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematous, atopic dermatitis, asthma and allergic rhinitis
    • Role in the development of graft versus host disease (GVHD) (Clin Adv Hematol Oncol 2014;12:1)
      • Inhibition is linked to decreased incidence of GVHD
    Diagrams / tables

    Contributed by Mario L. Marques-Piubelli, M.D. and Roberto N. Miranda, M.D.
    Activation of MAPK / ERK1 / ERK2 and NFκB pathways

    Activation of MAPK / ERK1 / ERK2 and NFκB pathways

    Clinical features
    • Targetable biomarker (Oncologist 2022 Aug 10 [Epub ahead of print])
      • High expression by neoplastic cells
      • Low expression by normal cells
      • Extracellular localization
    • CD30 antibody drug conjugate (ADC): brentuximab vedotin (BV) (Blood Cancer J 2017;7:e603, Oncologist 2022 Aug 10 [Epub ahead of print])
      • Composed of an IgG1 monoclonal antibody SGN 30 in combination with mono methyl auristatin E (MMAE) and a cathepsin linker
      • ADC binds to the CD30 positive cell
        • Receptor endocytosis and MMAE release
          • Leads to inhibition of tubulin formation and cell apoptosis
      • Indications of BV
        • Classic Hodgkin lymphoma (CHL) after autologous stem cell transplant or failure of at least 2 major multiagent chemotherapies
        • Systemic or primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma or CD30 positive mycosis fungoides after failure of at least 1 multiagent chemotherapy
        • Frontline treatment of peripheral T cell lymphomas that express CD30, in combination with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin and prednisone
        • There is no correlation between CD30 expression levels by immunohistochemistry and response to therapy
    • CD30 specific chimeric antigen receptor T (CAR T) cells (Blood Cancer J 2017;7:e603, J Clin Oncol 2020;38:3794, Sci Rep 2022;12:10488, Front Immunol 2022;13:858021)
      • 3 generations of anti-CD30 CAR T cells
      • Phase I / II studies in relapsed / refractory CHL
      • Association with anti-PD1 regimen can improve the efficacy of CD30 CAR T therapy
    Interpretation
    • Typically expressed in cytoplasmic / membrane compartments (Histopathology 2022;81:55)
      • May have weak, moderate or strong intensity
      • Golgi pattern can also be found isolated or in association with cytoplasmic / membrane staining
        • Rare
      • Nuclear staining is not acceptable
      • May have a membrane enhancement in reactive mesothelial cells
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    • Expression of CD30 is associated with outcomes in lymphomas in which there is a heterogeneous expression
      • Decreased hazard of death in transformed mycosis fungoides (Am J Clin Pathol 2021;156:350)
      • Poor overall and progression free survival in extranodal NK / T cell lymphoma cases with expression of CD30 in 50% or more of the neoplastic cells (Oncol Lett 2017;13:1211, BMC Cancer 2014;14:890)
        • Expression of CD30 is correlated with presence of B symptoms and elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase
      • Better outcomes in cases of diffuse large B cell lymphoma treated with rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisone (R-CHOP) (Hum Pathol 2017;60:160)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Roberto N. Miranda, M.D.
    ALK+ anaplastic large cell lymphoma in lymph node ALK+ anaplastic large cell lymphoma in lymph node

    ALK+ anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL) in lymph node

    Primary cutaneous ALCL Primary cutaneous ALCL

    Primary cutaneous ALCL

    Breast implant associated ALCL Breast implant associated ALCL

    Breast implant associated ALCL


    Lymphomatoid papulosis type C Lymphomatoid papulosis type C

    Lymphomatoid papulosis type C

    Peripheral T cell lymphoma, NOS, in colon Peripheral T cell lymphoma, NOS, in colon

    Peripheral T cell lymphoma, NOS, in colon

    Primary mediastinal large B cell lymphoma Primary mediastinal large B cell lymphoma

    Primary mediastinal large B cell lymphoma


    Mediastinal gray zone lymphoma Mediastinal gray zone lymphoma

    Mediastinal gray zone lymphoma

    Nodular sclerosis classic Hodgkin lymphoma, syncytial variant Nodular sclerosis classic Hodgkin lymphoma, syncytial variant

    Nodular sclerosis classic Hodgkin lymphoma, syncytial variant

    Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease

    Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease


    Dermatopathic lymphadenopathy Dermatopathic lymphadenopathy

    Dermatopathic lymphadenopathy

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Molecular / cytogenetics description
    • Chromosomal aberrations of the short arm of chromosome 1 are described in CHL, which could be related to the CD30 expression in this entity (Blood 1995;85:1)
    Sample pathology report
    • Right breast capsule, complete capsulectomy:
      • Fibrous breast capsule with mild chronic inflammation
      • No morphologic or immunophenotypic support for lymphoma
      • Histologic sections of the right breast capsule show a fibrinous breast capsule with scattered small and mature lymphocytes. Synovium-like lining formation and silicone particles are occasionally seen. There are rare foci of breast glandular epithelium on the outer surface of the specimen.
      • Immunohistochemical stains are performed and the cells are negative for CD30, while CD3 and CD20 highlight small and mature T and B lymphocytes, respectively.
    • Left breast capsule, complete capsulectomy:
      • Breast implant associated anaplastic large cell lymphoma (see comment)
      • Tumor is confined to the inner surface of the peri-implant capsule (pathologic stage T1) and margins are negative
      • Comment: According to clinical notes, the patient is a 52 year old woman with a history of bilateral breast implant placement 9 years ago due to aesthetic reasons. She noticed swelling of the left breast 10 months ago and it was initially attributed to capsular contracture and spontaneously resolved; however, 1 month ago, the swelling recurred with an ipsilateral accompanying effusion, which was aspirated. The cytologic and immunophenotypic examination showed neoplastic cells consistent with anaplastic large cell lymphoma and a bilateral complete capsulectomy was recommended.
      • Histologic sections of the left breast capsule show a thick and fibrinous breast capsule with rare, large and atypical lymphocytes with hyperchromatic and irregular surface in the luminal side of the capsule. Associated with the atypical lymphocytes, there is a dense lymphocytic infiltrate composed predominantly of small and mature lymphocytes.
      • Scrapings from the left breast implant surface show a high number of atypical cells with same cytological features of the capsule. Karyorrhectic debris is also present within the implant scrapings.
      • Touch preparation slides performed on the left breast capsule show rare large cells with irregular, multilobated nuclei and moderate cytoplasm.
      • Immunohistochemical stains are performed. The neoplastic cells are positive for CD2, CD5, CD8 and CD30 and are negative for CD3, CD4, CD7, CD10, CD56, TCR alpha beta and TCR gamma delta. Epstein-Barr virus encoding region (EBER) in situ hybridization is negative.
      • In summary, the clinicopathological features are diagnostic of breast implant associated anaplastic large cell lymphoma.
    Board review style question #1

    Which of the following is true about CD30 expression?

    1. CD30 belongs to tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily
    2. High CD30 expression is required in lymphoma cells to predict better response to anti-CD30 therapy (brentuximab vedotin)
    3. It is a protein with exclusive extracellular domain
    4. Naïve normal B and T cells can express CD30
    5. There is an inconsistent correlation between the immunohistochemical expression of CD30 and mRNA levels
    Board review style answer #1
    A. CD30 belongs to tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily. CD30 is a transmembrane glycoprotein, which belongs to tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily. CD30, also known as BerH2, Ki1 or TNFRSF8, is a transmembrane glycoprotein receptor that belongs to the tumor necrosis factor receptor (TNFR) and was first identified in Hodgkin lymphoma cell lines but also expressed in normal activated B and T cells. This protein has an extracellular transmembrane and intracellular domains and the similarity of CD30 and other proteins of TNFR family is restricted only to the extracellular domain. Immunohistochemical expression of CD30 has a high concordance with mRNA levels. Interestingly, patients with any number of positive CD30+ cells in lymphoma cases can benefit from therapy with brentuximab vedotin, not only those cases that show all tumor cells positive for CD30.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD30
    Board review style question #2

    Which of the following neoplasms is typically positive for CD30?

    1. Classic Hodgkin lymphoma
    2. Hepatosplenic T cell lymphoma
    3. High grade follicular lymphoma
    4. Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
    5. Testicular choriocarcinoma
    Board review style answer #2
    A. Classic Hodgkin lymphoma and anaplastic large cell lymphoma are typically positive for CD30, while nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma, follicular lymphoma and hepatosplenic T cell lymphoma are negative for CD30. Testicular embryonal but not choriocarcinoma is usually positive for CD30.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD30

    CD30-39
    CD30
    CD31
    CD32
    CD33
    CD34
    CD35
    CD36
    • Scavenger receptor with numerous physiologic functions
    • Also known as platelet GPIV or GPIIIb, fatty acid translocase (FAT)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Numerous potential physiologic functions (see Clinical Features below)
      • Serves as a scavenger receptor for oxidized phospholipids, apoptotic cells and certain microbial pathogens (Trans Am Clin Climatol Assoc 2010;121:206)
      • Receptor for thrombospondin, collagen, oxidized LDL
      • Gives rise to Naka antigen
    • Clinical features:
      • Associated with platelet disorders:
        • Acts as cell adhesion molecule in platelet adhesion and aggregation, platelet monocyte and platelet tumor cell interactions
        • CD36 isoantibody may cause:
        • CD36 deficiency causes platelet glycoprotein IV deficiency (OMIM: 608404 [Accessed 6 May 2021])
          • More common in Asians and Africans
          • Divided into 2 subgroups
          • Type I is characterized by platelets and monocytes / macrophages exhibiting complete CD36 deficiency
          • Type II lacks the surface expression of CD36 in platelets but expression in monocytes / macrophages is near normal
        • CD36 deficiency is associated with hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance and mild hypertension (Mol Cell Biochem 2007;299:19)
      • Associated with atherosclerosis:
        • Scavenger receptor for oxidized LDL and shed photoreceptor outer segments (Atherosclerosis 2006;184:15)
        • Also transports long chain fatty acids
        • Upregulated in familial combined hyperlipidemia (FASEB J 2005;19:2063)
        • Genetic variations in CD36 are associated with susceptibility to coronary heart disease type 7
        • CD36 may be taste receptor for fatty acids (J Clin Invest 2005;115:2965)
      • Associated with malaria:
        • Site of cytoadherence of Plasmodium falciparum infected erythrocytes to microvascular endothelial cells
        • CD36 deficiency is frequent in sub Saharan Africa and Asia and is associated surprisingly with susceptibility to severe cerebral malaria
      • Associated with Alzheimer’s disease:
        • May mediate binding to fibrillar beta amyloid
        • Present in microglia and endothelium in Alzheimer's disease
        • Low levels on peripheral blood leukocytes in Alzheimer patients (Neurobiol Aging 2007;28:515)
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Platelets, monocytes, macrophages, basophils, endothelial cells, early erythroid cells, megakaryocytes
      • Also adipose tissue, breast epithelial cells, cardiac muscle, Sertoli cells of testis (elderly men and those with hypospermatogenesis), skeletal muscle, splenic cells (Hum Pathol 2004;35:34)
    • Positive staining - disease:
    • Negative staining: AML M0 - M2 (usually), AML M3 (Am J Clin Path 1998;109:211)
    • References: OMIM: 173510 [Accessed 6 May 2021], Wikipedia: CD36 [Accessed 6 May 2021]
    CD37
    • Member of tetraspanin family (members have 4 hydrophobic domains, others are CD9, CD53, CD63, CD81, CD82 and CD151)
    • Regulates T cell proliferation (J Immunol 2004;172:2953)
    • Clinical features: inhibits IgA responses and regulates the anti-fungal immune response (PLoS Pathog 2009;5:e1000338)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: B cells, T cells (low), neutrophils (low), monocytes (low), macrophages, dendritic cells
    • Positive staining - disease: most B cell lymphomas, some T cell lymphomas (Leukemia 1994;8:1864)
    • Negative staining: NK cells, platelets, erythrocytes, plasma cells; plasma cell neoplasms, pre-B-ALL (or low)
    • Reference: OMIM: 151523 [Accessed 6 May 2021]
    CD38
    CD39
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD36 and macrophage phagocytosis

    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Case #81
    Missing Image

    CD35: follicular dendritic cell tumor



    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD35: liver mass

    Missing Image

    CD39: donor liver


    CD31
    Definition / general
    • Cell adhesion molecule required for leukocyte transendothelial migration under most inflammatory conditions
    • Most sensitive and specific endothelial marker in paraffin sections
    Terminology
    • Also known as platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule (PECAM1, OMIM 173445), PECA1, GPIIA, endoCAM, CD31 / EndoCAM (Entrez Gene: platelet / endothelial cell adhesion molecule)
    Pathophysiology
    • Member of immunoglobulin superfamily
    • Ligands are CD38 and vitronectin receptor (αvβ3 integrin, CD51 / CD61) (Cancer 2003;97:1914, J Cell Biol 1995;130:451)
    • Cell adhesion molecule that is found on the surface of platelets, monocytes, neutrophils and some types of T cells
    • Major constituent of endothelial intercellular junction
    • Plays a key role in leukocyte trafficking across endothelium / transendothelial migration (Blood 2003;101:2816) and integrin activation
    • Also important for angiogenesis and removal of aged neutrophils from body
    • May mediate signal-transduction pathway regulating capacitation in spermatozoa (J Cell Sci 2005;118:4865)
    • May act as a minor histocompatibility antigen in HLA identical stem cell transplantation (Bone Marrow Transplant 2005;36:151)
    Clinical features
    • CD31+ T cells (angiogenic T cells) have vasculoprotective and neovasculogenic qualities; undergo numerical and functional impairments with advancing age (J Appl Physiol 2010;109:1756)
    • CD31+ Annexin V+ circulating microparticles are risk factor for cardiovascular disease (Eur Heart J 2011;32:2034)
    Interpretation
    • Membranous (not cytoplasmic) immunostain; endothelium is a positive internal control
    • Potential pitfall: don't confuse CD31+ macrophages (granular, membranous expression) with a vascular tumor (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1167)
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Cases #107, 187, 77
    Missing Image Missing Image

    Retiform hemangioendothelioma

    Missing Image

    Kidney, glomus tumor

    Missing Image

    Epithelioid
    hemangioendothelioma



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Normal structure:
    Missing Image

    Glomeruli (fig A)

    Missing Image

    Alveoli (fig A)

    Missing Image

    Spleen (fig A)

    Missing Image

    Liver (fig A)

    Missing Image

    Lymph nodes (fig A)

    Missing Image

    Skin (fig A)



    Benign vascular tumors / processes:
    Missing Image

    Skin - diffuse dermal angiomatosis

    Missing Image

    Skin - epithelioid hemangioma


    Malignant vascular tumors:
    Missing Image

    Kaposi sarcoma

    Missing Image

    Paratesticular



    Lymphovascular invasion:
    Missing Image

    Breast

    Missing Image

    Colorectal carcinoma

    Missing Image

    Uterus, endometrial carcinoma
    stage I

    Missing Image

    Uterine leiomyosarcoma

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining

    CD33
    Definition / general
    • Classic myeloid antigen (also CD13)
    Pathophysiology
    • Glycosylated transmembrane protein of sialic acid binding immunoglobulin-like lactic (siglec) family
    • May mediate cell to cell adhesion; acts as receptor that inhibits the proliferation of normal and leukemic myeloid cells
    Clinical features
    Uses by pathologists
    • Distinguish myeloid (CD33+) and lymphoid leukemias (CD33-)
    • Identify monocytes by flow cytometry
    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Pluripotent stem cells, B cells
    • Most B and T cell lymphomas, blastic NK lymphoma (usually)
    • Not expressed outside hematopoietic system
    Additional references

    CD34
    Definition / general
    • 110kDa glycosylated transmembrane protein
    • Marker of vascular endothelial cells
    • Sensitive but not specific marker for neoangiogenesis
    • May mediate attachment of hematopoietic stem cells to bone marrow extracellular matrix or directly to stromal cells, although specific function is unknown
    Essential features
    • Good marker for neoangiogenesis
    • Helpful to distinguish liver lesions (focal nodular hyperplasia [CD34-] versus hepatocellular carcinoma [CD34+ in sinusoidal spaces])
    • Screening marker to differentiate between soft tissue neoplasms
    • Marker for hematopoietic progenitor cells - blasts
    Terminology
    • Hematopoietic progenitor cell antigen CD34
    • CD34+ stromal cells are called dendritic interstitial cells
    Pathophysiology
    • Intercellular adhesion protein and cell surface glycoprotein; ligand is CD62L (L selectin)
    • May mediate attachment of hematopoietic stem cells to bone marrow extracellular matrix or directly to stromal cells, although specific function is unknown
    • CD34 staining defines adult hematopoietic stem cells but CD34+ cells can also differentiate into neural cells (Exp Neurol 2006;197:399)
    Interpretation
    • Membranous stain
    • Endothelium acts as a positive internal control
    • Staining represents presence of protein, not cross reactivity, despite wide range of tissues that are CD34+ (Am J Pathol 2000;156:21)
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Membranous
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Wiebke Solass, M.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Cases #126 and #130

    GIST in cytological block material

    Solitary fibrous tumor

    Spindle cell lipoma


    Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

    Prominent vascular network

    Capillary network

    Missing Image

    Pre-B ALL, kidney

    Missing Image

    Myeloid sarcoma, bone

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Left thoracic tumor, resection:
      • Spindle cell lipoma (maximum 11.5 cm) (see comment)
      • MDM2 FISH: negative (no gene amplification)
      • Comment: In combination with the additional molecular examinations, the findings fit primarily with a spindle cell lipoma (MDM2 negative and CD34 positive). There is no evidence for liposarcoma / atypical lipomatous tumor and the criteria for the diagnosis of an atypical spindle cell lipomatous tumor are not fulfilled.
    Board review style question #1


    If positive, which marker can support the diagnosis of a gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)?

    1. CD34
    2. Desmin
    3. EMA
    4. S100
    5. SMA
    Board review style answer #1
    A. CD34. Under the given answers CD34 is the distinguishing marker for soft tissue neoplasms and in the majority of GIST positive. Other markers supporting the diagnosis of GIST are DOG1 and c-KIT (CD117). Answers B and E are incorrect because desmin and SMA are usually negative in GIST but positive in leiomyoma. Answer D is incorrect because S100 is a strong marker for neuronal differentiation and should be negative in GIST (Curr Opin Gastroenterol 2019;35:555). Answer C is incorrect because EMA is highly expressed in carcinomas and not in GIST.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD34

    CD38
    Definition / general
    • Marker of cellular activation expressed by plasma cells, T cells, NK cells and other hematopoietic cell types during various stages of maturation
    Essential features
    • Marker of activation that is present on many hematopoietic cells, especially plasma cells
    • Used clinically as a prognostic marker in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) as evaluated by flow cytometry
    • CD38 expression in lymphoid neoplasms is not specific for any discrete disease entity
    • Can be aberrantly expressed in carcinoma and melanoma
    • Absence of CD38 (in conjunction with CD34 positivity) is used as a marker for bone marrow hematopoietic stem cells
    Terminology
    Pathophysiology
    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • CD38 expression is considered positive when the cell membrane shows strong and diffuse staining; the cytoplasm and nucleus should not stain with CD38 (Blood 2008;111:5173)
    • Few studies have reported on the use and interpretation of anti-CD38 antibodies in tissue sections for diagnostic purposes; interpretation is difficult due to the prevalence of CD38 in many cell types and the necessity for quantitative assessment more amenable to flow cytometric studies (Am J Surg Pathol 2006;30:585)
    Uses by pathologists
    • Flow cytometry is the primary use of anti-CD38 antibodies in the pathology laboratory
    • There is considerable confusion in the literature regarding CD38 and the unrelated antibody VS38 which targets the p63 antigen and is also used for detection of plasma cells in tissue sections and flow cytometry (Blood Cancer J 2018;8:117)
    Prognostic factors
    • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia with CD38 expression is associated with a more aggressive clinical course and shorter overall survival (J Clin Pathol 2002;55:180, Br J Haematol 2003;120:1017)
    • Hairy cell leukemia with CD38 expression is associated with a more aggressive clinical course (Cancer Res 2015;75:3902)
    • Acute myeloid leukemia with CD38 expression was shown to be associated with a favorable prognosis and high numbers of immature CD34+ / CD38- blasts in myeloid leukemia are associated with unfavorable prognosis (Leuk Res 2000;24:153, Leukemia 2019;33:1102)
    • CD38 expression on multiple myeloma cells has been correlated to anti-CD38 treatment response (Blood 2016;128:959)
      • In the future, CD38 expression in tissue sections could be used to monitor anti-CD38 therapy with (bispecific) antibodies for early detection of treatment resistance (loss of CD38 expression)
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Frido Bruehl, M.D.
    Plasmacytoma

    Plasmacytoma

    Plasmacytoma, CD38

    Plasmacytoma, CD38

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Absence of CD38 expression does not reliably exclude a given pathologic diagnosis based on currently available data
    • CD38 surface expression may be reduced on multiple myeloma / plasma cells due to CD38 internalization induced by treatment with anti-CD38 antibodies (e.g., daratumumab) (Oncoimmunology 2018;7:e1486948)
    • CD38 has been used in conjunction with CD117 in fluorescence activated cell sorting of mast cells from bone marrow samples (CD117 positive and CD38 negative cells) (Am J Pathol 1996;149:1493)
    • CD4+ CD26- T cells in patients with a diagnosis of Sézary syndrome are typically negative for CD38 (Dis Markers 2022;2022:3424413)
    Flow cytometry images

    Contributed by Frido Bruehl, M.D.
    CD38 positive CLL

    CD38 positive CLL

    CD38 negative CLL

    CD38 negative CLL

    Plasma cell neoplasm, CD38 versus CD45

    Plasma cell neoplasm, CD38 versus CD45

    Plasma cell neoplasm, CD38 versus CD138

    Plasma cell neoplasm, CD38 versus CD138

    Plasma cell neoplasm, CD38 versus CD19

    Plasma cell neoplasm, CD38 versus CD19

    Sample pathology report
    • Bone lesion, needle core biopsy:
      • Monotypic kappa expressing plasma cell neoplasm, consistent with plasmacytoma (see comment)
      • Comment: The needle core biopsy demonstrates a dense infiltration by a clonal plasma cell population with kappa light chain restriction. The neoplastic plasma cells are positive for CD38, CD138 and CD79a. Lambda light chains, CD20 and CD43 are not expressed. There are only scattered CD3 positive T cells. There is no amyloid deposition. In summary, the bone lesion represents a plasmacytoma; clinical, serological and imaging correlation is required.
    Board review style question #1

    Which statement about CD38 is correct?

    1. CD38 is typically downregulated in neoplastic plasma cells
    2. CD38 is brightly expressed on hematogones
    3. CD38 expression is a specific marker for hairy cell leukemia
    4. In chronic lymphocytic leukemia / small lymphocytic lymphoma, CD38 expression is considered a favorable prognosis
    Board review style answer #1
    B. CD38 is brightly expressed on hematogones. Answer A is incorrect because plasma cells typically downregulate CD38 only after daratumumab therapy. Answer C is incorrect because CD38 expression in hematolymphoid cells is nonspecific but is typically brightly expressed by hematogones. Answer D is incorrect because in chronic lymphocytic leukemia, CD38 expression is a poor prognostic indicator.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD38

    CD4
    Definition / general
    • Marker of T helper cells, important in T cell activation and receptor for HIV (Wikipedia, OMIM #186940)
    • Also called OKT4
    • At #12p13.31
    Pathophysiology
    • Nonpolymorphous glycoprotein belonging to immunoglobulin superfamily (Cell 1985;42:93)
    • Expressed on surface of T helper cells; serves as coreceptor in MHC class II-restricted antigen induced T cell activation
    • CD4+ CD25+ FOXP3+ regulatory T cells maintain peripheral tolerance and prevent autoimmunity (Curr Top Microbiol Immunol 2005;293:115), and may be prognostic factor in malignancies (Mod Pathol 2013;26:448, J Clin Invest 2013;123:2873)
    • Serves as HIV receptor on T cells, macrophages and brain
      • Downregulated by HIV proteins during AIDS progression (J Virol 2003;77:11536, J Biol Chem 2003;278:33912)
      • Normally CD4 > CD8; in HIV patients, CD4 / CD8 ratio is inverted (i.e. CD4 < CD8) and patients are at risk for opportunistic infections, particularly if CD4 < 200
    • Homologous to CD223
    • Interpretation: staining is usually cytoplasmic and has membrane accentuation
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD4+ T cell and antigen presenting cell

    Missing Image

    CD4 acting as HIV receptor

    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CNS: acute demyelinating disease (fig 12)

    Missing Image

    Joint: rheumatoid arthritis (fig B)

    Missing Image

    Lymph node: atypical paracortical hyperplasia (fig B)

    Missing Image

    Salivary gland: Sjögren syndrome (fig B)


    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    Small bowel: T cell lymphoma (left: fig D; middle: fig D); right - stomach (fig C)

    Missing Image

    Soft tissue: inflammatory myopathy

    Flow cytometry images

    Case #36

    Soft tissue mass: anaplastic large cell lymphoma

    Positive staining - normal
    • T helper cells, thymocytes (80 - 90%), granulocytes, macrophages, Langerhans cells and dendritic cells
    • Expressed in specific regions of brain
    Positive staining - disease
    • Many post-thymic T cell leukemia / lymphomas and T cell lymphoproliferative disorders
    • Dendritic / histiocytic neoplasms
      • Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm
      • Granulomatous histiocytic lymphoma / sarcoma
    • Other hematologic / inflammatory lesions
    Negative staining

    CD40-49
    CD40
    • Costimulatory protein found on antigen presenting cells, required for their activation
    • Also called TNF receptor superfamily member 5; ligand is CD40L (CD154)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Plays a central role in regulating cell mediated immunity and antibody mediated immunity
      • Also mediates T cell dependent immunoglobulin class switching, memory cell development and germinal center formation
    • Clinical features:
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Prognostic factors:
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • B cells, dendritic cells, macrophages, mast cells, monocytes, platelets
      • Also astrocytes, endothelial cells, fibroblasts, keratinocytes, Langerhans cells (in oral mucosa), microglia, nevus cells, pancreatic islet cells, prostatic acini, other epithelial cells (Diabetologia 2005;48:268)
    • Positive staining - disease:
    • Negative staining: plasma cells, Gaucher cells, prostatic adenocarcinoma (Oncol Rep 2004;12:679)
    • Reference: OMIM: 109535 [Accessed 6 May 2021]
    CD41
    • Platelet glycoprotein IIb, important for platelet aggregation
    • Also called platelet glycoprotein IIb, GPIIb, platelet fibrinogen receptor alpha subunit
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Gene encodes integrin alpha chain 2b, which undergoes post-translational cleavage to yield disulfide linked light and heavy chains which join with integrin beta3 (CD61) to form a fibronectin receptor expressed in platelets, which is crucial for platelet aggregation through binding of soluble fibrinogen
      • GP IIb / IIIa is also a receptor for fibrinogen, plasminogen, prothrombin, thrombosponin, vitronectin and von Willebrand factor
      • Recognizes the sequence R-G-D in a wide array of ligands
      • Downregulated by factor XIII and calpain (J Biol Chem 2004;279:30697)
    • Clinical features: mutations cause Glanzmann thrombasthenia, with a tendency to bleed for prolonged periods following injury (OMIM: 273800 [Accessed 6 May 2021])
    • Uses by pathologists:
      • Identify platelets or megakaryocytes (marker is specific)
      • Isolate platelets (Cytometry A 2005;65:84)
      • Confirm diagnosis of AML M7
      • Diagnose Glanzmann thrombasthenia
    • Positive staining - normal:
    • Positive staining - disease: AML M7, blasts in transient myeloproliferative disorder (Am J Clin Pathol 2001;116:204)
    • Negative staining: AML M0 to M6
    • References: OMIM: 607759 [Accessed 6 May 2021], J Clin Invest 2005;115:3363, Arterioscler Thromb Vasc Biol 2003;23:945
    CD42a
    • CD42a - d complex is receptor for von Willebrand factor and thrombin
    • Also called platelet glycoprotein GPIX, GP9
    • Absence of CD42 complex (mutations in CD42a - c) causes Bernard-Soulier syndrome (giant platelet syndrome), a bleeding disorder with thrombocytopenia, prolonged bleeding time and giant platelets (OMIM: 231200 [Accessed 6 May 2021])
    • Pathophysiology:
      • CD42a - d complex is receptor for von Willebrand factor and thrombin
      • This complex mediates adhesion of platelets to subendothelial matrices that are exposed in damaged endothelium and amplifies platelet response to thrombin
      • GP-IX (CD42a) is a small membrane protein glycoprotein that forms a noncovalent complex with GP-Ib (CD42b)
      • Actual binding site of vWF and thrombin is on CD42b
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: platelets and megakaryocytes
    • Negative staining: red blood cells, T cells
    • Reference: OMIM: 173515 [Accessed 6 May 2021]
    CD42b
    • CD42a - d complex is receptor for von Willebrand factor and thrombin
    • Also called platelet GPIb alpha, glycoprotein Ib alpha
    • Mutations are associated with Bernard-Soulier syndrome (giant platelet syndrome), a bleeding disorder with thrombocytopenia, prolonged bleeding time and giant platelets (OMIM: 231200 [Accessed 6 May 2021], Int J Hematol 2002;76:319)
    • CD42b mutations also cause platelet type von Willebrand disease, which is known as pseudo von Willebrand disease (OMIM: 177820 [Accessed 6 May 2021])
    • Reduced levels are associated with bleeding disorders in AML patients (Saudi Med J 2005;26:1095)
    • Aspirin induces shedding of CD42d and CD42b from platelets (J Biol Chem 2005;280:39716)
    • Various snake venoms induce platelet aggregation via CD42b, including:
    • CD42b physiology is part of bacterial virulence factors:
      • Streptococcus sanguis, an oral bacteria causing infective endocarditis, adheres to platelets and platelet fibrin vegetations via CD42b (Br J Haematol 2005;129:101)
      • Some strains of H. pylori induce platelet activation mediated by H. pylori bound vWF interacting with CD42b, which may promote peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori associated cardiovascular disease (Gastroenterology 2003;124:1846)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • CD42a - d complex (also called glycoprotein Ib-IX-V receptor) is the surface platelet receptor for von Willebrand factor on endothelium (particularly CD42b)
      • Endothelial damage exposes vWF, which binds to platelets very quickly despite high shear pressures; this leads to platelet activation, then a change in the platelet GpIIb-IIIa receptor, which allows binding to surface bound fibrinogen and free fibrinogen; this leads to platelet crosslinking and aggregation
      • Platelet activation apparently involves disruption of the macromolecular complex of GP-Ib with the platelet glycoprotein IX (GP-IX) and dissociation of GP-Ib from the actin binding protein
      • GPIb alpha (CD42b) and GPIb beta (CD42c) form main part of VWF receptor
      • CD42b also binds to thrombospondin-1, a glycoprotein in arteriosclerotic plaques, causing thrombus formation independent of von Willebrand factor (FASEB J 2003;17:1490)
      • Platelet receptors are important in understanding thrombus formation (Haematologica 2009;94:700)
    • Case reports: Bernard-Soulier disease variant (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2005;129:e214)
    • Uses by pathologists: marker of megakaryocytes and platelets; diagnosis of AML M7; distinguish AML M7 (CD42b positive) from acute myelosis with myelofibrosis (usually CD42b negative) (Mod Pathol 2005;18:603)
    • Positive staining - normal: platelets, megakaryocytes and megakaryoblasts
    • Positive staining - disease: blasts in transient myeloproliferative disorder
    • Reference: OMIM: 606672 [Accessed 6 May 2021]
    CD42c
    • CD42a - d complex is receptor for von Willebrand factor and thrombin
    • Also called platelet GPIb beta, glycoprotein Ib beta
    • Mutations are associated with Bernard-Soulier syndrome (giant platelet syndrome), a bleeding disorder with thrombocytopenia, prolonged bleeding time and giant platelets (OMIM: 231200 [Accessed 6 May 2021], Int J Hematol 2002;76:319)
    • Reduced levels are associated with bleeding disorders in AML patients (Saudi Med J 2005;26:1095)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • CD42a - d complex is receptor for von Willebrand factor and thrombin
      • GPIb alpha (CD42b) and GPIb beta (CD42c) form main part of VWF receptor
      • CD42c also amplifies the platelet response to thrombin during platelet activation where thrombin is involved
      • Platelet activation apparently involves disruption of the macromolecular complex of GP-Ib with the platelet glycoprotein IX (GP-IX) and dissociation of GP-Ib from the actin binding protein
    • Case reports: mutation in Bernard-Soulier syndrome patient (J Thromb Haemost 2006;4:217)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: platelets and megakaryocytes; also endothelium, heart and brain (J Clin Invest 1994;93:2417)
    • References: OMIM: 138720 [Accessed 6 May 2021], Thromb Haemost 2001;86:1238
    CD42d
    • CD42a - d complex is receptor for von Willebrand factor and thrombin
    • Also called platelet GP V, GP5
    • Aspirin induces shedding of CD42d and CD42b from platelets (J Biol Chem 2005;280:39716)
    • CD42d is the predominant target antigen in gold-induced autoimmune thrombocytopenia (Blood 2002;100:344)
    • Deficiency does not appear to cause Bernard-Soulier syndrome (Blood 1999;94:4112)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Part of CD42a - d complex
      • May activate residual platelets in thrombocytopenia regardless of its origin as immune thrombocytopenic purpura or thrombocytopenia of aplastic pancytopenia (J Natl Med Assoc 2008;100:86)
      • Also involved in binding of thrombin (Blood 1997;89:4355)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: platelets and megakaryocytes
    • Reference: OMIM: 173511 [Accessed 6 May 2021]
    CD43
    CD44 and CD44R
    CD45 (LCA)
    CD45RA
    CD45RB
    • CD45 isoform generated by alternative mRNA splicing of exon 5, leading to change in the extracellular domain of the molecule (J Exp Med 1987;166:1548)
    • Influx of CD4+, CD45RB high T cells is present in inflammatory bowel disease; may be important in pathogenesis as they produce more proinflammatory cytokines than CD4+ CD45RB low T cells (J Leukoc Biol 2004;75:1010)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • CD45 is a high molecular weight transmembrane protein with intrinsic tyrosine phosphatase activity
      • CD45 is heavily glycosylated and expressed at high levels on nucleated hematopoietic cells
      • CD45 isoforms, including CD45RB, are generated by alternative mRNA splicing of exons 4 (CD45RA), 5 (CD45RB) and 6 (CD45RC), leading to changes in the extracellular domain of the molecule
      • Down regulated in memory cells
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: similar staining as CD45, except not expressed in Langerhans cells and some T cells; B cells, most T cells, monocytes, macrophages and granulocytes (weak)
    • Positive staining - disease: most leukemias and lymphomas
    • Negative staining: some T cells; Langerhans cells, platelets; plasma cell neoplasms, Reed-Sternberg cells, some lymphoblastic lymphomas and some anaplastic large cell lymphomas
    CD45RC
    • CD45 isoform generated by alternative mRNA splicing of exon 6, leading to change in the extracellular domain of the molecule (J Exp Med 1987;166:1548)
    • Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type C; PTPRC gene
    • CD45RC+ CD4+ cells and CD45RC- CD4+ T cells have different cytokine profiles (Th1-like and Th2-like respectively)
    • CD45RC expression divides human T cells into functionally distinct subsets that are imbalanced in antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) associated vasculitis (AAV); this may be a preexisting immune abnormality involved in the etiology of AAV (PLoS One 2009;4:e5287)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • CD45 is a high molecular weight transmembrane protein with intrinsic tyrosine phosphatase activity
      • CD45 is heavily glycosylated and expressed at high levels on nucleated hematopoietic cells
      • CD45 isoforms, including CD45RC, are generated by alternative mRNA splicing of exons 4 (CD45RA), 5 (CD45RB) and 6 (CD45RC), leading to changes in the extracellular domain of the molecule
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Thymocytes, monocytes and dendritic cells
      • High levels: B cells, NK and CD4+ T cells
      • Intermediate levels: CD8+ T cells
    • Negative staining: myeloid cells
    • Reference: OMIM: 151460 [Accessed 7 May 2021]
    CD45RO
    CD46
    • Antigen which helps downregulate the immune system
    • Also called membrane cofactor protein (MCP), trophoblast leukocyte common antigen
    • Pathophysiology:
    CD47
    CD47R
    • May not be a current CD marker; information is based on older sources
    • Designation for CDw149 which was deleted at the 7th HLDA Workshop (Tissue Antigens 2000;56:258)
    • Poorly characterized, with little information available
    • Also called Rh related antigen, MEM133
    • Similar distribution as CD47 but dimmer
    • Recognizes a clustered subset of CD47 (Tissue Antigens 2000;56:258)
    • Positive staining: lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils (weak), eosinophils (weak) and platelets (weak)
    • Negative staining: erythrocytes
    CD48
    • Activation associated cell surface glycoprotein active in lymphocytes
    • Also called B lymphocyte activation marker blast 1
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Glycosyl phosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchored surface molecule that mediates T cell activation by binding to CD2 (J Immunol 2009;182:7672)
      • Induces numerous effects in B and T lymphocytes, natural killer cells, mast cells and eosinophils, partly based on its interaction with 2B4 / CD244 (Int J Biochem Cell Biol 2011;43:25)
      • Regulates NK cell effector function (Blood 2006;107:3181)
    • Clinical features: mast cell response to M. tuberculosis is mediated by CD48 (J Immunol 2003;170:5590)
    • No significant clinical uses for pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: lymphocytes, monocytes, granulocytes (weak)
    • Negative staining: platelets, fibroblasts, epithelium, endothelium; usually dendritic cells (J Immunol 2005;175:3690)
    • Reference: OMIM: 109530 [Accessed 6 May 2021]
    CD49
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD42a - d complex

    Missing Image

    CD42b: interactions

    Missing Image

    CD45RB expression changes during germinal center reaction

    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD40: soft tissue sarcomas

    CD45RO: multiple myeloma plasma cell staining


    CD43
    Definition / general
    • Pan T cell marker important in T cell and neutrophil adhesion to endothelium
    Terminology
    • Also called leukosialin, sialophorin
    Pathophysiology
    Clinical features
    • Has defective expression in T cells of males with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (MIM 301000)
    Uses by pathologists
    • Pan T cell marker
    • Diagnosis of myeloid (granulocytic) sarcoma (J Clin Pathol 2005;58:211)
    • Classify subtypes of T cell lymphomas and low grade B cell lymphomas
    • Differentiate pulmonary MALT lymphoma (CD20+ CD43+) from lymphoid hyperplasia (CD43 negative, Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:76)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Cases #140 and #127

    Leukemia cutis

    MALT lymphoma of stomach



    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Mantle cell lymphoma

    Missing Image

    Anaplastic large cell lymphoma

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Colonic epithelium, follicular lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, lymphoepithelioma-like thymic carcinoma, primary effusion lymphoma, splenic marginal zone lymphoma
    Additional references

    CD44
    Definition / general
    Essential features
    • Complex transmembrane adhesion glycoprotein
    • Surface marker of cancer stem cells
    • Plays a crucial role in cell adhesion, differentiation, migration and signaling (Exp Hematol Oncol 2020;9:36)
    • CD44 might represent a therapeutic target in various tumor types
    Terminology
    Pathophysiology
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CD44 molecule structure with ligands

    Clinical features
    • Might represent a therapeutic target in various tumor types, including ovarian cancer (Front Oncol 2020;10:589601)
    • High expression of CD44 is associated with recurrence and metastases in several cancer types, including gastric, colorectal and bladder cancer (Oncol Rep 2016;36:2852)
    • Treatment is based on suppression of CD44 expression by peptide mimetics, aptamers and natural compounds (J Hematol Oncol 2018;11:64)
    • CD44 deletion enhances the fibrogenic response, increases leukocyte infiltration and delays the accumulation of fibrillar collagen (Matrix Biol 2019;75-76:314)
    Interpretation
    • Membranous
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    • Increased expression is associated with invasiveness and increased chemotherapy resistance
    • Might represent a therapeutic target in various tumor types
    • CD44v high expression correlates to progression and poor outcome in various cancers, including non-Hodgkin lymphoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, breast, bone, ovarian, pancreatic, colorectal, bladder, gastric, head and neck squamous cell carcinomas, leukemias and lymphomas (Front Oncol 2020;10:589601)
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Positive cells should demonstrate a strong plasma membrane staining pattern
    • Cells that lack membranous staining or demonstrate only cytoplasmic staining are considered negative
    • Reference: PLoS One 2016;11:e0165253
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by John Yahya I. Elshimali, M.D. and Maria Tretiakova, M.D., Ph.D.
    Epithelium of fallopian tube

    Epithelium of fallopian tube

    Fallopian stromal cells

    Fallopian stromal cells

    CD44 CD44 CD44 CD44

    CD44 positive epithelial cells in fallopian tube


    CD44

    CD44 positive epithelial cells in fallopian tube

    CD44

    Positive CD44 expression in fallopian tube epithelium

    CD44 CD44 CD44

    Decidual and stromal cells in fallopian pregnancy positive for CD44


    Normal bladder mucosa

    Normal bladder mucosa

     CD44 - full thickness in normal bladder mucosa

    CD44 - full thickness in normal bladder mucosa

    Bladder CIS

    Bladder CIS

    CD44 - loss of CD44 expression

    CD44 - loss of CD44 expression

    Pagetoid CIS vs reactive inflammation

    Pagetoid CIS vs reactive inflammation

    CD44 - patchy loss of expression in pagetoid CIS

    CD44 - patchy loss of expression in pagetoid CIS

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Molecular / cytogenetics description
    Molecular / cytogenetics images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CD44 transmembrane receptor function

    Sample pathology report
    • Breast, right mastectomy:
      • Invasive triple negative breast carcinoma (see comment)
      • CD44 IHC (clone 156-3C11, Thermo Fisher Scientific)
      • Comment: CD44 is a marker for cancer stem cell and a biomarker for embryonic stem cells. Surgically resected specimen was fixed in 10% buffered formalin and embedded in paraffin. Positive cells were defined as those demonstrating a strong plasma membrane staining pattern. Cells that lacked membranous staining were considered negative. Positive rates were semiquantitatively assessed. The tumor was considered positive since more than 5% of cancer cells revealed a CD44 positive staining pattern on the cell membrane.
    CD44R
    Board review style question #1

    A CD44 immunostain is shown above. Which of the following statements regarding CD44 is correct?

    1. CD44 deletion enhances the fibrogenic response, increases the kinetics of leukocyte infiltration and delays the accumulation of FAP+ fibroblasts
    2. CD44 is encoded by 20 exons, CD44v is encoded by 10 constant exons
    3. CD44v9 is associated with increased free survival in metastatic invasive bladder cancer
    4. The main ligand for CD44 is collagen
    Board review style answer #1
    A. CD44 deletion enhances the fibrogenic response, increases the kinetics of leukocyte infiltration and delays the accumulation of FAP+ fibroblasts. The main ligand for CD44 is hyaluronic acid (HA). CD44 is encoded by 19 exons; CD44s is encoded by 10 constant exons. CD44v9 is associated with poor prognosis in metastatic invasive bladder cancer.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD44

    CD45 (LCA)
    Definition / general
    • Ubiquitous cell surface marker of nucleated hematopoietic cells involved in the regulation and activation of the immune system
    • Detectable by immunohistochemistry or flow cytometry
    Essential features
    • Receptor tyrosine phosphatase protein expressed on the cell surface of white blood cells and involved in B and T cell activation and signaling (Immunol Lett 2018;196:22)
    • Used by pathologists to highlight inflammatory cells or determine the hematopoietic nature of tumors of unknown origin with high specificity
    Terminology
    • Leukocyte common antigen (LCA) or Ly-5
    Pathophysiology
    • High molecular weight (180 - 220 kDa) transmembrane protein with intrinsic tyrosine phosphatase activity
    • Involved in regulating thymic selection and B and T cell antigen receptor mediated activation (Hum Pathol 2017;62:83)
    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Membranous / cytoplasmic staining
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Elena M. Fenu, M.D.
    Anaplastic large cell lymphoma Anaplastic large cell lymphoma

    Anaplastic large cell lymphoma

    Diffuse large B cell lymphoma Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

    Diffuse large B cell lymphoma


    Plasmablastic lymphoma Plasmablastic lymphoma

    Plasmablastic lymphoma

    Leukemia cutis Leukemia cutis

    Leukemia cutis

    Positive staining - normal
    • White blood cells, including granulocytes, lymphocytes, eosinophils, basophils (dim), monocytes, macrophages / histiocytes, mast cells and plasma cells; not including red blood cells and their precursors, megakaryocytes or platelets (Immunol Lett 2018;196:22)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Lymph node, right cervical excision:
      • Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (see comment)
      • Comment: There is total replacement of the nodal architecture by expansive vague nodules of small lymphocytes with sparse, relatively large tumor cells with multilobulated or round nucleus, thin nuclear membrane, finely granular chromatin and variable, small nucleoli (popcorn cells). The tumor cells are immunoreactive for CD45, CD20 and CD19 and negative for CD15 and CD30, which confirms the diagnosis.
    Board review style question #1


    CD45 expression is consistently seen in most hematopoietic neoplasms and it is considered a specific marker when investigating neoplasms of unknown primary origin; however, CD45 can be negative in a subset of hematopoietic neoplasms. Which of the following hematopoietic neoplasms is positive for CD45 in nearly all cases?

    1. Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia
    2. B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma (B-ALL)
    3. Classic Hodgkin lymphoma (CHL)
    4. Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL)
    5. Plasma cell neoplasm
    Board review style answer #1
    D. Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL). CD45 is positive in nearly all cases and it is an important marker together with other B cell markers (CD20, PAX5, CD19, CD79a, CD75, OCT2 and BOB1) in differentiating classic Hodgkin lymphoma (CHL) and NLPHL. Sometimes the background staining of the hematopoietic cells can make the interpretation of CD45 difficult; however, the absence of staining in back to back Reed-Sternberg / Hodgkin cells or consistent positive staining in lymphocyte predominant (LP) cells are helpful in the differentiation of these lesions. All the other hematopoietic neoplasms listed on the question can have negative expression of CD45.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD45

    CD45RA
    Definition / general
    Pathophysiology
    • CD45 isoforms [functionally similar proteins with similar but not identical amino acid sequence], including CD45A, are generated by alternative mRNA splicing of exons 4 (CD45RA), 5 (CD45RB) and 6 (CD45RC), leading to changes in the extracellular domain of the molecule (J Exp Med 1987;166:1548)
    • CD45RA+ T regulatory cells are converted to CD45RO+ T regulatory cells after activation (J Immunol 2010;184:4317)
    • High molecular weight transmembrane protein with intrinsic tyrosine phosphatase activity
    • Heavily glycosylated, and expressed at high levels on nucleated hematopoietic cells
    Uses by pathologists
    • Differentiate naive T cells (CD45RA+) from memory T cells (CD45RO+), but not in adult allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplant recipients (Bone Marrow Transplant 2003;32:609)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Intraepidermal T cells in fixed drug eruption lesions (fig d)

    Missing Image

    Papulonodular lesion show dermal, intraepithelial neoplastic lymphocytes

    Positive staining - normal
    • B cells, NK cells, naive / resting T cells (those not exposed to antigens), medullary thymocytes and plasmacytoid dendritic cells (Am J Pathol 2001;159:237)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Basophils, endothelial cells, Langerhans cells, memory T cells (usually), most T cell lymphomas and most plasma cell neoplasms

    CD47
    Definition / general
    • CD47 is a ubiquitously expressed marker of self ("don't eat me" signal) and functions as an antiphagocytic molecule on the cell surface by binding the inhibitory molecule SIRPα on immune cells (e.g. macrophages) (Science 2000;288:2051)
    Essential features
    • Expressed in most tissues and primarily acts as a marker of self 
    • Overexpressed on solid tumors and hematolymphoid malignancies to evade immune control
    • Limited diagnostic utility but may be used as a prognostic or predictive marker in the future
    Terminology
    Pathophysiology
    Diagrams / tables

    Contributed by Frido Bruehl, M.D.
    Proposed mechanism of action of CD47

    Proposed mechanism of action of CD47

    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Cell membrane staining
    • Cytoplasmic staining may also be observed but the significance of this finding is unclear
    Uses by pathologists
    • Cytological diagnosis of body cavity effusions: a 2 marker panel of CD47 (high expression) and BRCA1 associated protein 1 (BAP1; loss) can discriminate diffuse malignant mesothelioma from reactive pleural effusions with a sensitivity of 78% and a specificity of 100% (Oncoimmunology 2017;7:e1373235)
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Christian M. Schürch, M.D., Ph.D.
    Mesothelioma, cell block, CD47

    Mesothelioma, cell block, CD47

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Pleural fluid, thoracentesis:
      • Positive for malignant cells, favor mesothelioma (see comment)
      • Comment: The cytology slide shows numerous three dimensional cell clusters and atypical single cells. Immunostains for calretinin, CK5/6, D2-40 and CD47 are positive. Immunostains for Ber-EP4, TTF1 and BAP1 are negative. The combined morphological and immunohistochemical features are consistent with an atypical mesothelial proliferation, favor malignant mesothelioma. Correlations with the clinical and imaging findings, as well as the patient history are necessary. A pleural biopsy may be valuable to further classify the disease process.
    Board review style question #1

    Which statement about CD47, calreticulin and SIRPα is true?

    1. Calreticulin is the dominant antiphagocytic protein
    2. CD47 is an antiphagocytic molecule
    3. CD47 is a marker of activation
    4. CD47 is negative in mesothelioma
    5. CD47 is not expressed on red blood cells
    Board review style answer #1
    B. CD47 is antiphagocytic by binding SIRPα on effector immune cells. CD47 can be thought of as an innate immune checkpoint and marker of self. In contrast, calreticulin is prophagocytic and its effect is controlled by the expression of CD47. Both molecules are highly expressed in mesothelioma and other cancer types. CD47 was first discovered in erythrocytes.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD47

    CD49
    Table of Contents
    CD49a | CD49b | CD49c | CD49d | CD49e | CD49f
    CD49a

    Definition / general
    • Integrin alpha 1 chain, which combines with beta1 subunit (CD29) to form a receptor for collagen and laminin
    • Also called very late antigen (VLA) alpha 1 chain, integrin alpha 1 chain and ITGA1
    • Mesenchymal stem cells are selected from bone marrow by CD49+ with flow cytometry (Br J Haematol 2003;122:506, J Mol Histol 2007;38:449)
    • Reference: OMIM #192968

    Pathophysiology
    • Integrins are integral cell-surface proteins composed of an alpha chain and a beta chain; a given chain may combine with multiple partners resulting in different integrins
    • Very late activation proteins (VLA) are a family of integrins originally identified on activated human T cells, later on fibroblasts and platelets
    • CD49a combines with beta1 subunit (CD29) to form a receptor for collagen and laminin; this receptor may also be involved in cell-cell adhesion and play a role in inflammation and fibrosis
    • CD49a contributes to beta cell functions important for pancreatic islet morphogenesis and glucose homeostasis (J Biol Chem 2004;279:53762)

    Uses by pathologists
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists

    Positive staining - normal
    • Activated B and T cells, monocytes, fibroblasts, platelets, endothelial cells and smooth muscle cells
    CD49b

    Definition / general

    Pathophysiology
    • Receptor for laminin, collagen, fibronectin and E-cadherin
    • Responsible for platelet adhesion to subendothelial tissue; after endothelial damage, circulating platelets via platelet surface GP Ib-IX-V complex contact subendothelial vWF bound to collagen; this initial contact slows down the platelets, allowing platelet CD49b to bind to endothelial collagen; this stops the platelets and contributes to their activation and aggregation (Blood 2005;105:1986)
    • CD49b mediates disassembly of actin cytoskeleton stress fibers and focal adhesions, leading to block of endothelial cell migration and angiogenesis (J Cell Biol 2004;166:97)
    • May be a immunodominant minor histocompatibility antigen (Blood 1998;92:2169)

    Uses by pathologists
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists

    Positive staining - normal
    • Platelets, activated B & T cells, monocytes, megakaryocytes and NK cells (most)

    Videos

    Platelet adhesion and aggregation

    CD49c

    Definition / general
    • Major receptor for laminin; also a receptor for collagen, fibronectin and thrombospondin
    • Also called very late antigen (VLA) alpha 3 chain (VLA-3), ITGA3
    • Common integrin is alpha3beta1, which is CD49c and CD29
    • Has 2 isoforms produced by alternate splicing: alpha-3A and alpha-3B
    • Tumor cell alpha3beta1 binds to exposed basement membrane on pulmonary vessels to cause tumor cell arrest and early colony formation (J Cell Biol 2004;164:935)
    • May play a role in peritoneal dissemination of gastric carcinoma (Cancer Res 2004;64:6065)
    • May mediate invasion of melanoma cells (Clin Exp Metastasis 2002;19:127)
    • Reference: OMIM #605025

    Pathophysiology

    Uses by pathologists
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists

    Positive staining - normal

    Negative staining
    • Platelets
    CD49d

    Definition / general
    • Receptor for fibronectin, thrombospondin and VCAM1 / CD106
    • Also called very late antigen (VLA) alpha 4 chain (VLA4), ITGA4
    • Relevant to tumor progression and metastasis
    • Increased expression during relapse in multiple sclerosis (J Neuroimmunol 2005;166:189)
      • Treatment with alpha4 integrin antagonist natalizumab led to fewer inflammatory brain lesions and fewer relapses in patients with relapsing multiple sclerosis (N Engl J Med 2003;348:15)
      • Although it is also associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (Neurol Res 2006;28:299)
    • Reference: OMIM #192975

    Pathophysiology
    • Combines with CD29 to form alpha4 beta1 integrin
    • Has role in cell-cell interactions, cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
    • Integrins alpha4beta1 and alpha4beta7 are receptors for fibronectin
    • Integrin alpha4beta1 is also a receptor for VCAM1 / CD106, MAdCAM1 and thrombospondin
    • Avidity (binding strength) of cells expressing alpha4beta1 integrin can be rapidly changed by chemokines and chemoattractants
    • Integrin anchorage to cytoskeleton enhances the mechanical stability of its adhesive bonds under strain and promotes its ability to mediate leukocyte adhesion under physiological shear stress conditions (J Cell Biol 2005;171:1073)
    • Promotes (a) lymphocyte migration into tissue by strengthening lymphocyte adhesion to endothelial cells, (b) rolling of T cells in vascular lumen on VCAM-1 of endothelium, (c) homing of T cell subsets to Peyer's patches, (d) differentiation of hematopoietic precursor cells by adhesion to bone marrow stromal cells

    Uses by pathologists

    Positive staining - normal
    • Macrophages, T and B cells, eosinophils, basophils, NK cells, dendritic cells, Langerhans cells, myeloid cells, erythrocyte precursors and thymocytes
    • Also basal epidermal layer

    Positive staining - disease
    • Found in suprabasal skin during wound healing and psoriasis
    • Melanoma, ALL and AML

    Negative staining
    • Erythrocytes, platelets and neutrophils
    CD49e

    Definition / general
    • Fibronectin and fibrinogen receptor

    Terminology
    • Also called very late antigen (VLA) alpha 5 chain (VLA5), ITGA5, fibronectin receptor (FNRA)

    Physiology
    • Recognizes the sequence R-G-D in fibronectin and fibrinogen, mediating its adhesion function

    Clinical features

    Uses by pathologists
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists

    Immunofluorescence images

    Contributed by Vincent Achard, M.D., Ph.D.
    Peripheral blood monocytes and platelets (green is positive)

    Peripheral blood monocytes and platelets (green is positive)

    Negative control

    Negative control



    Positive staining - normal
    • T cells, early and activated B cells, platelets, monocytes, neutrophils

    Additional references
    CD49f

    Definition / general
    • Forms laminin and thrombospondin receptors

    Terminology
    • Also called very late antigen (VLA) alpha 6 chain (VLA6), ITGA6

    Physiology
    • Forms laminin receptor on platelets (with CD29 / alpha6beta1) and on epithelial cells (with CD104 / alpha6beta4); alpha6beta1 is also part of the thrombospondin receptor (J Biol Chem 2003;278:40679)
    • Important for formation of hemidesmosomes on stratified squamous and transitional epithelia

    Clinical features

    Uses by pathologists
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists

    Positive staining - normal
    • Epithelial cells, memory T cells, monocytes, platelets, megakaryocytes, thymocytes

    Additional references

    CD5
    Definition / general
    • Important in identification of T cells and most T cell lymphomas, some low grade B cell lymphomas, thymic carcinoma
    Pathophysiology
    • Belongs to ancient scavenger receptor superfamily; at 11q13; binds to CD72
    • CD5+ B cells, which may arise from B-1 cells (subset of B cells) produce "generalist antibodies" using germline (nonmutation) configuration of gene segments - polyreactive low affinity "natural" antibodies (usually IgM) to exogenous antigens (tetanus toxoid, lipopolysaccharide) as well as autoreactive antibodies (Immunol Lett 1993;38:159)
    • First line of defense against antigens; have a low activation threshold; are the only line of defense for those who cannot produce specific antibody
    • May mediate hepatitis C infection of T cells (J Virol 2012;86:3723)
    Clinical features
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Julia Braza, M.D. and Cases #281 and #17

    Breast CLL / SLL

    Eyelid: mantle cell lymphoma

    Thymic carcinoma,
    nonkeratinizing
    squamous cell
    subtype



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Tumors / tissue typically CD5+:
    Missing Image

    Lymph node: mantle cell lymphoma (fig B)

    Missing Image

    Lymph node: SLL


    Tumors / tissue occasionally / rarely CD5+:
    Missing Image Missing Image

    Lymph node: follicular lymphoma: typically CD5 stains only adjacent T cells (left); rarely tumor is CD5+ (right)

    Positive staining - normal
    • Thymocytes, almost all T cells
    • B cells in fetal spleen and cord blood; B cells in bone marrow (particularly stage 3 hematogones and mature B cells), B cells in peritoneal and pleural cavities, some B cells in mantle zone of spleen and lymph nodes (12% of B cells in peripheral blood) (Am J Clin Pathol 2009;132:733, Am J Clin Pathol 2004;121:368)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining

    CD50-59
    CD50
    CD51
    • Also called integrin alpha chain V or vitronectin receptor alpha chain
    • Integrins are membrane receptors for extracellular matrix mediated cell adhesion and migration, cytoskeletal organization, cell proliferation, cell survival and differentiation
    • Integrins are composed of an alpha chain and a beta chain
    • Alpha V integrins are a subset of integrins with a common alpha V subunit combined with beta subunits 1, 3, 5, 6 or 8
    • The beta chain of the vitronectin receptor is CD61
    • Most alpha V integrins recognize the RGD (Arg-Gly-Asp) sequence in various ligands such as vitronectin, fibronectin, osteopontin, bone sialoprotein, thrombospondin, fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, tenascin or agrin
    • Alpha V beta 3 integrin may mediate melanoma progression (Oncogene 2005;24:4710)
    • CD51 on some dendritic cells serves as adenovirus receptor (J Leukoc Biol 2006;79:1271)
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: endothelial cells, megakaryocytes, osteoclasts, monocytes and macrophages, placenta cytotrophoblast and Hofbauer cells and fibroblasts (Histochemistry 1991;96:169, Acta Histochem 2003;105:253)
    • Positive staining - disease: osteoclast disorders including osteoclast-like giant cell neoplasms and inflamed synovium (Mod Pathol 2006;19:161, Ann Rheum Dis 1993;52:182)
    • Negative staining: cartilage (Ann Rheum Dis 2000;59:448)
    • Reference: OMIM #193210
    CD52
    CD53
    • Most specific and reliable panleukocyte marker
    • Encodes member of tetraspanin family, a cell surface protein with 4 hydrophobic domains that mediate signal transduction
    • Also has adhesion / activation functions
    • Upregulated in macrophages exposed to lipopolysaccharide (Mol Cells 2004;17:125)
    • May transduce CD2 generated signals in T cells and natural killer cells
    • May be a thymocyte selection marker, with CD69 (Int Immunol 2002;14:249)
    • Familial deficiency is associated with recurrent infectious diseases (Clin Diagn Lab Immunol 1997;4:229)
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: leukocytes; also dendritic cells, osteoclasts and osteoblasts and mesangial cells (Kidney Int 2003;63:534)
    • Positive staining - disease: radioresistant tumor cells
    • Negative staining: platelets, red blood cells and nonhematopoietic cells
    • Reference: OMIM #151525
    CD54
    • Also called ICAM-1 (intercellular adhesion molecule 1)
    • Ligand for LFA-1 (CD50)
    • Receptor for:
    • Involved in adhesion of neutrophils to endothelium at site of inflammation
    • Reacts with CD11a / CD18 or CD11b / CD18, resulting in immune reaction or inflammation
    • Reduced expression in endometrial cells may contribute to endometriosis (Immunol Lett 2002;80:49)
    • Positive staining - normal: broad, B and T cells and B cell precursors, monocytes, osteoclasts, endothelial cells and epithelial cells (various)
    • Positive staining - tumors: keratoacanthoma (more in fully developed lesions with inflammatory infiltrate), cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (focal if well differentiated, intense if poorly differentiated) (Mod Pathol 2003;16:8)
    • Negative staining: intravascular B cell lymphoma
    • Reference: OMIM #147840
    CD55
    • Also called complement decay accelerating factor (DAF)
    • Gene encodes Cromer blood group
    • Binds C3bBb (alternative pathway convertase) and C4b2a (classical pathway convertase) to accelerate decay of the C3 convertases; protects against inappropriate complement activation (J Biol Chem 2005;280:2569)
    • Receptor for CD97, echovirus and Coxsackie B virus (Proc Natl Acad Sci U S A 2002;99:10325, J Virol 1998;72:9407)
    • Also is part of lipopolysaccharide-induced receptor complex (Eur J Immunol 2003;33:1399)
    • Genetic defects that cause a reduction or loss of both CD59 and CD55 on erythrocytes produce paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH); also cause defective platelets, granulocytes, erythrocytes and possibly lymphocytes
    • CD55 deficiency is common in patients treated with Campath (anti-CD52), which may predispose to PNH (Transplant Proc 2006;38:1750)
    • A minor population of CD55 - CD59 negative granulocytes and red blood cells predicts a good response to immunosuppressive therapy in patients with acquired aplastic anemia (Blood 2006;107:1308)
    • Loss of CD55 is associated with poor prognosis in breast cancer (Clin Cancer Res 2004;10:2797)
    • Case reports: pregnant woman in her early 40's with thrombocytopenia due to PNH (Univ Pittsburgh Case #419)
    • Uses by pathologists: diagnosis of PNH (Am J Clin Pathol 2006;126:781)
    • Positive staining - normal: all hematopoietic cells and all cell types in intimate contact with complement proteins; also epithelial cells lining extracellular compartments, body fluids and extracellular matrix
    • Reference: OMIM #125240
    CD56
    CD57
    CD58
    CD59
    • Also called protectin, complement regulatory molecule
    • Regulates complement mediated cell lysis by inhibiting formation of membrane attack complex (MAC); binds to C8 or C9 components, preventing incorporation of multiple copies of C9 required for complete formation of osmolytic core
    • Also makes cells susceptible to NK cell mediated cytotoxicity (J Immunol 2006;176:2915)
    • Genetic defects that reduce both CD59 and CD55 on erythrocytes produce paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH); also cause defective platelets, granulocytes, erythrocytes and possibly lymphocytes
    • Low CD59 levels may also cause PNH-like symptoms after Campath therapy (Transplant Proc 2006;38:1750)
    • Not a particularly good marker for detecting PNH+ monocytes (Am J Clin Pathol 2006;126:781)
    • In diabetes, glycation may inhibit CD59, causing MAC deposition in vessels, leading to vascular complications (Diabetes 2004;53:2653)
    • May resist complement mediated lysis via a surface CD59 like protein:
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: most cells
    • Positive staining - disease: squamous cell carcinoma of head and neck (J Oral Pathol Med 2006;35:560)
    • Reference: OMIM #107271
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CD50: normal
    uterine cervix
    and cervical
    cancer tissues

    CD52: cryostat
    sections stained
    with biotinylated
    Campath-1H

    CD52: paraffin
    wax sections
    stained with
    Campath-1G

    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD55: breast carcinoma staining


    Missing Image

    CD55: breast carcinoma staining

    Missing Image

    CD58: buccal
    mucosa with
    intense LFA 3+
    staining

    Missing Image

    CD58: cardiac muscle with LFA-3+ staining

    Missing Image

    CD58: cerebellum, liver, skin


    Missing Image

    CD58: proximal tubule and distal tubule (kidney)

    Missing Image

    CD58: cells near
    seminiferous tubule
    boundary (testis)

    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD59: diabetic and nondiabetic:
    kidneys (left), nerves (right)


    CD56
    Definition / general
    Essential features
    • Marker of natural killer (NK) cells and NK lymphomas
    • Subsets of T cell lymphomas can show expression of CD56
    • Sensitive marker for neuroendocrine tumors in the majority of small cell carcinoma / carcinoid tumors
    • Not specific for neuroendocrine differentiation; should always be used in conjunction with other markers of neuroendocrine lineage (synaptophysin, chromogranin)
    Terminology
    • CD56 antigen is a 140 kDa isoform of the neural cell adhesion molecule (NCAM)
      • Posttranslational modifications to the polypeptide include N and O glycosylations, acylation, sulphation and phosphorylation
      • Different NCAM isoforms have molecular weights ranging from 135 to 220 kDa
      • CD56 antigen is moderately expressed on a subpopulation of peripheral blood large granular lymphocytes and on all cells with NK activity; it is also expressed by subsets of T lymphocytes
      • CD56 antibodies do not react with granulocytes, monocytes or B cells
    • Reference: Beckman Coulter: CD34 Antibodies [Accessed 19 July 2023]
    Pathophysiology
    • Nerves
      • Regulates homophilic (like - like) interactions between neurons and between neurons and muscle
      • Associates with fibroblast growth factor receptor and stimulates tyrosine kinase activity of receptor to induce neurite outgrowth
      • When neural crest cells stop making NCAM and N-cadherin and start displaying integrin receptors, cells separate and migrate (J Cell Sci 2002;115:283)
    • Hematopoiesis
      • Prototypic marker of NK cells
      • Also presents on a subset of CD4+ and CD8+ T cells
      • NK cells include a less mature (CD56 [bright] / CD16-) subset that is more common in lymph nodes and a more mature (CD56 [dim] / CD16+) subset that is more numerous in peripheral blood (Hum Pathol 2011;42:679)
    • Adhesion
      • Contributes to cell - cell or cell - matrix adhesion during development
    Interpretation
    • Membranous expression is interpreted as positive staining
    Case reports
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Wiebke Solass, M.D., Ankur R. Sangoi, M.D. (Case #101), Julia Braza, M.D. (Case #121)
    and Jennifer A. Jeung, M.D. (Case #204)

    Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

    Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

    Lung carcinoid Lung carcinoid

    Lung carcinoid


    extranodal NK / T cell lymphoma extranodal NK / T cell lymphoma

    Extranodal NK / T cell lymphoma

    Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm, pancreas

    Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm, pancreas

    Primary renal carcinoid

    Primary renal carcinoid

    Positive staining - normal
    • NK cells (80 - 90%), large granular lymphocytes, activated T cells, osteoblasts
    • Cerebellum and cortex at neuromuscular junctions, neuroendocrine tissue, neurons (membranous pattern), glia
    • Ovarian stromal cells
    • Rete testis cells (clusters of sloughed cells in hydrocele and spermatocele specimens may mimic small cell carcinoma) (Hum Pathol 2010;41:88)
    • Skeletal muscle
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Lower right lung lobe, mucosal biopsies:
      • Atypical carcinoid / neuroendocrine tumor of the lung with associated areas of necrosis and portions of respiratory mucosa (see comment)
      • Comment: In this case, a neuroendocrine tumor of the lung is present, which shows areas of necrosis. Although the mitotic count in this section is low, the presence of necrosis advocates the diagnosis of an atypicial carcinoid.
      • The neoplastic cells are positive for CD56, synaptophysin, chromogranin A and express SSTR2.
    Board review style question #1

    Which of the following statements is true about CD56?

    1. It can differentiate MGUS from myeloma because MGUS plasma cells are CD56+
    2. It is a marker of B cells
    3. It is a marker of natural killer (NK) cells and NK lymphomas
    4. It is a marker of plasma cells
    Board review style answer #1
    C. It is a marker of natural killer (NK) cells and NK lymphomas. Answers B and D are incorrect because these cells are typically negative for CD56. Answer A is incorrect because although it can differentiate MGUS from myeloma, MGUS plasma cells are CD56- and myeloma plasma cells are CD56+.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD56

    CD57
    Definition / general
    • Also called Leu7, beta-1,3-glucuronyltransferase 1 and glucuronosyltransferase P
    • Glycoprotein with cell adhesion functions
    • May define a phenotype associated with replicative senescence in HIV specific CD8+ T cells (Blood 2003;101:2711)
    • References: OMIM #151290
    Case reports
    Uses by pathologists
    • Marker of NK cells and neuroendocrine tumors, helps distinguish high grade prostatic adenocarcinoma (CD57+) from high grade urothelial carcinoma (CD57-)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (fig 11)

    Missing Image

    Papillary carcinoma of thyroid (fig B)

    Missing Image

    "Atypical cytology, cannot exclude papillary carcinoma"

    Positive staining - normal
    • NK subset, T cell subset, neuroectodermal tissue, retina, brain, prostate and renal proximal tubules
    Positive staining - disease
    Positive staining - tumors
    Negative staining
    • B cells, monocytes, red blood cells and platelets; NK/T cell lymphoma-nasal type, Wilm’s tumor

    CD60-69
    CD60 (CDw60)
    • Use of CD60, CDw60 and CD60a, CD60b and CD60c is inconsistent
    • Not proteins but oligosaccharides present on gangliosides
    • Antibodies provide costimulatory signals for T cells
    • Expressed on most T cells in autoimmune lesions (Immunol Invest 2001;30:67)
    • CD8+ CD60+ T cells may regulate IgE memory responses and isotype switching (Hum Immunol 2005;66:1029)
    • Associated with Th1 immune response in skin (Br J Dermatol 2003;149:739)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal:
      • Platelets, T cells (30%), thymic epithelium, activated keratinocytes, melanocytes, synovial fibroblasts, glomeruli, smooth muscle cells and astrocytes (Carbohydr Res 2000;329:791)
      • Also epithelium of reproductive system, exocrine and endocrine glands (Histochem J 2000;32:447)
    • Positive staining - disease: T cells in rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis, monocytes in cutaneous T cell lymphoma (Acta Derm Venereol 2001;81:263)
    • Negative staining: B cells, granulocytes and monocytes
    • Reference: Glycoforum: Glycolipid [Accessed 5 May 2021]
    CD60a
    • GD3: carbohydrate structure
    • Not a protein: oligosaccharide present on gangliosides
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    CD60b
    • 9-O-acetyl-GD3 - carbohydrate structure
    • Intracellular regulators of apoptosis in T lymphocytes (Glycobiology 2011;21:1161)
    • Expressed during rat central nervous system development and mainly associated with neuronal migration (Stem Cells Int 2017;2017:5759490)
    • Other names: UM4D4
    • Positive stains: subsets of CD4+ and CD8+ peripheral T cells, platelets and monocytes
    CD60c
    • 7-O-acetyl-GD3 - carbohydrate structure
    • Not a protein: oligosaccharide present on gangliosides
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    CD61
    CD62
    CD63
    CD64
    • Also called Fc gamma RI, CD64A
    • High affinity receptor binds to Fc region of IgG
    • Important in phagocytosis via receptor mediated endocytosis of IgG antigen complexes
    • Mediates antigen capture for presentation to T cells, antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity, release of cytokines and reactive oxygen intermediates
    • Also binds to C reaction protein and mediates its effects (J Biol Chem 2005;280:25095)
    • Denge fever immune complexes enter macrophages via CD64 (J Virol 2006;80:10128)
    • Uses by pathologists:
    • Positive staining - normal: antigen presenting cells including macrophages / monocytes, activated granulocytes and dendritic cells; also early myeloid cells
    • Positive staining - disease: AML M3 (usually); M4, M5, M0 - M2 (variable) (Am J Clin Pathol 1998;110:797)
    • Negative staining: AML M7
    • Reference: OMIM: 146760 [Accessed 5 May 2021]
    CD65
    • Also called VIM2, ceramide dodecasaccharide, dimeric sialyl CD15
    • Adhesive carbohydrate (not a protein) that appears to be significant risk factor for extravascular AML infiltration (Leuk Res 2001;25:847)
    • Uses by pathologists: myeloid antigen used in flow cytometry
    • Positive staining - normal: myeloid cells, monocytes
    • Positive staining - disease: AML
    • Negative staining: lymphocytes
    CD65s
    • Also called sialylated CD65
    • Carbohydrate antigen, not a protein
    • Appears when CD34 antigen disappears
    • Antibodies may either recognize CD65s (sialylated) or CD65 (nonsialylated)
    • Uses by pathologists: for acute leukemia cell typing and to identify a subset of pre-B ALL (Am J Clin Pathol 2002;117:380)
    • Positive staining - normal: granulocytes, monocytes
    • Positive staining - disease: myeloid leukemia, low levels in AML M0 - M1 (Leukemia 2003;17:1544)
    CD66
    • Also called CEACAM1, biliary glycoprotein, BGP, C-CAM, CD66A
    • Primordial protein of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) family
    • Cell adhesion molecule capable of activating neutrophils
    • Receptor for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and N. meningitides; binding prevents epithelial detachment, a defense mechanism that hinders colonization (J Cell Biol 2005;170:825)
    • With osteopontin, may mediate invasion of extravillous trophoblast at maternal fetal interface (J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2005;90:5407)
    • Interactions with CEA inhibit NK cell cytotoxicity (J Immunol 2005;174:6692)
    • Downregulated in:
    • Uses by pathologists: expression predicts metastases in cutaneous melanoma (J Clin Oncol 2002;20:2530)
    • Positive staining - normal: granulocytes, lymphocytes, epithelial cells, endothelial cells, prostate glands and ducts (dense), bile canaliculi between liver cells, extravillous trophoblast (Am J Pathol 2000;156:1165)
    • Positive staining - disease: low grade prostate carcinoma
    • Negative staining: high grade (Gleason 4/5) prostate carcinoma
    • Reference: OMIM: 109770 [Accessed 5 May 2021]
    CD66b (formerly CD67)
    • Also called CEACAM8. NCA-95 and CGM6; formerly CD67
    • Cell adhesion molecule capable of activating neutrophils
    • Increased expression on peripheral blood neutrophils and eosinophils of rheumatoid arthritis patients (Scand J Immunol 1999;50:433)
    • Uses by pathologists: marker for granulocytes
    • Positive staining - normal: granulocytes
    • Positive staining - disease: chronic myelogenous leukemia, cardiomyocytes in areas of infarction (Cancer Res 1990;50:6534, Cardiovasc Res 1999;41:603)
    CD66c
    • Also called nonspecific cross reactive antigen, CEACAM6, NCA 50/90
    • Cell adhesion molecule capable of activating neutrophils
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: granulocytes
    • Positive staining - disease: ALL (43%) (BMC Cancer 2005;5:38)
    • Reference: OMIM: 163980 [Accessed 5 May 2021]
    CD66d
    CD66e / CEA
    CD66f
    • Also called pregnancy specific beta 1 glycoprotein, PSG1
    • May be involved in immune regulation, protection of fetus from maternal immune system
    • Released into maternal circulation during pregnancy
    • Low levels in maternal blood predict spontaneous abortion
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: syncytiotrophoblasts, fetal liver and myeloid cells
    • Positive staining - disease: hydatidiform and invasive moles, choriocarcinoma (J Clin Pathol 1977;30:19)
    • Reference: OMIM: 176390 [Accessed 5 May 2021]
    CD68
    CD69
    • Also called activation inducer molecule (AIM), early activation antigen (EA1)
    • Earliest inducible cell surface glycoprotein acquired during lymphoid activation
    • Involved in early events of T cell, NK cell, monocyte and platelet activation
    • Associated with Th1 T cell differentiation and associated cytokines (IL2, TNF alpha, interferon gamma) (Hum Pathol 2002;33:330)
    • Highly expressed on T cells from inflammatory infiltrates of rheumatoid arthritis, viral hepatitis and autoimmune thyroid disorders (Clin Exp Rheumatol 2004;22:331)
    • Expression on CD3+ and CD8+ peripheral blood T cells correlates with acute graft rejection in renal allograft recipients (Transplantation 2003;76:190)
    • May promote lymphocyte retention in lymphoid organs (Nature 2006;440:540)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: activated T cells, B cells, NK cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, epidermal Langerhans cells, platelets and thymocytes
    • Positive staining - disease: peripheral T cell lymphoma (Am J Clin Pathol 2003;120:866)
    • Reference: OMIM: 107273 [Accessed 5 May 2021]
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD66: colon

    Missing Image

    CD66: expression at maternal fetal surface

    Missing Image

    CD66: various breast lesions

    Implanted
    ovum (CD66f+,
    syncytiotrophoblast)


    Normal placenta (CD66f+, trophoblast)

    Hydatidiform mole
    (syncytiotrophoblast)

    Invasive mole
    (CD66f+, large
    trophoblast cells)

    Choriocarcinoma
    of uterus (CD66f+,
    syncytiotrophoblast)


    CD61
    Definition / general
    Essential features
    • CD61, also known as GP3A and β3 integrin, is an adhesion receptor on the membrane of cells with a megakaryocytic lineage (Histol Histopathol 2002;17:347, F1000Res 2016;5:F1000)
    • CD61 forms heterodimer with CD41 known as glycoprotein IIb - IIIa complex
      • CD61 is encoded by ITGB3 gene
        • Dominant integrin on platelets and is highly expressed
        • Important mediator of platelet aggregation
        • Activated glycoprotein IIb - IIIa complex binds fibrinogen or von Willebrand factor to bridge platelets together
    • CD61 can promote invasion and migration in tumors (Am J Transl Res 2019;11:7195)
    Terminology
    • β3 integrin (ITGB3)
    • Integrin subunit beta 3
    • GP3A
    Pathophysiology
    • Platelet aggregation is mediated by binding of fibrinogen to sites on the glycoprotein IIb - IIIa receptor complex (Biochem J 1995;309:613)
    • Hereditary defect of glycoprotein IIb - IIIa receptor complex causes Glanzmann thrombasthenia, an autosomal recessive bleeding disorder (Transfus Med Rev 2016;30:92)
    • TGFβ is the main upstream factor of integrins and when elevated, leads to increased levels of mesenchymal-like cancer cells (Am J Transl Res 2019;11:7195)
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Superfamily of integrins

    Superfamily of integrins

    Clinical features
    • Expressed on macrophages, endothelial cells, fibroblasts, megakaryocytes, osteoclasts, mast cells and platelets
    • Present in normal tissue and tumors (Histol Histopathol 2002;17:347)
    Interpretation
    • Membrane, intracellular
    • Cytoplasmic expression in megakaryocytes and platelets
    Uses by pathologists
    • Identify platelets, megakaryocytes and platelet thrombi
    • Count platelets in thrombocytopenic patients (Br J Haematol 2001;112:584)
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • CD61 is expressed on platelets, megakaryocytes, monocytes, macrophages and endothelial cells (Barclay: The Leucocyte Antigen Factsbook, 2nd Edition, 1997)
      • CD41 interacts with CD61 to form the glycoprotein IIb - IIIa receptor complex
        • Expressed on platelets and megakaryocytes
      • CD41 interacts with CD51 to form the vitronectin receptor
        • Expressed on endothelial cells, monocytes, platelets and osteoclasts
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Pamela Wirth, Ph.D. (sources: University of Toronto and Human Protein Atlas)
    Bone marrow biopsy Bone marrow biopsy

    Bone marrow biopsy

    Liver cholangiocarcinoma

    Liver
    cholangiocarcinoma

    Kidney adenocarcinoma

    Kidney adenocarcinoma

    Lung squamous cell carcinoma

    Lung squamous cell carcinoma

    Colon carcinoma

    Colon carcinoma

    Positive staining - normal
    • Cytoplasmic staining of normal and abnormal megakaryocytes, platelets, occasional endothelial cells, some myeloid precursor cells
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Molecular / cytogenetics description
    • Glanzmann thrombasthenia is caused by a defect in the platelet integrin receptor essential to platelet aggregation and hemostasis
      • Mutations involve missense, nonsense, frameshift or point mutations in ITGA2B or ITGB3 genes located on chromosome 17q21 (Orphanet J Rare Dis 2006;1:10)
    Sample pathology report
    • Bone marrow aspirate:
      • Acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage, NOS (see comment)
      • Comment: A 68 year old man presented with suspected leukemia. Bone marrow aspiration revealed 85% blasts with positive expression for CD34, CD7, TdT, CD33, CD117 and CD61, while being negative for MPO, CD19, CD22, CD79a and CD3.
    Board review style question #1
    An infant is evaluated for bleeding of the gums and ongoing nose bleeds. A complete blood count comes back with normal platelet count but prolonged bleeding time. Evaluation by flow cytometry and IHC indicates markedly decreased CD41 and CD61. Genetic sequencing indicated mutated ITGA2B. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. Factor V Leiden
    2. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
    3. Hemophilia B (characterized by deficiency in factor VIII or IX, caused by X linked recessive trait)
    4. Von Willebrand disease
    Board review style answer #1
    B. Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Significantly decreased levels of CD41 and CD61 is diagnostic for Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Answer A is incorrect because factor V Leiden involves a mutated F5 gene resulting in thrombophilia. Answer C is incorrect because hemophilia B is caused by an X linked recessive trait, not a mutated ITGA or ITGB gene. Answer D is incorrect because von Willebrand disease is caused by variants in the VWF gene.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD61
    Board review style question #2

    CD61 assists in the identification of which cell type?

    1. Granulocytes
    2. Megakaryocytes
    3. Plasma cells
    4. T cells
    Board review style answer #2
    B. Megakaryocytes. CD61 is a glycoprotein found on megakaryocytes, platelets and their precursors. Answer A is incorrect because granulocytes are identified by CD66b. Answer C is incorrect because plasma cells are distinguished by their expression of CD38 and CD138. Answer D is incorrect because other CD markers such as CD3, CD4 and CD8 are used to identify this cell type.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD61

    CD63
    Definition / general
    • Also called NKI-C3 (J Natl Cancer Inst 1992;84:422), lysosomal membrane-associated glycoprotein 3, LAMP-3, melanoma associated antigen and ME491
    • Member of tetraspanin superfamily of integral membrane proteins - tetraspanins form lateral associations with integrins and may act as organizers of multimolecular networks that modulate integrin mediated signaling, cell morphology, motility and migration
    • Intracellular lysosomal / endosomal / granule protein, in Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelium and in azurophil granules of neutrophils (Am J Pathol 1994;144:1369)
    • Serves as adaptor protein that links its interaction partners to the cell’s endocytic machinery (Proc Natl Acad Sci U S A 2003;100:15560)
    • Marker of platelet activation that is transported to surface after activation; also modulates platelet spreading on immobilized fibrinogen (Thromb Haemost 2005;93:311)
    • Associated with early stages of melanoma progression (Cancer Res 1988;48:2955)
    • Deficiency associated with Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (OMIM #203300)
    • High pre-kidney transplant levels are associated with acute rejection (Transplant Proc 2003;35:1360)
    • Used for basophil activation tests (Allergy 2006;61:1084)
    • CD63 pathway from host multivesicular bodies provides essential lipids to Chlamydia to maintain productive intracellular infection (J Cell Sci 2006;119:350)
    Uses by pathologists
    • Marker of melanoma (although non-specific) and melanocytic tumors
    • May be useful for other tumors (see below)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Cellular neurothekeoma

    Positive staining - normal
    • Activated platelets, endothelium, fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells and osteoclasts
    • Weakly expressed on B and T cells and granulocytes
    • Also bronchial glands, neural tissue (brain white matter and peripheral nerves), nevi, salivary glands, smooth muscle and synovial lining cells
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Epithelioid cell histiocytoma, Langerhans cell histiocytosis

    CD68
    Definition / general
    • Lysosomal associated transmembrane glycoprotein that is present in a variety of normal and neoplastic cell types and is primarily used as a marker to identify histiocytes and histiocytic tumors
    Essential features
    • Lysosomal marker used to identify histiocytic and monocytic cells with limited specificity
    • KP1 and PGM1 are the 2 most commonly used antibody clones, with PGM1 being the slightly more specific marker
    Terminology
    • Lysosomal associated membrane protein 4 (LAMP4)
    • Gp110
    • Scavenger receptor class D member 1 (SCARD1)
    • Macrosilian (murine analog)
    • KP1 (common antibody clone)
    • PGM1 (common antibody clone)
    • EBM11 (less commonly used antibody clone)
    • KiM6 and KiM7 (less commonly used antibody clones)
    Pathophysiology
    Interpretation
    Uses by pathologists
    • Histiocytic malignancies are usually CD68 positive (Am J Clin Pathol 2004;122:794)
    • CD68 is used to diagnose histiocytic sarcoma, which usually expresses at least 2 of the following markers: CD68, CD163, CD4, lysozyme (Blood 2016;127:2672)
    • Myeloid / monocytic sarcoma is usually CD68 positive (Leukemia 2007;21:340)
    • PGM1 is more specific to monocyte / macrophages than KP1, which is widely reactive (Ann Rheum Dis 2004;63:774)
    • Renal cell carcinoma with t(6;11) is consistently KP1 positive and PGM1 negative, whereas epithelioid angiomyolipoma is KP1 and PGM1 positive (Mod Pathol 2018;31:474)
    • Double staining of CD68 and CD31 can aid in the diagnosis of antibody mediated rejection by labeling intracapillary macrophages (Am J Transplant 2019;19:3149)
    • CD68 can aid in identification of chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) in patients with colonic inflammation; CGD patients have a significantly smaller average of CD68 positive cells per mm2 of lamina propria (242.3 cells/mm2) than patients with Crohn’s disease (1,104.2 cells/mm2) and the control group (565.4 cells/mm2) (Inflamm Bowel Dis 2009;15:1213)
    • CD68 can aid in the differential diagnosis between cellular fibrous histiocytoma (83% KP1 positive) and dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (6% KP1 positive) (J Cutan Pathol 2006;33:353)
    • Primary cutaneous acral CD8 positive T cell lymphoproliferative disorder shows dot-like CD68 positivity, allowing it to be distinguished from other primary or secondary cutaneous CD8 positive T cell lymphomas (Br J Dermatol 2015;172:1573)
    Prognostic factors
    • Elevated numbers of CD68 positive tumor associated macrophages (TAMs) correlate with negative survival outcomes in many cancer types; TAMs are predominantly M2 macrophages, which can promote tumor growth / spread through the secretion of MMP9, VEGF, EGF and TGF1 (Clin Transl Oncol 2016;18:251)
      • Anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL): increased intratumoral TAMs correlate with an adverse outcome in anaplastic lymphoma kinase negative ALCL (Histopathology 2014;65:490)
      • Breast cancer: increased TAMs predict worse cancer specific survival and a shorter disease free interval; patients with lower TAM levels showed improved metastasis free survival (J Clin Pathol 2012;65:159, Int J Cancer 2012;131:426)
      • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma: TAMs are associated with a favorable prognosis when patients are treated with rituximab in addition to multiagent chemotherapy and with a poor outcome when rituximab is not given (Haematologica 2015;100:143)
      • Classical Hodgkin lymphoma: studies have suggested elevated TAM expression as a negative indicator of survival in classical Hodgkin lymphoma; however, this association has been disputed (Leuk Lymphoma 2011;52:1913, N Engl J Med 2010;362:875, Diagn Pathol 2020;15:10, BMC Med 2016;14:159, Ann Oncol 2012;23:736)
      • Follicular lymphoma: TAMs are associated with adverse outcomes in chemotherapy treated patients; in contrast, after a rituximab and chemotherapy combination regimen, high TAM content is correlated with longer overall survival (Clin Cancer Res 2007;13:5784)
      • Hepatocellular carcinoma: density of peritumoral TAMs is associated with poor recurrence free survival and poor overall survival (PLoS One 2013;8:e59771)
      • Squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck: increased TAMs are associated with worse relapse free survival, worse disease specific survival and worse overall survival (Head Neck 2016;38:1074, Oral Oncol 2015;51:90)
      • Myxoid liposarcoma: increased TAMs are associated with poorer overall survival rate (Br J Cancer 2015;112:547)
      • Urothelial carcinoma: a high CD68/CD3 positive ratio identifies a bad prognosis group among muscle invasive cases (Urol Oncol 2014;32:791)
      • Brain tumors: CD68 TAMs are associated with higher tumor grade in astrocytoma (Clin Cancer Res 2013;19:3776)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Frido Bruehl, M.D.
    Fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver, H&E Fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver, CD68

    Fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver

    Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease of the lymph node, H&E Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease of the lymph node, CD68

    Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease of the lymph node

    Reticulohistiocytoma of the skin, H&E Reticulohistiocytoma of the skin, CD68

    Reticulohistiocytoma of the skin

    Virtual slides

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CD68+ histiocytes in Kikuchi-Fujimoto lymphadenitis

    CD68+ histiocytic origin of juvenile xanthogranuloma

    CD68+ systemic mastocytosis, small intestine

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Skin, biopsy:
      • Diagnosis: myeloid / monocytic sarcoma (see comment)
      • Comment: The skin biopsy shows a dense infiltrate of intermediate sized cells with open and dispersed chromatin, irregular nuclear contours, variable amounts of cytoplasm and frequent mitotic figures. Areas of tumoral necrosis are present. Immunohistochemical stains show that the atypical infiltrate are positive for CD4, CD33, CD43, CD68 (KP1) and CD68 (PGM1). The atypical cells are negative for CD3, CD20, PAX 5, CD34, CD56, CD123 and muramidase. A Ki67 stain is positive in 90% of tumor cell nuclei. In summary, these findings represent involvement by myeloid / monocytic sarcoma.
    Board review style question #1

    Which of the following marker combinations fits the immunoprofile of Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)?

    1. CD68 negative, CD1a negative, CD207 (langerin) negative
    2. CD68 negative, CD1a positive, CD207 (langerin) positive
    3. CD68 positive, CD1a negative, CD207 (langerin) negative
    4. CD68 positive, CD1a positive, CD207 (langerin) positive
    Board review style answer #1
    D. CD68 positive, CD1a positive, CD207 (langerin) positive. LCH cells are positive for CD68, a traditional histiocyte marker, as well as CD1a and CD207 (langerin), typical Langerhans cell markers. CD1a and CD207 positivity (as opposed to answer choice C) can distinguish surrounding CD68 positive macrophages from LCH cells.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD68
    Board review style question #2

    CD68 IHC can be helpful in which of the following differential diagnostic scenarios?

    1. Chronic granulomatous disease versus Whipple disease
    2. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma versus chromophobe renal cell carcinoma
    3. Reticulohistiocytoma versus neurothekeoma
    4. Rhabdomyoma versus granular cell tumor
    5. Rheumatoid nodules versus granuloma annulare
    Board review style answer #2
    D. Rhabdomyoma versus granular cell tumor. Granular cell tumors are diffusely CD68 positive whereas rhabdomyomas are CD68 negative. Chronic granulomatous disease and Whipple disease are both marked by an abundance of CD68 positive macrophages in the lamina propria (A). Clear cell renal cell carcinoma and chromophobe renal cell carcinoma are CD68 negative (B). Reticulohistiocytoma is uniformly CD68 positive, while (cellular) neurothekeoma may be positive in over half of cases (C). Rheumatoid nodules and granuloma annulare both contain many CD68 positive macrophages (E).

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD68

    CD70
    Definition / general
    • Ligand to CD27 that is transiently upregulated upon stimulation of immune cells and delivers a costimulatory signal to T cells
    Essential features
    Terminology
    • Tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 7 (TNFSF7)
    • CD27 ligand (CD27L)
    • Ki24 antigen (Blood 1985;66:848)
    Pathophysiology
    • Transiently upregulated during lymphocyte activation (J Immunol 1994;152:1756)
    • Only characterized ligand to CD27 with bidirectional signaling activity
    • Can be upregulated on leukemia cells after tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy (Sci Transl Med 2015;7:298ra119)
    • Reverse signaling through CD70 enhances NK cell function and immunosurveillance of CD27 expressing B cell malignancies (Blood 2017;130:297)
    • Regulatory T cells can gain CD70 expression after prolonged stimulation, curbing their suppressive activity on other T cells (Commun Biol 2020;3:375)
    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    Uses by pathologists
    • No current clinical use by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Christian Schürch, M.D., Ph.D.
    Bone marrow biopsy

    Bone marrow biopsy

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Board review style question #1

    Which of the following statements about CD70 is true?

    1. CD70 binds to CD28
    2. CD70 is negative in B cell lymphomas
    3. It is a sensitive and specific marker for multiple myeloma
    4. It is transiently expressed by activated immune cells
    Board review style answer #1
    D. CD70 is transiently expressed by activated immune cells. CD70 is the ligand to CD27. It is expressed in a majority of B and T cell lymphomas and is usually negative in plasma cell neoplasms.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD70

    CD70-79
    CD70
    CD71
    CD72
    CD73
    • Also called ecto-5'-nucleotidase
    • Catalyzes dephosphorylation of ribo and deoxyribonucleotides to their corresponding nucleosides, such as 5’ AMP to adenosine
    • Mediates costimulatory signals in T cell activation
    • Mediates lymphocyte adhesion to dendritic cells and endothelium (Blood 1996;88:1755, J Immunol 2000;165:5411)
    • May protect against vascular inflammation and neointima formation (Circulation 2006;113:2120)
    • May be a lymphocyte maturation marker
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: B and T cell subset, endothelial cells, follicular dendritic cells and epithelial cells
    • Reference: OMIM: 129190 [Accessed 4 May 2021]
    CD74
    • Also called LN2, HLA-DR associated invariant chain
    • Gamma chain antigen associated with MHC class II antigen and antigen presentation
    • MHC class II chaperone stabilizes alpha / beta heterodimers in a complex soon after synthesis and directs transport of the complex from the endoplasmic reticulum to compartments, where peptide loading of class II takes place
    • H. pylori urease binds to CD74 on gastric epithelial cells and upregulates CD74 expression (Infect Immun 2006;74:1148, J Immunol 2005;175:171)
    • Has important role in mucosal immunity
    • Receptor for macrophage migration inhibitory factor, a proinflammatory cytokine (J Immunol 2006;177:8730)
    • Associated with perineural invasion in pancreatic carcinoma (Clin Cancer Res 2006;12:2419)
    • Uses by pathologists: B cell marker (not commonly used)
    • Positive staining - normal: B cells, activated T cells, macrophages, interdigitating dendritic cells, activated endothelial and epithelial cells
    • Positive staining - disease:
    • Negatie staining: renal oncocytoma
    • Reference: OMIM: 142790 [Accessed 5 May 2021]
    CD75
    • Also called lactosamines, LN1; formerly CDw75
    • Carbohydrate, not a protein (Cell 1992;68:1003)
    • Ligand for CD22 (Cell 1991;66:1133)
    • A neuraminidase sensitive lymphocyte cell surface differentiation antigen
    • Strong expression associated with better prognosis in follicular center cell lymphoma (J Pathol 2006;209:352)
    • Uses by pathologists: marker of follicular center cell lymphoma; identify Reed-Sternberg cells (not commonly used)
    • Positive staining - normal: mature B cells (germinal center derivation), erythrocytes, some T cells and some epithelial cells
    • Positive staining - disease: popcorn cells of lymphocyte predominance Hodgkin’s lymphoma, many B cell lymphomas (Histopathology 1999;35:209)
    • Reference: Arch Pathol Lab Med 2002;126:862
    CD75s / CDw76
    • CDw76 renamed CD75s at 7th HLDA Workshop
    • Alpha 2, 6 sialylated lactosamines
    • A carbohydrate, not a protein
    • Marker of murine CD8+ suppressor T cells (Int Immunol 2003;15:1389)
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: B cells, some T cells
    CD77
    • Also called globotriaosylceramide, CD77 synthase (OMIM: 607922 [Accessed 5 May 2021])
    • pK blood group antigen on erythrocytes
    • Carbohydrate, not a protein
    • Endothelial receptor for verotoxins from Shigella dysenteriae and E. coli (J Biol Chem 2006;281:10230)
    • Also expressed by liver flukes (Biol Chem 2001;382:195)
    • Interacts with CD19 (J Cell Physiol 1998;176:281)
    • Mediates apoptosis of renal vascular endothelial cells and intestinal epithelial cells, resulting in hemolytic uremic syndrome
    • Does not discriminate centroblasts from centrocytes
    • Uses by pathologists: identify germinal center cells
    • Positive staining - normal:
    • Positive staining - disease: Burkitt's lymphoma
    CDw78
    • Deleted at 7th HLDA Workshop (reasons unknown)
    • Defines a conformation of MHC class II molecules bound to peptides acquired through trafficking to lysosomal antigen processing compartments and not MHC class II molecules associated with tetraspanins (J Immunol 2006;177:5451)
    • Appears on B cells following HLA-DR and preceding CD10, CD19, CD22 and CD37
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: B cells
    CD79a
    CD79b
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD74: renal tumors (figs D-F)

    Missing Image

    CD74: multiple myelomas
    (figs G-J)

    Missing Image

    CD74: increased expression in H. pylori+ epithelium

    Missing Image

    CD75: marginal zone lymphoma (aberrant expression)


    CD71
    Definition / general
    • CD71 is an integral membrane protein that mediates the uptake of transferrin iron complexes
    • In human tissues, CD71 is more highly expressed in placental syncytiotrophoblast, myocytes, hepatocytes, basal keratinocytes, endocrine cells of the pancreas, spermatocytes and erythroid precursors
    • CD71 is present on actively proliferating cells, essential for iron transport into proliferating cells (benign and malignant)
    • Can be expressed by tumor cells; for example, in breast cancers and squamous cell carcinomas of the esophagus
    • Level of transferrin receptor is higher in early erythroid precursors during the intermediate normoblast phase, after which expression decreases through the reticulocyte phase
    Essential features
    • CD71 is a robust immunohistochemical marker in gestational pathology, used for identifying nucleated red blood cells that can help in excluding a complete mole, and for identifying chorionic villi to demonstrate gestation even in the case of massive necrotic hemorrhagic modifications
    • In hematopathology, CD71 is very useful because it is expressed only by erythroid precursors within the normal hematopoietic marrow and spleen and can aid in the correct identification of all erythroid precursors
    • CD71 expression is important for the diagnosis of the acute myeloid leukemia M6 (acute erythroleukemia)
    Terminology
    • Also known as transferrin receptor
    Pathophysiology
    • It is a homodimeric glycoprotein of 760 amino acids that binds to diferric transferrin at the cell surface
    • Binding is followed by the internalization, a mechanism partially regulated by hereditary hemochromatosis protein; diferric iron is subsequently released from transferrin owing to endosomal acidification
    Interpretation
    • To be considered positive, immunohistochemistry for CD71 must stain cell membrane
    • Other locations of staining (e.g. nucleus) are considered not reliable
    Uses by pathologists
    • CD71 is a robust immunohistochemical marker for the detection of nucleated red blood cells and chorionic villi, especially in presence of necrosis (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2016;24:215)
    • Demonstration of nucleated red blood cells can be important in molar pathology, helping to exclude a complete mole (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2016;24:215)
    • Used to detect micronucleated reticulocytes / Howell-Jolly bodies by flow cytometry, also used to test for erythropoietin doping by athletes (Mutat Res 2003;542:77)
    • In hematopathology, CD71 is very useful because it is expressed only by erythroid precursors within the normal hematopoietic marrow and spleen
    • CD71 has particular utility for identification of erythroid precursors, differently from glycophorin that marks all types of red blood cells
    • In hematopathology, it is useful in identifying erythroid precursors in red blood cell hypoplasia and hyperplasia, with or without dyspoietic features (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:723)
    Less common usage
    • CD71 is also useful in the cytometry evaluation of childhood acute lymphoid leukemia, giving potential information regarding patient survival (Folia Histochem Cytobiol 2012;50:304)
    • In lymph node neoplastic pathology, using flow cytometry, CD71 may be a useful tool in the differential diagnosis between primary mediastinal large B cell lymphoma and diffuse large B cell lymphoma, NOS and in the differential diagnosis between Burkitt lymphoma and CD10+ diffuse large B cell lymphoma, NOS (Cytometry B Clin Cytom 2018;94:459, Am J Clin Pathol 2012;137:665)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Luca Morelli, M.D. and Claudio Luchini, M.D., Ph.D.

    CD71 in normal bone marrow

    CD71 in bone marrow in myelodysplastic syndrome

    CD71 in bone marrow in AML M6


    CD71 in placental tissue

    Glycophorin staining

    Positive staining - normal
    • Erythroid precursors, placental syncytiotrophoblast, myocytes, hepatocytes, basal keratinocytes, endocrine cells of the pancreas, spermatocytes and capillary endothelium in the brain
    • Tumor cells may express this marker
    Positive staining - disease
    Board review style question #1
      In gestational pathology, what can CD71 be used for?

    1. CD71 is a useful marker in gestational pathology only in addition with beta HCG immunohistochemistry
    2. CD71 is not a useful marker in gestational pathology
    3. For staining chorionic villi, also in case of necrotic hemorrhagic modifications and for staining nucleated red blood cells
    4. Only for highlighting nucleated red blood cells
    5. Only for highlighting the presence chorionic villi
    Board review style answer #1
    C. For staining chorionic villi, also in case of necrotic hemorrhagic modifications and for staining nucleated red blood cells. CD71 is a very useful marker in gestational pathology. It stains chorionic villi, even in case of massive necrotic hemorrhagic modifications. In these cases, CD71 is of great help since hematoxylin eosin staining cannot always permit their identification. It is also useful since it stains nucleated red blood cells that can help in excluding the presence of a complete mole in gestational pathology.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD71
    Board review style question #2

      In the immunohistochemical image, which type of cells has been stained by CD71?

    1. Erythrocytes
    2. Erythroid precursors
    3. Mast cells
    4. Myeloid cells
    5. Plasma cells
    Board review style answer #2
    B. Erythroid precursors. CD71 is a very helpful marker for staining erythroid precursors.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD71

    CD79a
    Definition / general
    • CD79a, identified as the alpha chain of the B cell antigen receptor complex, is a transmembrane protein synthesized by the CD79A gene located on chromosome 19
    • Expressed over full range of B cell development from early B cell precursors, preceding immunoglobulin heavy chain gene rearrangement and persisting through B cell maturation (Blood 1995;86:1453, Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2001;9:97)
    Essential features
    • CD79a / CD79b are membrane bound immunoglobulins that form the B cell receptor (BCR) complex
    • Expressed from early B cell precursors until advanced plasma cell stages (Blood 1995;86:1453)
    • Membranous and cytoplasmic expression useful for confirming B cell lineage or following therapy with monoclonal antibodies against other B cell antigens
    Terminology
    • Also called MB1 membrane glycoprotein, IgMα and Igα
    Pathophysiology
    • CD79a, a 226 amino acid membrane protein, is the product of the human mb1 gene situated on chromosome 19, specifically at band q13.2 (OMIM: CD79A Antigen; CD79A [Accessed 23 January 2024])
    • Has single extracellular immunoglobulin domain, a transmembrane domain and an intracytoplasmic signaling domain with an immunoreceptor tyrosine based activation motif (ITAM)
    • Heterodimerizes with CD79b (B29) and constitutes an integral component of the B cell receptor (BCR) complex
    • CD79a's cytoplasmic domain enables signal transduction via antigen binding to the BCR, causing rapid protein tyrosine phosphorylation and activation of pathways through the immunoreceptor tyrosine based activation motif (ITAM) (Front Immunol 2018;9:665)
    • CD79a and CD79b are required for surface IgM expression in human B cells (J Immunol 2022;209:2042)
    Clinical features
    • Deletions or mutations in the genes encoding CD79a lead to developmental arrest at the pre-B cell stage and can be a cause of agammaglobulinemia (J Clin Invest 1999;104:1115)
    • Plays an important functional role in maintaining the immature, immune suppressive phenotype of myeloid derived suppressor cells (MDSC) and in inducing the secretion of protumorigenic cytokines, thus, may be a novel target for cancer therapy (PLoS One 2013;8:e76115)
    • Impairment of the glycosylation of μ and CD79a chains is associated with lower levels of expression of IgM in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (Blood 2005;105:2933)
    • Synovial infiltration of CD79a positive B cells correlates with joint destruction in rheumatoid arthritis (J Rheumatol 2011;38:2301)
    • Aberrant staining in megakaryocytes in postinduction acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) cases (cytoplasmic and granular) (Hum Pathol Case Rep 2021;23:200467)
    • Aberrant CD79a positivity in erythroid precursors postchemotherapy in lymphoma patients can complicate minimal residual disease detection after rituximab treatment (Haematologica 2007;92:855)
    Interpretation
    • Membranous and cytoplasmic expression is considered positive; pro-B cells may only show cytoplasmic expression (J Immunol 1991;147:2474)
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    • Some studies report that cytoplasmic CD79a expression is associated with lower survival odds than classical acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with t(8;21)(q22;q22) (Korean J Lab Med 2007;27:388)
    • Cytoplasmic CD79a can be used in monitoring of relapse in B ALL post-CD19 chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cell therapy (Leuk Lymphoma 2022;63:426)
    • CD79a may have independent prognostic relevance for CNS involvement and CNS relapse in pediatric B cell precursor ALL (Commun Biol 2021;4:73)
    • CD79a positivity may be associated with worse prognosis in classic Hodgkin lymphoma compared to CD79a negative classic Hodgkin lymphoma (J Clin Exp Hematop 2020;60:78)
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Narendra Bhattarai, M.D. and Shikha Malhotra, M.D.
    CD79a stain in reactive follicles

    CD79a stain in reactive follicles

    Marginal zone lymphoma

    Marginal zone lymphoma

    CD79a stain, marginal zone lymphoma

    CD79a stain, marginal zone lymphoma

    Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

    Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

    CD79a stain, diffuse large B cell lymphoma

    CD79a stain, diffuse large B cell lymphoma

    CD79a stain, NLPHL

    CD79a stain, NLPHL

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Cervical lymph node, excisional biopsy:
      • Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin (B cell) lymphoma (see comment)
      • Comment: Histologic sections show lymphoid infiltrate in diffuse and vaguely nodular patterns. The lymphoma cells are large with scant to moderate cytoplasm and large nuclei with fine chromatin (LP cells). These cells are in a background of numerous small, mature lymphocytes and epithelioid histiocytes. Immunohistochemical stains show the large, abnormal cells are positive for CD20, CD45, CD79a, BCL6 and PAX5. They are negative for CD3, CD4, CD5, CD8, CD10, CD15, CD30, ALK1, BCL2 and fascin. The large, abnormal cells overlap networks of CD21 positive follicular dendritic cells. Chromogenic in situ hybridization studies with probes for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) encoded small RNA (EBER) are negative. PD-1 is positive on small, mature T cells surrounding the LP cells.
    Additional references
    Board review style question #1

    In Hodgkin lymphoma, what is the usual pattern of CD79a expression in Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg (HRS) cells?

    1. Complete absence of expression
    2. Diffuse and strong positivity
    3. Focal and variable expression
    4. Staining restricted to the nodular areas
    Board review style answer #1
    A. Complete absence of expression. Despite originating from B cells, Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg (HRS) cells in classic Hodgkin lymphoma exhibit a disrupted B cell program, resulting in the loss or downregulation of numerous B cell markers. These include pan-B cell antigens, such as CD19, CD20, CD22 and CD79a, as well as B cell transcription factors, such as OCT2, BOB.1 and BCL6. Answers B and D are incorrect because they do not represent the usual pattern of expression in Hodgkin lymphoma. Answer C is incorrect because some cases may show weak expression of CD79a but it is not the typical pattern.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD79a

    CD79b
    Definition / general
    • Also called B29, B cell antigen receptor complex associated protein beta-chain
    • Encodes the Ig-beta protein of the B cell antigen receptor; the receptor also includes Ig-alpha protein (CD79a) and surface immunoglobulin
    • First expressed in cells with Ig µ chains and remains expressed throughout B cell differentiation to plasma cells
    • References: OMIM #147245
    Uses by pathologists
    Positive staining - normal
    • B cells, plasma cells
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Hairy cell leukemia (usually)

    CD8
    Definition / general
    • Cytotoxic T cell marker (Wikipedia); CD8+ cells are called T cell suppressor cells, cytotoxic T cells
    • Also called OKT8
    Pathophysiology
    • Cell surface glycoprotein, member of immunoglobulin superfamily; at 2p12
    • Heterodimer of an alpha (CD8A, OMIM #186910 ) and a beta chain (CD8B, OMIM #186730 ) linked by two disulfide bonds; each chain has significant homology to immunoglobulin variable light chains; is present as a heterodimer on thymocytes and as homodimer on peripheral blood T cells
    • Both the CD8 antigen (acting as a coreceptor) and the T cell receptor recognize antigens displayed by an antigen presenting cell (APC) in the context of class I MHC molecules; CD8 binds to non-polymorphic region of class I molecules; may increase avidity of interactions between cytotoxic T cell and target cell during antigen-specific activation
    • Can kill target cells by recognizing peptide-MHC complexes on them or by secreting cytokines capable of signaling through death receptors on target cell surface
    • CD8 alpha cells promote survival and differentiation of activated T cells into memory CD8+ T cells
    • CD8 T cell clonal expansions occurr in normal young (PLoS One 2011;6:e21240) and elderly adults (Immunol Rev 2005;205:170)
    • May contribute to initiation, progression and regulation of autoimmune responses (Curr Opin Immunol 2005;17:624)
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD8+ T cell activation requires 2 signals

    Clinical features
    Uses by pathologists
    • Marker of T cells (normal and malignant)
    • Marker of cytotoxic / suppressor T cells
    • Classify lymphomas
    • Differentiate splenic hamartoma (CD8+) from hemangioma or littoral cell angioma (CD8-)
    • Note: use of CD3, CD8 does NOT improve detection of gluten-sensitive enteropathy in duodenal biopsies (Mod Pathol 2013 Apr 5 [Epub ahead of print])
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Case #179

    Splenic littoral cell angioma, sinus lining cells are CD8-



    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Bladder: follicular cystitis (fig D)

    Missing Image

    Skin: cutaneous CD8+ epidermotropic T cell lymphoma

    Missing Image

    Skin: lymphomatoid papulosis (fig B, C)

    Positive staining - normal
    • Cortical thymocytes (70-80%), T cells (25-35% of mature peripheral T cells, mostly cytotoxic T cells), NK cells (30%) and dendritic cells
    • Splenid littoral cells but not littoral cell angioma (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2019;143:1093)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Adult T cell leukemia / lymphoma, littoral cell hemangioma of spleen
    Flow cytometry images

    Case #36

    Anaplastic large
    cell lymphoma:
    partial CD4 / CD8
    coexpression


    CD9
    Definition / general
    Pathophysiology
    • Member of transmembrane 4 superfamily (tetraspanin family); tetraspanins have 4 hydrophobic domains, organize multimolecular complexes in plasma membrane; each tetraspanin associates specifically with integrins and other tetraspanins, forming primary complexes and leading to molecular network of interactions, the "tetraspanin web"
    • Regulates cell motility, development, activation, growth and adhesion (Blood 2011;117:1840), differentiation (OMIM #143030), fertilization (oocyte CD9 is required for sperm-egg fusion)
    • Regulates paranodal junction formation (between neurons and glia)
    • Required for microparticle release from coated-platelets (Platelets 2009;20:361); triggers platelet activation and aggregation
    • Supports myotube maintenance and promotes muscle cell fusion
    • Downregulation in ovarian carcinoma may promote tumor dissemination (Cancer Res 2005;65:2617)
    • May suppress metastasis in small cell lung cancer by promoting apoptosis via calretinin expression (Cancer Res 2010;70:8025, FEBS Open Bio 2013;3:225)
    • May mediate invasion by upregulating MMP9 (PLoS One 2013;8:e67766)
    Clinical features
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Structure

    Uses by pathologists
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Normal tissue:
    Missing Image

    Cerebrum

    Missing Image

    Cervical squamous epithelium (fig A)



    Various tumors:
    Missing Image

    Cervical carcinoma

    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    CNS nonneuroepithelial tumors

    Missing Image

    Gallbladder: well differentiated adenocarcinoma


    Missing Image

    Mesothelioma

    Missing Image

    Skin: basal and
    squamous cell
    carcinoma and
    actinic keratosis

    Missing Image Missing Image

    Small cell lung cancer

    Positive staining - normal
    • Pre B cells, B cell subset, activated T cells, basophils, eosinophils (Am J Respir Cell Mol Biol 2012;46:188), macrophages, megakaryocytes, plasma cells, plasma cell precursors in germinal centers (Biochem Biophys Res Commun 2013;431:41), platelets
    • Brain, cardiac muscle, GI system, kidney (glomeruli, tubules and collective ducts), liver, lymphatic epithelium, ovarian surface epithelium, peripheral nerve, skin, spleen, thyroid, tonsil
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Red blood cells, renal collecting duct carcinomas (almost all)

    CD90-99
    CD90
    • Also called Thy-1
    • May mediate differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells and synaptogenesis in the CNS
    • CD34+ CD90+ cells include hematopoietic stem cells that serve as autologous grafts to replace the bone marrow in patients with malignancies (Biol Blood Marrow Transplant 2000;6:262)
    • Mediates adhesion of various white blood cells to activated endothelial cells (J Immunol 2004;172:3850)
    • Uses by pathologists: hematopoietic stem cell marker
    • Positive staining - normal:
    • Negative staining - disease: Ewing sarcoma and some rhabdomyosarcomas (Am J Clin Pathol 2003;119:643)
    CD91
    CDw92
    CD93
    CD94
    CD95
    CD96
    • Also called T cell activated increased late expression (TACTILE)
    • May be involved in adhesion of activated T and NK cells late in immune response
    • Binds CD155
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: activated T cells and NK cells, B cells (low levels)
    • Positive staining - disease: T-ALL (Exp Hematol 1998;26:1209)
    • References: J Immunol 2004;172:3994, OMIM: 606037 [Accessed 4 May 2021]
    CD97
    CD98
    CD99
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    CD90: normal and diseased skin

    Missing Image Missing Image

    CD93: various images

    Missing Image

    CD93: liver (figure 6B)


    Missing Image

    CD94: normal tonsil

    Missing Image

    CD97: normal oral mucosa

    Missing Image

    CD98: placenta (fig 4)


    CD95
    Definition / general
    • Also called Fas, Apo-1, TNF receptor superfamily member 6, TNFRSF6
    • Cell surface membrane receptor that activates apoptotic pathways when bound by Fas ligand (FasL, CD178)
    • Extrinsic pathway: activation leads to assembly of a death inducing signaling complex (DISC) consisting of CD95, the Fas-associated death domain (FADD) adapter protein, the initiator caspase-8 (previously called FLICE or MACH) and cellular FLICE inhibitory protein (cFLIP), a regulatory protein that can block or promote autoproteolytic conversion of pro-caspase-8 to caspase-8 within the DISC; caspase 8 activates a cascade of caspases that ultimately activates caspase 3, which mediates apoptosis
    • Intrinsic pathway: involves release of cytochrome c from mitochondria, which complexes with apoptosis inducing factor 1, procaspase 9 and ATP, leading to caspase 9 activation, which activates caspase 3
    • Fas-FasL system mediates extra-thymic self-tolerance (FasL+ cells induce apoptosis in infiltrating Fas+ lymphocytes in testis, cornea), T cell mediated cytotoxicity, apoptosis during development, halting of immune response
    • Defects in Fas-Fas ligand pathway (usually Fas but occasionally FasL germline mutations) cause autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome, a rare childhood disorder associated with B cell lymphomas, classic Hodgkin’s lymphoma and nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin’s lymphoma (Leuk Lymphoma 2004;45:423)
    • CD95 downregulation may reduce CD4+ T cells in HIV (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2002;126:28)
    • May be involved in clearance of benign ovarian epithelial inclusion cysts; derangement in pathway may cause ovarian surface epithelial carcinomas (Hum Pathol 2005;36:971)
    • Polymorphisms in Fas or FasL: associated with increased risk of autoimmune hepatitis (Am J Gastroenterol 2005;100:1322), increased risk of type II diabetes (Genes Immun 2006;7:316); Fas -670 AG genotype is associated with increased risk of preterm premature rupture of membranes (Am J Obstet Gynecol 2005;193:1132); Fas -670 AA genotype is associated with reduced liver graft survival (Tissue Antigens 2006;67:117); FAS -1377AA genotype is associated with increased risk of lung cancer (J Med Genet 2005;42:479)
    Prognostic factors
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Cytotoxic T lymphocyte pathway

    Uses by pathologists
    • Prognostic factors (above)
    Positive staining - normal
    • Activated B cells, activated T cells (initially extra but nonfunctional Fas), resting T cells (low levels), numerous epithelium and connective tissue
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Invasive ovarian carcinoma
    Additional references

    CD99
    Definition / general
    • Transmembrane protein with various functions and limited diagnostic utility
    • In the differential diagnosis of small round blue cell tumors
    Essential features
    • Exists in 2 isoforms and has variable oncogenic and tumor suppressor functions
    • Positivity for CD99 is not specific but its absence rules out Ewing sarcoma in the workup of a small blue round cell tumor
    • Dot-like staining pattern has been reported in several disease entities but has so far not been proven to be diagnostically useful
    Terminology
    Pathophysiology
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Oncojanus function of CD99

    Oncojanus function of CD99

    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    Uses by pathologists
    • Rule out Ewing sarcoma / PNET (always shows strong membranous CD99 positivity) if the differential diagnosis is desmoplastic small round cell tumor, Ewing-like sarcoma, neuroblastoma, nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor), small cell carcinoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, olfactory neuroblastoma or small cell osteosarcoma (none show strong membranous CD99 positivity)
      • If CD99 is negative, Ewing sarcoma / PNET is unlikely
      • If CD99 is positive, Ewing sarcoma / PNET needs to be confirmed with additional immunohistochemical and adjunctive molecular testing as many other malignant neoplasms, including lymphoblastic leukemias / lymphomas as well as round and spindle cell sarcomas, are usually CD99 positive (Cancer 1991;67:1886)
    • Detect minimal residual disease by flow cytometry in T cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (CD99 positive) (Leukemia 2004;18:703, Cytometry B Clin Cytom 2018;94:82)
    • May help grade and subtype ependymoma (Medscape J Med 2008;10:41)
    • CD99 (or other immature T cell markers such as TdT and Cd1a) is particularly useful in evaluating mediastinal and other biopsy samples of possible thymic epithelial neoplasms and in the subtyping of these tumors (Am J Surg Pathol 1997;21:936, Diagn Pathol 2007;2:13)
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Frido Bruehl, M.D.

    CD99 in Ewing sarcoma

    CD99 in T cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia

    CD99 in synovial sarcoma

    CD99 in CIC-DUX rearranged sarcoma

    EWSR1-NFATC2 rearranged sarcoma

    EWSR1-NFATC2 rearranged sarcoma

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Additional references
    Board review style question #1

    CD99 immunohistochemistry is helpful in the following diagnostic scenario

    1. Confirm the diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma
    2. Confirm the diagnosis of mesenchymal chondrosarcoma
    3. Rule out the diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma
    4. Rule out the diagnosis of nephroblastoma (Wilms Tumor)
    Board review style answer #1
    C. Rule out the diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma. CD99 cannot be used to confirm the diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma, as other entities in the differential diagnosis may express CD99. Confirmation of Ewing sarcoma requires demonstration of EWSR1 gene rearrangement.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CD99

    CDK4
    Definition / general
    • Complex is key regulator of transition through G1 phase of cell cycle (Genes Cancer 2012;3:658)
    • Also called Cyclin-dependent kinase 4
    • Among cyclin/CDKs, CDK4 and cyclin D1 are the most frequently activated by somatic genetic alterations in multiple tumor types (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2009;106:4166)
    • Well differentiated and dedifferentiated family of liposarcomas demonstrates amplification of chromosome subregion 12q13-q15 with resultant amplification of MDM2 and CDK4 genes
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CDK4 binds with cyclin D

    CDK4 regulation and activation

    Clinical features
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Epitomics

    Breast carcinoma



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Breast carcinoma

    Liposarcoma - dedifferentiated (left), well differentiated (right)

    Positive stains
    • Atypical lipomatous tumor / well differentiated liposarcoma (due to amplification of MDM2 and CDK4)
    • Dedifferentiated liposarcoma arising from atypical lipomatous tumor / well differentiated liposarcoma
    • Dedifferentiated liposarcoma with meningothelial-like whorls (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:356)
    • Low grade osteosarcomas (Mod Pathol 2011;24:624) and high grade osteosarcomas that progressed from low grade osteosarcomas (Am J Surg Pathol 2012;36:423)
    • Some cases of undifferentiated high grade pleomorphic sarcoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:1594)
    Negative staining
    • Carcinoma, lymphoma, sarcomas other than atypical lipomatous tumor / well differentiated liposarcoma (or dedifferentiated liposarcoma arising from it)

    CDw210-219
    Table of Contents
    CDw210 | CD211 | CD212 | CD213 | CD214 | CD215 | CD216 | CDw217 | CD218 | CD219
    CDw210
    • Aka IL-10 receptor
    • Interleukin-10 (OMIM 124092) produced by B cells, T helper cells, and monocyte/macrophages, exhibits diverse activities on different cell lines
    • IL10 inhibits macrophage activation by interferon-gamma
    • Positive staining - normal:
    CD211
    • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
    CD212
    • Aka IL-12 receptor
    • Interleukin-12 promotes cell-mediated immunity to intracellular pathogens by inducing type 1 helper T cell responses and interferon-gamma production
    • Lack of IL12 associated with severe, idiopathic mycobacterial and Salmonella infections, mature granulomas
    • Positive staining - normal: T cells, NK cells
    CD213
    • CD213a1:
      • Aka IL13 receptor, alpha 1
      • Binds IL13 with low affinity
      • With IL4r-alpha, can form a functional receptor for IL13
      • Positive staining - normal: ubiquitous, B cells, T cells and endothelial cells, highest levels in heart, liver, skeletal muscle and ovary
    • CD213a2:
      • Aka IL13 receptor, alpha 2
      • Inhibits binding of interleukin 13 to the IL13 cell surface receptor
      • Positive staining - normal: placenta
    CD214
    • No information available
    CD215
    • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
    CD216
    • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011
    CDw217
    • Aka IL 17 receptor
    • Cytokine that is induced in activated CD4+ T cells
    • IL17 induces stromal cells to produce proinflammatory and hematopoietic cytokines; enhances expression in fibroblasts of ICAM-1
    CD218
    • No information available
    CD219
    • CD Marker not assigned to a set of antibodies as of 20 December 2011

    CDX2
    Definition / general
    • Homeobox gene that encodes a nuclear transcription factor critical for intestinal embryonic development; relatively specific for intestinal epithelium (but see positive staining below)
    Terminology
    • Also called caudal-related homeobox gene 2, caudal type homeobox transcription factor 2
    • Homologue of Drosophila melanogaster homeobox gene-caudal
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by GenomeMe

    Colon (normal), clone IHC402



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Colonic medullary carcinoma

    Quality control of CDX2 staining

    Positive staining - normal
    • Nuclei of intestinal epithelium lining colonic villi and crypts, subset of epithelium of pancreas, stomach, esophagus
    • Urachal remants of glandular type, bladder intestinal metaplasia
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining

    CEA / CD66e
    Definition / general
    • Glycosyl phosphatidyl inositol (GPI) cell surface anchored glycoproteins that function as a ligand for various selectins
    • Immunohistochemical antibodies to carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) are either polyclonal (pCEA) or monoclonal (mCEA)
    Essential features
    • Usually considered an epithelial marker with expression in various adenocarcinomas
    • Can highlight ductal differentiation (i.e., poroma, porocarcinoma)
    • In addition to immunostaining, CEA is a nonspecific serum biomarker that can be elevated in various malignancies (e.g., colorectal cancer)
    Terminology
    • CEA, carcinoembryonic antigen and CEACAM5
    Pathophysiology
    • Normally detected in glycocalyx of fetal epithelial cells
    • Acts as a paracrine factor by activating fibroblasts through STAT3 and AKT1-mTORC1 signaling pathways and promoting their transformation into cancer associated fibroblasts (Int J Cancer 2018;143:1963)
    • Involved in mucosal colonization of bacteria: lipid A, a component of gram negative bacteria, may prevent the release of CEA from mucosal surfaces, facilitating bacterial colonization (Cell Mol Biol Lett 2015;20:374)
    • May play a role in the metastasis of cancer cells by protecting metastatic cells from death, promoting expression of adhesion molecules and survival of malignant cells; promotes angiogenesis (Recent Pat Biotechnol 2018;12:269)
    Clinical features
    • Serum CEA is associated with colorectal carcinoma; preoperative levels can be associated with advanced or metastatic disease and poorer prognosis
    • Postoperatively, failure of CEA to return to normal has been found to be an indicator of residual or recurrent disease (Ann Coloproctol 2019;35:294)
    • Postoperative CEA levels can be useful for detecting early recurrence of lung adenocarcinoma (Korean J Thorac Cardiovasc Surg 2015;48:335)
    • Serum CEA is elevated in allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) (Sci Rep 2021;11:4025)
      • Increased CEA levels correlate with eosinophil levels indicating eosinophils may function to secrete CEA
    • Has been reported to be elevated in patients with COVID-19 pneumonia (J Cancer Res Clin Oncol 2020;146:3385)
    • Pure small cell lung cancer (SCLC) versus small cell lung cancer combined with other pathology (CSCLC): preoperative serum CEA > 6 ng/mL found more frequently in CSCLC than pure SCLC (Adv Clin Exp Med 2017;26:1091)
    Interpretation
    • Variable cytoplasmic or membrane enhancement (focal / diffuse, weak / strong)
    • Varying intensities of circumferential staining in ductal differentiation of the skin
    Uses by pathologists
    • Pulmonary adenocarcinoma: monoclonal CEA can demonstrate increased specificity for lung adenocarcinoma when compared with mesothelioma (Histopathology 2006;48:223)
      • CEA can help to distinguish metastatic lung adenocarcinoma (CEA+ in 53.8%, diffuse cytoplasmic staining with membrane enhancement) from mesothelioma in pleural effusions (Iran J Pathol 2019;14:122)
      • It is noted, however, that a panel of markers is recommended to more reliably differentiate between these 2 tumors
    • Distinguishes between hidradenomas (CEA+) and cutaneous clear cell renal cell carcinoma (CEA-) (J Cutan Pathol 2017;44:612)
    • Hepatocellular carcinoma: canalicular pattern for polyclonal CEA is 50 - 90% sensitive for hepatocellular carcinoma, > 95% specific (Mod Pathol 2002;15:1279)
    • Microvillous inclusion disease of small intestine: pCEA bright apical cytoplasmic blush / staining on surface enterocytes (Ultrastruct Pathol 2010;34:327)
    • Cysts (various): CEA levels > 5 ng/dL in ascites fluid are associated with malignancy (J Clin Pathol 2001;54:831)
    Prognostic factors
    • Breast carcinoma: 88.3% specific and 46.2% sensitive for diagnosis of metastatic disease (Cancer Treat Res Commun 2021;28:10040)
    • Cholangiocarcinoma: elevated CEA levels associated with decreased survival (Sci Rep 2017;7:16975)
    • Colorectal carcinoma: monitor serum levels to detect recurrence (Int J Biol Markers 2019;34:60)
    • Elevated levels are preoperatively associated with a worse 3 year overall survival in invasive urothelial carcinoma (Urol Oncol 2014;32:648)
    • Esophageal adenocarcinoma: elevated pretreatment CEA levels are associated with early treatment failure and decreased overall survival (Am J Clin Oncol 2019;42:345)
    • Extramammary Paget disease (EMPD): CEA levels predict metastasis and treatment response (Br J Dermatol 2019;181:535)
    • Gallbladder carcinoma: CEA > 5 ng/mL can predict metastatic disease in anicteric patients with 80% specificity and 52% sensitivity (BMC Cancer 2020;20:826)
    • Gastric carcinoma: elevated levels aid in diagnosis and are associated with lymph node metastasis (BMC Gastroenterol 2020;20:100)
    • Higher values are associated with unresectable esophageal cancer; is an accurate biomarker of occult advanced disease (World J Surg 2015;39:424)
    • Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm of pancreas: high CEA level in pancreatic juice is an independent predictor of malignant transformation within 5 years (hazard ratio 17, p = 0.02) (J Gastroenterol 2019;54:1029)
    • Lung adenocarcinoma: elevated levels in nonlepidic histologic subtype associated with decreased 5 year survival (Asian Pac J Cancer Prev 2015;16:3857)
    • Medullary thyroid cancer: CEA > 271 ng/mL associated with advanced tumor size, staging, metastasis to central compartment and decreased chance of biochemical cure; CEA > 500 ng/mL associated with significant mortality (J Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg 2018;47:55)
    • Pancreatic adenocarcinoma: monoclonal CEA is 92% sensitive for metastases versus 0% for bile duct adenoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:381)
      • Elevated in 30 - 60% of pancreatic cancer patients and high CEA, > 5 ng/mL, is associated with decreased overall survival (Pancreatology 2016;16:859)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Brandon Umphress, M.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

    Porocarcinoma, ductal differentiation

    Porocarcinoma with invasion into the dermis

    Acrosyringeal unit


    CEA expression in a poorly differentiated carcinoma

    C cells in relation to thyroid follicle

    Clustered C cells

    Positive staining - normal
    • Eccrine sweat glands
    • Granulocytes and epithelial cells (apical surfaces)
    • Biliary tract including gallbladder, colon (fetal), hepatocytes, prostatic secretory cells (25%) and small intestinal crypts
    • Small intestinal goblet cell mucin (not intracytoplasmic), thyroid cell nests and C cells
    Positive staining - not malignant
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining - disease
    Sample pathology report
    • Leg, right anterior, excisional biopsy:
      • Porocarcinoma (see comment)
      • Comment: Histologic sections demonstrate an infiltrating tumor extending into the deep dermis, characterized by significant pleomorphism with areas of ductal formation in a background of hyalinized to desmoplastic stroma. CEA and EMA highlight foci of ductal differentiation, while BerEP4 and MelanA are negative within the lesional cells of interest. The morphologic and immunophenotypic findings are most consistent with a porocarcinoma.
    Board review style question #1
    Serum CEA levels could be useful for monitoring recurrence of which disease state?

    1. Basal cell carcinoma
    2. Colorectal carcinoma
    3. Leiomyosarcoma
    4. Melanoma
    Board review style answer #1
    B. Colorectal carcinoma. Serum CEA levels can be elevated in colorectal carcinoma and can be useful in detecting possible recurrence.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CEA / CD66e
    Board review style question #2

    Which of the following malignancies would most likely demonstrate carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) expression?

    1. Melanoma
    2. Mesothelioma
    3. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
    4. Porocarcinoma
    Board review style answer #2
    D. Porocarcinoma. CEA immunostaining can highlight the presence of ductal formation, aiding in the diagnosis of porocarcinoma. Answers A - C are incorrect because melanoma, mesothelioma and papillary thyroid carcinoma typically do not express CEA.

    Comment Here

    Reference: CEA / CD66e

    Chloroacetate esterase
    Table of Contents
    Definition / general
    Definition / general
    • Also called specific esterase, naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase
    • Useful for demonstrating myeloid differentiation, although negative in 25% of cases, particularly with immature granulocytic and monocytic neoplasms (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2005;129:32)
    • Enzyme cytochemistry-positive: AML-M1, M2, microgranular M3; granulocytic sarcomas, neutrophils
    • Enzyme cytochemistry-negative: ALL

    Chromogranin
    Definition / general
    • Granin protein located in secretory vesicles of neurons and endocrine cells (Clin Invest Med 1995;18:47, Endocr Rev 2011;32:755)
    • Immunostain is specific but not sensitive for neuroendocrine cells; more sensitive in well differentiated versus poorly differentiated tumors
    • Antibody binds acidic glycoproteins in the soluble fraction of neurosecretory granules
    • Serum levels may not be useful for diagnosis but changes in levels may reflect response to therapy or recurrence (Biomarkers 2012;17:186, Folia Biol (Praha) 2011;57:173)
    Terminology
    • Typically refers to chromogranin A or parathyroid secretory protein 1 (gene name CHGA)
    • Chromogranin B is not commonly used and has a different distribution (Mod Pathol 2000;13:140)
    Uses by pathologists
    • Commonly used neuroendocrine marker (also synaptophysin and CD56) for normal cells and neuroendocrine tumors
    • Helps differentiate pheochromocytoma (almost always positive) from adrenocortical carcinoma (almost always negative, Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:423)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Cases #195, #204, #108 and AFIP images

    Bladder: paraganglioma

    Kidney: carcinoid tumor

    Parathyroid gland: ectopic tissue

    Breast: neuroendocrine carcinomas

    Thyroid: medullary carcinoma



    Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

    Typical carcinoid immunoprofile



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Adrenal medulla:
    pheochromocytoma

    Breast: small cell carcinoma

    Heart: metastatic
    pheochromocytoma
    (right side)

    Positive staining - normal
    • Neuroendocrine and ganglion cells in adrenal medulla (chromaffin cells), heart AV node, pancreas (islets), parathyroid (chief cells), thyroid (C cells), other tissues
    • Also bile ductules-reactive and pancreatic acinar cells (occasional, Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:66)
    Positive staining - disease
    • Neuroendocrine and ganglion cell tumors (carcinoid, Merkel cell carcinoma-lung, neuroblastoma, neuroendocrine carcinoma, paraganglioma, small cell carcinoma), neuroendocrine hyperplasia
    • Desmoplastic small cell tumor, middle ear adenoma, parathyroid cyst, pituitary adenoma (Mod Pathol 2002;15:543)
    • Many fetal-type tumors (hepatoblastoma, lung adenocarcinoma-fetal type)
    • Note: granular cytoplasmic pattern in small cell carcinoma reflects neurosecretory granules
    Negative staining
    • Tumors without neuroendocrine components including adrenocortical tumors, chordoma, Ewing sarcoma / PNET
    • Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma (may have rare positive cells), pancreatic solid pseudopapillary neoplasm (occasionally focal staining) (Mod Pathol 2008;21:795)

    CK 8/18 (pending)
    Table of Contents
    Definition / general
    Definition / general
    [Pending]

    Claudins
    Claudins - general
    • Multigene family of integral membrane proteins active in tight junction formation and function
    • Claudins were first named in 1998 by Japanese researchers Mikio Furuse and Shoichiro Tsukita at Kyoto University, based on the Latin claudere ("to close"), suggesting the barrier role of these proteins (J Cell Biol 1998 Jun 29;141:1539)
    • Most claudin genes appear decreased in cancer, while CLDN3, CLDN4 and CLDN7 are elevated in several malignancies (BMC Cancer 2006;6:186)
    • Pathophysiology:
      • Tight junctions (zonula occludens) form continuous barrier to fluids across epithelium and endothelium; regulate paracellular permeability and maintain cell polarity by blocking movement of transmembrane proteins between apical and basolateral cell surfaces (Annu Rev Cell Dev Biol 2006;22:207)
      • Tight junctions are composed of claudin and occludin proteins, which join the junctions to the cytoskeleton
      • Claudin family has > 20 integral membrane proteins, expressed in tissue specific pattern that may determine strength and properties of epithelial barrier; usually cells from a specific organ express multiple claudin proteins
    • Positive staining - normal: epithelial and endothelial cells
    Claudin1
    Claudin4
    [Pending]
    Claudin5
    Claudin7
    Claudin18
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Claudin5: normal and malignant (breast)

    Claudin5: serous papillary adenocarcinoma (ovary)

    Claudin7: synovial sarcoma


    Claudin18: normal lung and stomach (splice variant 2)

    Claudin18: PanIN (left), infiltrating ductal carcinoma (right)

    Claudin18: carcinomas
    of stomach, esophagus,
    ovary (splice variant 2)


    Collagen type IV
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by GenomeMe

    Lung (normal), clone IHC549


    Colon cancer biomarker testing (including MSI / Lynch)
    Definition / general
    • Colon cancer biomarker testing is essential for:
      • Screening for Lynch syndrome: mismatch repair (MMR) by IHC or microsatellite instability (MSI) by PCR
      • Therapeutic and prognostic predictions in advanced colorectal cancer (CRC): KRAS, NRAS, BRAF V600E, HER2
      • Identification of other hereditary polyposis / cancer syndrome in indicated patients: multigene NGS panel
    • Lynch syndrome (LS) is an autosomal dominant, highly penetrant inherited cancer predisposition syndrome, that arises due to germline pathogenic mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes
    Essential features
    • Lynch syndrome is the most common hereditary colorectal cancer syndrome:
      • 2 - 5% of all colorectal cancers
      • 1 in 25 unselected colorectal cancers
    • Lifetime risk of colorectal and endometrial cancers in Lynch syndrome as high as 50% and 60%, respectively; there is also increased risk for cancers of ovary, small bowel, stomach, upper urinary tract, gallbladder, hepatobiliary tract, pancreas, kidney, prostate and brain, as well as sebaceous skin tumors
    • Lynch syndrome screening is cost effective and saves lives (N Engl J Med 2005;352:1851)
    Terminology
    • Lynch syndrome was initially known as hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer (HNPCC); however, this terminology is no longer recommended, as Lynch syndrome patients sometimes develop polyps and are at increased risk for cancers other than colorectal cancer (World J Gastroenterol 2006;12:4943)
    Pathophysiology
    • Lynch syndrome patients have a germline mutation affecting an MMR gene; subsequently, an additional somatic mutation or deletion must be acquired in the other allele of the gene (with the germline mutation) for MMR deficiency to manifest
    • Mutation in a MMR gene results in defective repair of DNA sequence mismatches, which most frequently occurs in long, repetitive DNA sequences (e.g., in microsatellite regions, hence the term microsatellite instability [MSI])
    • Accumulation of DNA mismatches leads to increased risk of developing malignant neoplasms
    • References: Oncol Lett 2019;17:3048, Gastroenterology 2010;138:2073
    Diagrams / tables

    Contributed by Wei Chen, M.D., Ph.D. and Saba Shafi, M.D.

    CRC biomarker testing algorithm

    Clinical features
    • Clinical presentation of Lynch syndrome can vary depending on the MMR gene affected (Diagn Pathol 2017;12:24):
      • MLH1: typically presents with classic Lynch syndrome (colorectal cancer as the first presenting disease at 43 - 46 years)
      • MSH2: classic Lynch syndrome presentation as MLH1, in addition to increased risk of extracolonic cancers (such as Muir-Torre syndrome)
      • MSH6: more likely to develop endometrial cancer
      • PMS2: lower risk and later onset to development of colorectal cancer, compared to the other 3 MMR genes
    • Rare biallelic mutation (constitutional MMR deficiency syndrome):
      • Multiple adenomas at a very young age
      • Very early onset (pediatric) hematological, colorectal, urinary tract and brain cancers and neurofibromatosis type 1-like skin features
    • Muir-Torre syndrome: concurrence of a sebaceous skin tumor with any internal cancer
    • Turcot syndrome:
      • Coexistence of a hereditary colorectal cancer syndrome and central nervous system (CNS) tumors
      • In Lynch syndrome, the most common primary CNS tumor is glioblastoma multiforme
    Interpretation
    • MMR IHC:
      • Control is the key (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2015;23:1, Pathologica 2016;108:104, Surg Pathol Clin 2017;10:977):
        • Staining in neoplastic cells requires a similar or higher intensity than nuclear immunoreactivity in internal positive control (normal basal crypt epithelium, lymphocytes, fibroblasts and endothelium)
        • Loss of tumor staining in areas without internal control staining is not interpretable
      • Cutoff for normal staining: not well studied, evidence based exact cutoff has been established; ranges from any positive reaction in the nuclei of tumor cells (CAP) to 1%, 5% or 10% by different authors (Mod Pathol 2019;32:1, Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:e17)
      • Reporting terminology (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2014;138:166):
        • Use intact or lost, not positive or negative
        • Positive or negative could be misinterpreted as positive or negative for MMR deficiency rather than positive or negative nuclear staining
      • Normal / intact staining:
        • Typically diffuse, strong staining is present in most tumor nuclei of colorectal cancer
        • Can be patchy or show variable staining intensity within one case, due to antibody diffusion, fixation and tissue hypoxia
      • Absent / lost staining:
        • Complete absence of nuclear immunoreactivity within neoplastic cells in the presence of positive internal control (Am J Clin Pathol 2004;122:389, N Engl J Med 2005;352:1851)
          • Loss of only PMS2 staining is suggestive of PMS2 mutation
          • Loss of only MSH6 staining is suggestive of MSH6 mutation
          • Loss of MLH1 and PMS2 staining may be seen in MLH1 associated Lynch syndrome or in sporadic colorectal cancer due to MLH1 promoter hypermethylation (BRAF V600E mutation analysis or MLH1 hypermethylation studies warranted)
          • Loss of MSH2 and MSH6 staining is suggestive of MSH2 mutation
          • If MLH1 or MSH2 is lost, its partner becomes unstable, will be degraded and show loss of protein expression; however, the opposite is not true (the absence of PMS2 or MSH6 does not affect the stability of MLH1 and MSH2 since they can be stabilized by binding to other molecules) (Mod Pathol 2018;31:1891)
        • Note: if most of the tumor shows absent staining but focal tumor staining is present with staining intensity weaker than control, then repeat stain or MSI by PCR is warranted; this pattern most likely represents MMR deficiency
      • Interpretation pitfalls:
        • Cytoplasmic staining: if only cytoplasmic staining is present, it should not be misinterpreted as normal as it is an abnormal pattern; it can be seen in Lynch syndrome with EPCAM-MSH2 fusion and others (Histopathology 2017;70:664)
        • Punctate, granular or dot-like staining pattern is most often observed with the MLH1 M1 clone; if there is concurrent PMS2 loss, this pattern most likely represents MLH1 deficiency and should not be reported as isolated PMS2 loss (Pathol Res Pract 2020;216:152581, Histopathology 2018;73:703, Histopathology 2019;74:795)
        • Postneoadjuvant therapy: treated colorectal cancer may show decreased or absent MMR protein expression, especially with MSH6 and PMS2; further investigation using pretreatment sample can be helpful (Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:1798, Hum Pathol 2011;42:1247, Hum Pathol 2014;45:2029, Hum Pathol 2017;63:33)
        • MSH6 heterogenous staining: may be seen as a secondary change in colorectal cancer with MLH1 / PMS2 deficiency due to somatic mutation of an unstable mononucleotide tract in MSH6; MSH6 germline mutation has not been observed in such cases (Hum Pathol 2020;96:104, Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:1370, Mod Pathol 2013;26:131)
        • Missense mutation with retained protein antigenicity:
          • Presence of MMR staining does not unequivocally exclude the possibility of Lynch syndrome, as certain mutations (especially missense) can produce defective protein that still retains its antibody binding site for IHC (Hum Pathol 2020;103:34)
          • High clinical suspicion for Lynch syndrome and attention to the staining pattern of the partner gene may be helpful
        • Tumor weaker than control: it is necessary to repeat the stain; if it is still weaker than internal positive control, then it should be interpreted as abnormal and additional studies are warranted (Mod Pathol 2019;32:1)
    • MSI by PCR (see microsatellite instability pathway)
    • HER IHC interpretation (see HER2 colon)
    • Patients with constitutional MMR deficiency will show complete loss of staining in both the tumor and normal tissue
      • This can falsely be interpreted as failed staining
      • External controls should be verified
      • This pattern of staining, especially in a child, should raise concern for constitutional MMR deficiency (N Engl J Med 2016;374:772)
    Uses by pathologists
    • MMR IHC or MSI by PCR are the recommended tests for Lynch syndrome screening
    Prognostic factors
    • Patients with MMR deficient colorectal cancer have a better prognosis than those with stage matched MMR proficient colorectal cancer
    • BRAF mutation is associated with poor prognosis
    • References: Oncologist 2016;21:618, Front Oncol 2020;10:563407
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Histological features suggestive of MMR deficiency include:
      • Tumor infiltrating lymphocytes
      • Crohn's-like peritumoral lymphocytic reaction
      • Poor differentiation / medullary growth pattern
      • Mucinous and signet ring cell features
    • Reference: Gastroenterology 2007;133:48
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Wei Chen, M.D., Ph.D.

    MSI CRC histomorphology

    MSI CRC with TILs

    Normal staining (diffuse strong)

    Normal staining (focal variability)


    Absent / loss staining pattern

    Tumor weaker than control

    Cytoplasmic only staining

    Molecular / cytogenetics description
    • Pathogenic variant or epigenetic alteration of MMR genes:
      • MLH1 / PMS2 and MSH2 / MSH6 form 2 functional pairs (MutLα and MutSα respectively)
        • If MLH1 or MSH2 is defective, its partner becomes unstable but not vice versa
        • This pair relationship helps with MMR IHC interpretation
      • Rarely due to EPCAM (TACSTD1) mutation and germline promoter hypermethylation of MLH1
      • Microsatellites are dinucleotide repeat sequences, such as [CA]n, normally present in human genome; microsatellite instability (MSI) is the hallmark of Lynch syndrome associated colorectal cancer (World J Gastroenterol 2006;12:4745)
    • Emerging trends for colorectal cancer biomarker testing:
      • Upfront tumor sequencing in colorectal cancer is simpler and has superior sensitivity to current multitest approaches to Lynch syndrome screening, while simultaneously providing critical information for treatment selection; it may eventually replace MMR IHC or PCR MSI testing (JAMA Oncol 2018;4:806)
      • Multigene next generation sequencing panels that include assessment of somatic and germline mutations in the syndromic genes, are most useful in colorectal cancer patients under the age of 50 or those with high suspicion for hereditary cancer / polyposis syndromes (JAMA Oncol 2017;3:464, Fam Cancer 2020;19:223)
    Molecular / cytogenetics images

    Contributed by Shrihari S. Kadkol, M.D., Ph.D.

    MSI electropherogram

    Sample pathology report
    • Mismatch repair protein (MMR) nuclear expression by IHC: (present / intact or absent / lost)
      • MLH1: ***
      • PMS2: ***
      • MSH2: ***
      • MSH6: ***
    • IHC interpretation:
      • No loss of nuclear expression of MMR proteins: low probability of microsatellite instability high (MSI-H)*
      • Loss of nuclear expression of MLH1 and PMS2: testing for methylation of the MLH1 promoter or mutation of BRAF is indicated (the presence of a BRAF V600E mutation or MLH1 methylation suggests that the tumor is sporadic and germline evaluation is probably not indicated; absence of both MLH1 methylation and of BRAF V600E mutation suggests the possibility of Lynch syndrome, sequencing or large deletion / duplication testing of germline MLH1 may be indicated)I*
      • Loss of nuclear expression of MSH2 and MSH6: high probability of Lynch syndrome (sequencing or large deletion / duplication testing of germline MSH2 may be indicated and if negative, sequencing or large deletion / duplication testing of germline MSH6 may be indicated)*
      • Loss of nuclear expression of MSH6 only: high probability of Lynch syndrome (sequencing or large deletion / duplication testing of germline MSH6 may be indicated)*
      • Loss of nuclear expression of PMS2 only: high probability of Lynch syndrome (sequencing or large deletion / duplication testing of germline PMS2 may be indicated)*
        • *There are exceptions to the above IHC interpretations. These results should not be considered in isolation and clinical correlation with genetic counseling is recommended to assess the need for germline testing.
    Board review style question #1

    A PMS2 immunostain from a colorectal cancer is shown. Your interpretation of the staining in the neoplastic cells is

    1. Abnormal staining
    2. Cytoplasmic and nuclear staining
    3. Normal / intact staining
    4. Nuclear staining
    Board review style answer #1
    A. Abnormal staining. The stain shows adequate staining in the positive internal control cells (lymphocytes and stromal cells); however, the staining in the neoplastic cells is that of cytoplasmic / membranous without nuclear staining. Therefore, it is considered abnormal / lost staining.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Colon cancer biomarker testing (including MSI / Lynch)
    Board review style question #2
    Which of the following histologic features is suggestive of mismatch repair deficiency in colorectal cancer?

    1. Abundant tumor infiltrating lymphocytes
    2. Cribriform gland formation
    3. Extensive tumor necrosis
    4. Lymphovascular invasion
    Board review style answer #2
    A. Abundant tumor infiltrating lymphocytes. All other choices are nonspecific features that can also be seen with mismatch repair proficient colorectal cancers.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Colon cancer biomarker testing (including MSI / Lynch)

    Congo red
    Definition / general
    • Congo red is a direct diazo dye used for staining amyloid in tissue sections (Biosci Rep 2019;39:BSR20181415)
    • This organic compound forms complexes with the misfolded proteins deposited in amyloidosis; analysis of the emission spectra from these complexes reveals the optical reactivity under polarized light, described as apple green birefringence (Acta Biochim Pol 2019;66:39)
    Essential features
    Terminology
    • Also called amyloid stain
    Pathophysiology
    • Amyloidosis is a rare and heterogeneous group of disorders that is characterized by the deposition of abnormally folded proteins (Acta Haematol 2020;143:322)
    • A key event in the development of AL amyloidosis is the change in the secondary or tertiary structure of an abnormal monoclonal light chain, which results in an unstable conformation
    • This conformational change is responsible for abnormal folding of the light chain, rich in β leaves, which assemble into monomers that stack together to form amyloid fibrils (Orphanet J Rare Dis 2012;7:54)
    • Amyloid formation involves a combination of several factors, including a prolonged increase in concentration of proteins that are prone to misfolding as a result of an acquired or hereditary mutation or wild type proteins with an intrinsic propensity to misfold, or a proteolytic remodeling of a wild type protein into an amyloidogenic fragment
      • Under normal conditions, misfolded proteins are promptly eliminated by the protein quality control systems; amyloidosis occurs when these systems are overwhelmed by an increased supply of misfolded proteins or when their processing capacity is reduced due to aging (Acta Haematol 2020;143:322)
    • Amyloid fibril Congo red complex demonstrates green birefringence owing to the parallel alignment of dye molecules along the β pleated sheet
    Clinical features
    • Per the International Society of Amyloidosis, these disorders are classified as systemic or localized and as acquired or hereditary based on the pathogenesis (Amyloid 2020;27:217, J Intern Med 2021;289:268)
    • Most common types are AL, AA, ATTR (amyloid transport protein transthyretin) and dialysis related amyloidosis or beta2M type (StatPearls: Amyloidosis [Accessed 19 April 2022])
    • Congo red stain is mostly used for systemic or localized amyloidosis, such as AL amyloid seen in clonal proliferation plasma cell dyscrasias, AA amyloid associated with inflammatory conditions, Aβ amyloid fibrils in Alzheimer disease and TTR amyloidosis due to either familial gene mutation or wild type protein (formerly called senile amyloidosis)
    • Clinical presentation is heterogeneous and the severity depends on the organ affected; most patients with AL suffer from monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (Nephrol Dial Transplant 2019;34:1460)
    • Cardiac involvement is most often diagnosed in patients with light chain and wild type or hereditary ATTR amyloidosis (Clin Med (Lond) 2018;18:s30)
    • Amyloids can be detected in the kidney, liver, heart, central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, autonomic nervous system, skin and other organs
    • Diagnosis relies on the identification of the fibrillar deposits in tissues and typing of the amyloid (Kasper: Harrison's Manual of Medicine, 20th Edition, 2019)
    • While biopsy on a target organ is most sensitive if amyloid is clinically suspected, a less invasive biopsy is recommended (e.g., abdominal fat) (Hum Pathol 2018;72:71)
    • Emanation of new techniques of proteomic analysis such as mass spectrometry / laser microdissection, has provided greater accuracy in amyloid typing (Protoplasma 2020;257:1259)
    Interpretation
    • Amyloid deposits in tissue exhibit a deep red or salmon color, whereas elastic tissue remains pale pink
    • When viewed under polarized light, amyloid deposits exhibit apple green birefringence, orange-red fluorescence using Texas red filter visualized under ultraviolet light
    • Thickness of the section is critical (8 - 10 μm) (Gattuso: Differential Diagnosis in Surgical Pathology, 2nd Edition, 2010)
    • Rotating the slide or the polarizing filter is important for visualizing the birefringence (Diagn Pathol 2019;14:57)
    • Improved sensitivity is reported when using a metallurgical polarized microscope (Diagn Pathol 2019;14:57)
    • Tissue elements such as collagen, elastin (and others) may display birefringence of varying colors that may be misinterpreted as amyloid (Hum Pathol 2014;45:1766)
      • Do not mistake the blue-green of collagen for the lime green of amyloid
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Christian M. Schürch, M.D., Ph.D. and Kenneth A. Iczkowski, M.D.

    Amyloidosis

    Transthyretin amyloidosis


    Distinguishing the correct color

    Rotation to visualize Congo red

    Optimized AL amyloid imaging

    Breast amyloidosis

    Positive staining - normal
    • None
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Heart, endomyocardium, biopsies:
      • Polarizable material evident by Congo red stain, consistent with amyloid protein
    Board review style question #1

    Which of the following lesions should be negative for Congo red?

    1. Bone marrow in a patient with multiple myeloma
    2. Hyalinizing trabecular adenoma of the thyroid gland
    3. Kidney in a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus
    4. Liver in a patient with systemic light chain amyloidosis
    5. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
    Board review style answer #1
    B. Hyalinizing trabecular adenoma of the thyroid gland. Typical features of hyalinizing trabecular adenoma of the thyroid gland include oval and elongated nuclei, perinucleolar vacuoles, acidophilic nuclear inclusions, fine nuclear grooving and infrequent mitotic figures. Perivascular hyaline fibrosis and cell degeneration can mimic amyloid but these tumors are Congo red negative (Am J Surg Pathol 1987;11:583).

    Comment Here

    Reference: Congo red

    Copper
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Case #388

    Copper stain in liver, Wilson's disease



    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Wilson's disease


    CXCL13 (pending)
    [Pending]

    Cyclin D1
    Definition / general
    • Member of cyclin family of cell cycle regulators; 11q13.3 locus
    Essential features
    • Cell cycle regulator that controls transition from G1 to S phase in normal tissues
    • Mutation leads to increased cell proliferation via disruption of downstream pathways, resulting in tumorigenesis
    • Expression by immunohistochemistry is valuable in diagnosis of some tumors as well as predicting prognosis in a number of tumors
    Terminology
    • BCL1 (B cell lymphoma 1)
    • CCND1
    • PRAD1 (parathyroid adenomatosis 1)
    Pathophysiology
    • Cyclin D1 is activated in the G1 phase of the cell cycle; it activates CDK4, followed by activation of cyclin / CDK (cyclin dependent kinase) complexes leading to progression of the cell cycle to S phase (Proc Natl Acad Sci U S A 2020;117:17177)
    • Also regulates transcription in different cell models (J Clin Invest 2018;128:4132)
    • Tumorigenesis: it binds to either CDK4 or CDK6, resulting in phosphorylation of pRB, E2F release and subsequent promotion of the G1 / S phase transition (Nat Rev Cancer 2007;7:750)
    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Nuclear staining
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Case reports
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Staining is predominantly nuclear
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Nasir Ud Din, M.B.B.S.
    Ewing sarcoma

    Ewing sarcoma

    Ewing sarcoma cyclin D1

    Ewing sarcoma cyclin D1

    Endometrial stromal sarcoma

    Endometrial stromal sarcoma

    Endometrial stromal sarcoma cyclin D1

    Endometrial stromal sarcoma cyclin D1

    Wilms tumor

    Wilms tumor


    Wilms tumor cyclin D1

    Wilms tumor cyclin D1

    Mantle cell lymphoma

    Mantle cell lymphoma

    Mantle cell lymphoma cyclin D1

    Mantle cell lymphoma cyclin D1

    Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm

    Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm

    Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm cyclin D1

    Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm cyclin D1

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Cervical lymph node, excision biopsy:
      • Mantle cell lymphoma (see comment)
      • Comment: The tumor expresses CD5 and cyclin D1 in addition to other B cell markers, with a low proliferative index and negative CD23, consistent with a diagnosis of mantle cell lymphoma. Further molecular testing and clinical workup is recommended.
    Board review style question #1
    Figure A

    Figure A

    Figure B

    Figure B



    A 54 year old man presents with low grade fever, malaise and enlarged cervical and supraclavicular lymph nodes. The biopsy from one of the cervical nodes shows effaced architecture and sheet-like growth of small sized lymphocytes with irregular nuclear contours (Figure A). Immunohistochemical analysis shows positivity for pan B cell markers, CD5 and cyclin D1 (Figure B). The diagnosis in this case is

    1. Follicular lymphoma
    2. Hairy cell leukemia
    3. Mantle cell lymphoma
    4. Marginal zone lymphoma
    5. Small lymphocytic lymphoma
    Board review style answer #1
    C. Mantle cell lymphoma. Follicular lymphoma (answer A) is negative for CD5 and shows positivity for CD10. Hairy cell leukemia (answer B) may show positivity for cyclin D1 but is negative for CD5 and shows positivity for annexin A and other stains. Marginal zone lymphoma (answer D) is negative for both CD5 and cyclin D1. Small lymphocytic lymphoma (answer E) is the main differential diagnosis for CD5 positive B cell lymphomas and may show dim cyclin D1 positivity in proliferation centers.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cyclin D1

    Cyclooxygenase 2 (COX2)
    Definition / general
    • Not related to Cytochrome c oxidase (COX)
    • Cyclooxygenases 1 (COX1) and 2 (COX2), also known as prostaglandin H synthase, catalyze formation of prostaglandin from arachidonic acid
    • COX1 is constitutive form of enzyme on 9q; COX2 is inducible isoform on 1q, has 61% sequence homology with COX1
    • Regulated by mitogens, tumor promoters, cytokines, serum, free fatty acids, NSAIDs, selective COX2 inhibitors
    • Increased expression associated with poor clinical outcome in stage I/II non-small cell lung carcinoma (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2005;129:1113), possibly poorer outcome in follicular thyroid carcinoma (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2005;129:736)
    Interpretation
    • Cytoplasmic staining
    Positive staining - normal
    • Endothelial cells
    Positive staining - disease
    • Breast, colorectal, esophageal, liver, lung, ovary, pancreas, prostate, skin, stomach tumors

    Cytochrome c oxidase (COX)
    Definition / general
    • Also referred to as Complex IV
    • Unique terminal oxidase of the mitochondrial respiratory chain in mammals
    • Located at the inner mitochondrial membrane
    • Catalyzes the transfer of electrons from ferrocytochrome c to molecular oxygen, for proton transfer across the inner mitochondrial membrane and ATP synthesis
    • Complex made up of 13 subunits
      • Three large, catalytic subunits are encoded with mitochondrial DNA
      • Contain all the heme and metal prosthetic groups needed for catalysis
      • The remaining 10 subunits are encoded by nuclear DNA and transported to mitochondria
    • COX biosynthesis requires many assembly factors that are not a part of the final complex
    • Various isoforms of COX exist according to tissue and developmental stage
    • Exists in an active form as a dimer
    • Several prosthetic groups are required for its catalytic function: 2 heme groups, 2 copper centers, zinc and magnesium

    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Synthesis and assembly of COX subunits

    Maturation and insertion of COX into the respiratory chain

    Clinical features

    Cytokeratin 10 (CK10, K10)
    Definition / general
    • Molecular weight of 56.5 kDa
    • Partner of CK1
    • CK1 and CK10 are present in suprabasal terminally differentiating cells
    • Mutations in CK10 or CK1 cause epidermolytic hyperkeratosis / bullous congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma of Brocq (Hum Mol Genet 2006;15:1133, Dermatol Online J 2006;12:6); defects of CK10-CK1 protein network cause structural instability and weakness of keratinocytes, causing blistering, hyperproliferation and hyperkeratosis
    • CK10 is putative autoantigen in chronic, antibiotic resistant Lyme arthritis (J Immunol 2006;177:2486)
    Uses by pathologists
    Positive staining - normal
    • Epidermal spinous and granular cell layers
    Positive staining - disease
    Additional references

    Cytokeratin 14 (CK14, K14)
    Definition / general
    Uses by pathologists
    • Distinguish parathyroid oxyphil adenoma (CK14+) from carcinoma (CK14-, Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:344)
    • Distinguish breast papilloma (stronger and more diffuse CK14 staining) from papillary DCIS (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:625)
    • Distinguish sinonasal squamous cell carcinoma (poorly differentiated or nonkeratinizing, both CK14+) from sinonasal undifferentiated carcinoma or nasopharyngeal carcinoma (CK14-, Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:1597)
    Positive staining - normal
    • Basal keratinocytes in stratified epithelium (various tissue/organs)
    • Hair follicles (Br J Dermatol 2004;150:860)
    • Myoepithelial cells (breast and salivary gland)
    • Thyroid oncocytes
    Positive staining - not malignant
    • Breast papilloma (see above)
    • Odontogenic neoplasms (Oral Dis 2003;9:1)
    • Parathyroid oxyphil adenoma (see above)
    • Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia-spinous and superficial layers of oral mucosa with paracoccidioidomycosis (Med Mycol 2006;44:399)
    • Renal and other oncocytoma (Histopathology 2001;39:455)
    • Thymoma
    • Trichoblastoma
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining
    • Normal oral mucosa, most renal cell carcinomas
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

    Lung SCC



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Breast carcinoma #1 is CK14+ (fig C)

    Squamous cell carcinoma #1 oral (fig e/f)

    Squamoid areas are CK14+ in urothelial carcinoma

    Additional references

    Cytokeratin 17 (CK17, K17)
    Definition / general
    Uses by pathologists
    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Breast myoepithelial hyperplasia (fig 1j)

    Additional references

    Cytokeratin 18 (CK18, K18)
    Definition / general
    Uses by pathologists
    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - not malignant
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Leica Microsystems (Biosystems Division)

    Colon (normal)



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Choroid plexus papilloma

    Additional references

    Cytokeratin 19 (CK19, K19)
    Definition / general
    • Molecular weight is 40 kDa (smallest cytokeratin)
    • Often coexpressed with CK7
    • Present in both simple and complex epithelium
    • Involved in the organization of myofibers; links contractile apparatus to dystrophin at costameres of striated muscle (also CK8, Mol Biol Cell 2005;16:4280)
    • Polymorphisms of CK19 pseudogene are associated with primary biliary cirrhosis (Hepatol Res 2003;25:281)
    Uses by pathologists
    1. Bladder: possible urine screening test for bladder carcinoma (J Egypt Natl Canc Inst 2006;18:82)
    2. Bone / soft tissue: distinguish chordoma (CK19+) from parachordoma (CK19-, Ann Diagn Pathol 1997;1:3)
    3. Breast: presence of CK19+ peripheral blood tumor cells or CK19+ fragments is a poor prognostic factor for breast cancer (predicts CNS relapse, Breast Cancer Res 2006;8:R36)
    4. Liver: distinguish hepatocellular carcinoma (CK19-) from either hepatoid adenocarcinoma metastatic to liver (CK19+, Am J Surg Pathol 2003;27:1302) or cholangiocarcinoma (CK19+, J Gastrointestin Liver Dis 2006;15:9, Am J Clin Pathol 2006;125:519)
    5. Liver: poor prognostic factor in hepatocellular carcinoma (Histopathology 2006;49:138, Cancer Sci 2003;94:851)
    6. Lung: poor prognostic factor for non small cell lung carcinoma (Ann N Y Acad Sci 2006;1075:244, Cancer 2006;107:2842)
    7. Pancreas: poor prognostic factor in pancreatic endocrine neoplasms (Am J Surg Pathol 2004;28:1145, Am J Surg Pathol 2006;30:1588)
    8. Thyroid: confirm diagnosis of papillary thyroid carcinoma in cytology or equivocal cases (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2003;127:579, Mod Pathol 2006;19:1631); help distinguish follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma (CK19+) from (a) follicular adenoma (CK19-, Endocr Pathol 2006;17:213, Am J Clin Pathol 2006;126:700 but see Am J Clin Pathol 2001;116:696), (b) hyalinizing trabecular adenoma (CK19-, Am J Surg Pathol 2006;30:1269), (c) Grave’s disease (weak / negative CK19, Endocr Pathol 2005;16:63), (d) multinodular goiter with papillary areas (Endocr Pathol 2002;13:207); note that CK19 may stain benign thyroid lesions
    9. Metastases: RT-PCR detects nodal and marrow metastases in various carcinomas - bladder carcinoma (poorer survival, Clin Cancer Res 2005;11:3773), breast (Anticancer Res 2006;26:3855, Jpn J Clin Oncol 2003;33:167), gastric (World J Gastroenterol 2006;12:5219), head and neck squamous cell (Br J Cancer 2006;94:1164), skin (Br J Dermatol 2003;149:998); note that pelvic lymph nodes may have false positives (Int J Cancer 2007;120:1842)
    10. Peripheral blood tumor cells: RT-PCR detects peripheral blood tumor cells in carcinoma of cervix (Gynecol Oncol 2002;85:148), colon (Gut 2002;50:530), gallbladder (Rev Med Chil 2004;132:1489), pancreas (World J Gastroenterol 2007;13:257); the significance of these tumor cells is unclear (Ann Oncol 2005;16:1845)
    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - not malignant
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative stains
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

    CK19 expression in PTC

    CK19: prominent membranous and cytoplasmic staining



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Squamous cell carcinoma, oral (fig B)

    Stomach: complete intestinal metaplasia

    Additional references

    Cytokeratin 20 (CK20, K20)
    Definition / general
    • Epithelial marker (MW 46 kDa) with restricted expression compared to CK7 (OMIM #608218)
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Leica Microsystems (Biosystems Division) and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

    Colon (normal):
    CK20 (PW31) with
    intense cytoplasmic
    staining

    Ovarian cancer

    Urothelial carcinoma



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Colonic adenocarcinoma: #1-well differentiated; #2-poorly differentiated; #3-metastatic; #4-primary (fig G) and metastatic to lung (fig H)


    PanIN lesions: CK20+ in grades 1, 2 and 3

    Prostatic adenocarcinoma; #2 with positive staining of verumontanum

    Tubular adenocarcinoma

    Urothelial carcinoma, high grade

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - not malignant
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining

    Cytokeratin 34 beta E12
    Definition / general
    • High molecular weight keratin relatively specific for prostate basal cells
    • Reacts to CK1, CK5, CK10 and CK14 and possibly other keratins
    • Also called CK903, high molecular weight keratin
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Stephen J. Schultenover, M.D.

    Thyroid anaplastic carcinoma



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Low grade bladder neoplasms

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - not malignant
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining

    Cytokeratin 35 beta H11
    Definition / general
    • One of several possible clones for CK8
    • An antibody to low molecular weight (LMW) cytokeratins - more commonly used LMW antibodies are CAM 5.2, CK8 and AE1
    Uses by pathologists
    For this clone:
    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining
    • Basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma (references above)

    Cytokeratin 5/6 and CK5
    Definition / general
    • Basic (type II) cytokeratins of molecular weight 58 kDa (CK5) and 56 kDa (CK6) (Cell 1982;31:11)
    • Common antibodies are directed against both cytokeratin 5 and 6
    • Major partner of CK5 is CK14, while CK6 pairs with CK16/17 (Exp Cell Res 2007;313:2244, Eur J Cell Biol 2004;83:735)
    • CK5 is also detected by antibodies against high molecular weight cytokeratins (such as 34 beta E12, also known as K903) and pan-CK markers (such as CK AE1 / AE3)
    Essential features
    • Stains basal cells of prostate and basal / myoepithelial cells of breast (can be used to rule out invasion)
    • Useful for detecting benign breast proliferations (mosaic-like pattern) versus ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) (negative or rarely diffusely positive) (Pathology 2009;41:68)
    • Together with p63, used to detect squamous cell origin in poorly differentiated carcinomas (Am J Clin Pathol 2001;116:823)
    Terminology
    • K5, K6, keratin 5, keratin 6, basal cytokeratins, intermediate molecular weight cytokeratins
    Pathophysiology
    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Diffuse cytoplasmic staining with perinuclear enhancement
    Uses by pathologists
    • Identify breast basal / myoepithelial cells and prostate basal cells
    • Distinguish breast usual ductal hyperplasia (UDH) and papillary lesions (mosaic-like pattern) from DCIS (usually negative, rarely diffusely positive) (Pathology 2009;41:68)
    • Distinguish epithelioid mesothelioma (CK5/6+ in 83%) from lung adenocarcinoma (CK5/6- in 85%), including in pleural effusions (CK5/6+ in 90% mesothelioma, 0% adenocarcinoma) (Histopathology 2006;48:223, Diagn Cytopathol 2006;34:801)
    • Distinguish cutaneous spindle squamous cell carcinoma (CK5/6+ in 100%) from superficial epithelioid sarcoma (rare focal positivity) (J Cutan Pathol 2003;30:114)
    • Together with p63+, identify squamous origin in poorly differentiated metastatic carcinomas (e.g., cervical) (Am J Clin Pathol 2001;116:823)
    • CK5 preferred to K903 in antibody cocktails for the detection of prostate carcinoma (Diagn Pathol 2012;7:81)
    • As part of panel to discriminate between undifferentiated sinonasal carcinoma (CK5/6-) and other poorly differentiated head and neck tumors (poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma, olfactory neuroblastoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma) (Ann Diagn Pathol 2014;18:261)
    • CK5 used as part of panel to distinguish cutaneous metastasis of breast cancer from sweat gland carcinoma (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2011;135:975)
    • CK5/6 full thickness positivity specific for bladder condyloma acuminatum versus basal / patchy staining in papillary noninvasive urothelial carcinoma (Int J Surg Pathol 2022;30:260)
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Semir Vranić, M.D., Ph.D.
    Missing Image

    Breast tubular adenoma immunoprofile

    Missing Image

    Intraductal papilloma with DCIS immunoprofile

    Missing Image

    Intraductal papilloma with DCIS, CK5/6

    Missing Image Missing Image

    Basal-like triple negative breast cancer


    Missing Image Missing Image

    Apocrine metaplasia of the breast

    Missing Image Missing Image

    Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix


    Missing Image Missing Image

    Apocrine carcinoma of the breast

    Missing Image Missing Image

    Complex sclerosing lesion of the breast

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Breast, core biopsy:
      • Benign breast tissue with usual ductal hyperplasia (see comment)
      • Comment: Sections show mildly distended breast gland lumina filled with a mixed population of cells showing a mosaic pattern expression of CK5/6, consistent with usual ductal hyperplasia.
    Board review style question #1

      Which of the following is an important use of the CK5/6 immunostain?

    1. Confirm a diagnosis of epithelioid sarcoma
    2. Confirm a diagnosis of well differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of skin
    3. Identify a basal-like subtype of triple negative breast carcinoma (TNBC) with poorer prognosis
    4. Identify sinonasal undifferentiated carcinoma
    Board review style answer #1
    C. Identify a basal-like subtype of triple negative breast carcinoma with poorer prognosis (shown in the image above). Answers A, B and D are incorrect because CK5/6 is typically negative in epithelioid sarcoma, well differentiated neuroendocrine tumors of skin and sinonasal undifferentiated carcinoma.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin 5/6 and CK5
    Board review style question #2
      What is the typical immunohistochemical staining pattern in usual ductal hyperplasia?

    1. Diffuse CK5 negativity
    2. Diffuse CK5 positivity
    3. Diffuse ER negativity
    4. Diffuse ER positivity
    5. Mosaic pattern CK5
    Board review style answer #2
    E. Mosaic pattern CK5. Mosaic pattern of CK5 refers to partial staining of the intraductal myoepithelial cell population. Answers A, B, C and D are incorrect because diffusely negative or positive CK5 or ER would indicate a clonal (neoplastic epithelial) cell population. Rarely, a neoplastic cell population can be CK5 positive, therefore use of a panel (CK5, p63, ER) is usually recommended.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin 5/6 and CK5

    Cytokeratin 7 (CK7, K7)
    Definition / general
    Essential features
    • Membranous / cytoplasmic marker with expression in many normal epithelia and epithelial tumors
    • Despite wide distribution, useful as part of a panel in determining primary site of metastatic carcinoma
    • Generally expressed (with some variation) in adenocarcinoma of lung, breast, thyroid, endometrium, cervix, ovary, salivary gland, upper GI tract, urothelial carcinoma, papillary renal cell carcinoma and Paget disease
    • Generally negative (with some variation) in colorectal carcinoma, Merkel cell carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, prostatic adenocarcinoma, adrenocortical tumors and squamous cell carcinoma
    Terminology
    • Also known as keratin 7, CK7, KRT 7, K7
    Pathophysiology
    • Like other keratins, component of intermediate filaments forming cytoskeleton of epithelial cells (J Anat 2009;214:516)
    • Type II keratins, arranged in pairs of heterotypic keratin chains, are expressed during differentiation of certain epithelial tissues (NCBI - Gene - KRT7)
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    • CK7 expression in esophageal squamous cell carcinoma is an independent prognostic factor for poor overall survival (Neoplasma 2018;65:469)
    • CK7 / CK19 index is an independent adverse prognostic factor for postoperative survival in intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma patients (J Surg Oncol 2018;117:1531)
    • No association with prognosis when used as a marker for intestinal versus pancreaticobiliaryorigin in ampullary carcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:865)
    • Expression in cervical low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL / CIN 1) associated with higher rates of subsequent HSIL but clinical utility potentially limited by low magnitude of risk difference and interpretive variability; no prognostic utility in CIN 2 (Am J Surg Pathol 2013;37:1311, Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:143, Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:479)
    • Colorectal tumor cells expressing CK7 may demonstrate invasive capability with metastatic potential (J Cancer 2019;10:2510)
    • High CK7 expression in BRAF-V600E mutated metastatic colorectal cancer confers worse overall survival (Br J Cancer 2019;121:593)
    Interpretation
    • Membranous / cytoplasmic staining, ranging from weak / focal to strong / diffuse
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Kruti P. Maniar, M.D.

    Cervical
    squamocolumnar
    junction

    Cholangiocarcinoma

    Colon

    Liver portal tract


    Lung adenocarcinoma

    Ovarian seromucinous borderline tumor

    Pancreas

    Yolk sac tumor, glandular variant



    Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D., Eddie Fridman, M.D. (Case #194) and Leica Microsystems

    Ovarian cancer

    Urothelial carcinoma

    Urethra: clear cell adenocarcinoma

    Ureter (normal)



    Contributed by Maria Tretiakova, M.D., Ph.D.
    Normal kidney

    Normal kidney

    Clear cell RCC

    Clear cell RCC

    Clear cell papillary RCC

    Clear cell papillary RCC

    Papillary RCC, type1

    Papillary RCC, type1


    Papillary RCC, type 2

    Papillary RCC, type 2

    Chromophobe RCC

    Chromophobe RCC

    Oncocytoma

    Oncocytoma

    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining - normal
    Negative staining - tumor / disease
    Sample pathology report
    • Skin, shoulder, biopsy:
      • Metastatic adenocarcinoma, consistent with breast origin (see comment)
      • Comment: Immunohistochemical staining demonstrates diffuse tumor positivity for CK7, GATA3, ER and PR and negativity for CK20, TTF-1, WT-1 and Pax-8. The morphologic and immunophenotypic findings are consistent with metastatic breast adenocarcinoma. Clinical correlation is recommended.
    • Vulva, biopsy:
      • Intraepidermal adenocarcinoma, consistent with Paget disease (see comment)
      • Comment: Histologic sections demonstrate atypical epithelioid cells with prominent nucleoli and clear-to-pale cytoplasm exhibiting intraepidermal growth in a pagetoid-like fashion. No dermal invasion is identified. Immunohistochemical studies show the cells to be positive for CK7, CAM5.2 and HER2 while negative for SOX10, p63, CK5/6, CK20 and adipophilin. The morphologic and immunophenotypic findings are consistent with primary Paget disease of the vulva. Clinical correlation is recommended to exclude metastasis from an extracutaneous site.
    Board review style question #1
    A 54 year old woman presents with a 10 cm right ovarian mass. Histology demonstrates a mucinous carcinoma and the tumor cells are negative for CK7 and positive for CK20. Which of the following tumors is most likely to demonstrate this immunohistochemical profile?

    1. Metastatic breast adenocarcinoma
    2. Metastatic cervical adenocarcinoma
    3. Metastatic colonic adenocarcinoma
    4. Metastatic gastric adenocarcinoma
    5. Primary ovarian mucinous carcinoma
    Board review style answer #1
    C. Adenocarcinoma of the colon is most often CK7- / CK20+. Breast carcinoma is usually CK7+ / CK20-, cervical adenocarcinoma is usually CK7+ / CK20-, gastric carcinoma can be either CK7+ / CK20- (majority) or CK7+ / CK20+ and primary ovarian mucinous carcinoma is either CK7+ / CK20+ or CK7+ / CK20 variable (although lower GI type mucinous tumors arising in teratoma can be CK7-).

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin 7 (CK7, K7)
    Board review style question #2
    Which of the following is the best immunohistochemical marker for the diagnosis of primary, extramammary Paget disease?

    1. CK7
    2. CK20
    3. p63
    4. SOX10
    5. Uroplakin
    Board review style answer #2
    A. Of the above, CK7 is the best screening marker for primary, extramammary Paget disease. Sox10 would be positive in a melanocytic lesion (i.e. melanoma in situ), p63 positive in squamous cell carcinomas or primary adnexal neoplasms and uroplakin is positive in pagetoid urothelial intraepithelial neoplasia (PUIN). CK20 could be expressed in either metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma or intraepidermal Merkel cell carcinoma (demonstrating perinuclear dot-like positivity).

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin 7 (CK7, K7)
    Board review style question #3
    Which staining pattern would most likely be appreciated in chromophobe renal cell carcinoma?

    1. CK7-/c-Kit-/Hale’s Colloidal Iron-
    2. CK7+/c-Kit-/Hale’s Colloidal Iron-
    3. CK7+/c-Kit+/Hale’s Colloidal Iron-
    4. CK7+/c-Kit+/Hale’s Colloidal Iron+
    Board review style answer #3
    D. Classically, chromophobe renal cell carcinoma would be positive for CK7, c-Kit (or CD117) and Hale’s colloidal iron. Oncocytoma may demonstrate scattered CK7 positivity while conventional clear cell RCC is usually CK7 negative. Additionally, chromophobe RCC can stain diffusely for Hale’s colloidal iron while oncocytoma may show apical, non-diffuse staining. It must also be noted that, despite the above immunohistochemical studies, the distinction between different oncocytic / eosinophilic neoplasms can often be challenging as many of the entities may demonstrate significant morphologic overlap.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin 7 (CK7, K7)

    Cytokeratin 8 (CK8, K8)
    Definition / general
    Uses by pathologists
    Positive staining - normal
    • Gallbladder
    • Intestine
    • Liver (hepatocytes and bile ductules)
    • Pancreas
    • Prostate (basal cells and secretory cells)
    • Simple type (single layer) epithelium including breast ducts (luminal cells)
    Positive staining - not malignant
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Leica Microsystems (Biosystems Division)

    Colon (normal)
    CK8 / 18 (5D3)
    with intense cytoplasmic
    and membranous staining



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Hepatocytes (residual)
    are CK8+ in embryonal
    sarcoma of liver

    Liver disease (various)

    Prostatic adenocarcinoma-top and benign prostate bottom

    Squamous cell carcinoma-oral (fig C/D)

    Additional references

    Cytokeratin AE1 / AE3
    Definition / general
    • Mixture of 2 different clones of anticytokeratin (CK) monoclonal antibodies (AE1 and AE3), which functions as a broad spectrum cytokeratin marker (Ann Surg Oncol 2011;18:S261)
    • AE1 detects the high molecular weight cytokeratins 10, 14, 15 and 16 and the low molecular weight cytokeratin 19
    • AE3 detects the high molecular weight cytokeratins 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 and the low molecular weight cytokeratins 7 and 8
    • Not reactive to cytokeratins 17 and 18
    Essential features
    • Mixture of 2 different clones of anticytokeratin monoclonal antibodies (AE1 and AE3), which functions as a broad spectrum cytokeratin marker for cytokeratins 1 - 8, 10, 14 - 16 and 19
    • Immunoreactivity is observed in epithelia and most carcinomas (i.e., tumors of epithelial origin), with cytoplasmic and membranous positivity
    • Normal liver is recommended as an on slide positive external control
    • CK AE1 / AE3 immunohistochemistry is used for assessment of occult lymph node metastases, residual disease after neoadjuvant therapy, invasion depth and tumor budding in multiple carcinomas
    • CK AE1 / AE3 is rarely used as a standalone immunohistochemical analysis but rather as part of a panel when used to confirm or rule out epithelial nature of tumors
    Terminology
    • Pankeratin, broad spectrum keratin or keratin: not preferred as this can also refer to cytokeratin MNF116 and (to a lesser extent) CAM5.2
    Pathophysiology
    • Cytokeratins are proteins of the cytoskeletal intermediate filaments, which allow cells to cope with mechanical stress
    • Type I cytokeratins are acidic and type II cytokeratins are basic, either with high or low molecular weight; acidic and basic cytokeratins often form heterodimeric pairs (Ann N Y Acad Sci 1985;455:282)
    • Their expression varies throughout the tissue type and is mainly organ specific, which allows their use to identify the primary origin of a metastatic tumor (Ann N Y Acad Sci 1985;455:282, Arch Pathol Lab Med 2017;141:1014)
    Interpretation
    • Normal pattern in epithelium: cytoplasmic staining reaction with accentuation of the cellular membrane
    • Dot-like pattern in certain tumors, such as neuroendocrine neoplasms
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    • Micrometastases and isolated tumor cells are generally associated with poorer prognosis in many cancer types:
      • Occult tumor cells are associated with poor recurrence free survival and increased risk of cancer related death in gastric cancer patients staged as pN0 (Ann Surg Oncol 2020;27:4204)
      • Micrometastasis is associated with worse recurrence free survival and overall survival in stage I lung adenocarcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:1212)
      • Lymph node micrometastasis is more frequently observed in stage I lung adenocarcinoma with a micropapillary component (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:1212)
      • Presence of micrometastases and isolated tumor cells in (early stage) breast cancer is associated with poorer disease free and overall survival; however, NSABP-32 findings support that local radiation and systemic therapy, particularly endocrine therapy, may attenuate the unfavorable effect (J Natl Cancer Inst 2010;102:410, Br J Cancer 2018;118:1529, N Engl J Med 2011;364:412)
      • CK AE1 / AE3 immunohistochemistry is not recommended for routine evaluation of pelvic lymph nodes in prostate cancer patients as it does not reveal additional information to a standard hematoxylin and eosin section (Virchows Arch 2014;464:45)
    • Although tumor budding is assessed in one hotspot at the invasive front (in a field measuring 0.785 mm2) of a single hematoxylin / eosin stained slide, CK AE1 / AE3 immunohistochemistry may help to identify hotspots (Virchows Arch 2021;479:459, Mod Pathol 2017;30:1299)
    • Tumor budding is associated with poor prognosis in several cancer types:
      • High budding in colorectal carcinoma is associated with higher tumor grade, higher TNM stage, vascular invasion and reduced survival (Mod Pathol 2013;26:295)
      • Tumor budding in colorectal carcinoma is classified as follows (Mod Pathol 2017;30:1299):
        • Bd1 (low budding) : 0 - 4 buds per 0.785 mm2
        • Bd2 (intermediate budding) : 5 - 9 buds per 0.785 mm2
        • Bd3 (high) : ≥ 10 buds per 0.785 mm2
      • Tumor budding in tongue squamous cell carcinoma and colorectal carcinoma is defined as a single cancer cell or small cluster of < 5 cancer cells at the tumor's invasive front (Hum Pathol 2018;76:1, Mod Pathol 2017;30:1299)
      • Tumor budding score ≥ 4 is a significant predictor of occult metastasis in cT2N0 tongue squamous cell carcinoma (Hum Pathol 2018;76:1)
      • High tumor budding is associated with worse overall survival in resected esophageal adenocarcinoma (Virchows Arch 2021;478:393)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Mieke R. Van Bockstal, M.D., Ph.D., Christine Galant, M.D., Ph.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
    Serous carcinoma Serous carcinoma

    Serous carcinoma

    Mammary spindle cell carcinoma Mammary spindle cell carcinoma

    Mammary spindle cell carcinoma

    Mammary desmoid fibromatosis Mammary desmoid fibromatosis

    Mammary desmoid fibromatosis


    Residual breast carcinoma Residual breast carcinoma

    Residual breast carcinoma

    Ileal neuroendocrine tumor Ileal neuroendocrine tumor

    Ileal neuroendocrine tumor

    Chordoma Chordoma

    Chordoma


    Juvenile granulosa cell tumor Juvenile granulosa cell tumor

    Juvenile granulosa cell tumor

    Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

    Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

    Uterine tumor resembling ovarian sex cord tumor (UTROSCT) Uterine tumor resembling ovarian sex cord tumor (UTROSCT)

    Uterine tumor resembling ovarian sex cord tumor (UTROSCT)


    Normal liver Normal liver

    Normal liver

    Normal lymph node

    Normal lymph node

    Gastric MALT lymphoma Gastric MALT lymphoma

    Gastric MALT lymphoma

    Papillary thyroid cancer

    Papillary thyroid cancer

    Cytology images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    CK AE1 / AE3 highlights reactive mesothelial cells

    CK AE1 / AE3 highlights reactive mesothelial cells

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Immunohistochemical analysis for cytokeratin AE1 / AE3, performed on an automated slide stainer (brand name):
      • The tissue sample shows no / focal / diffuse* dot-like / cytoplasmic / membrane* staining with weak / moderate / strong* intensity.
      • External on slide tissue control (liver - in accordance with the NordiQC recommendations): positive
    • * Select the appropriate option

    • Biopsy, left breast (external superior quadrant):
      • Desmoid fibromatosis of the breast, with presence of an APC gene mutation (see comment)
      • Number of biopsies: 2
      • Maximum length of the biopsy: 14 mm
      • Lesion type / histological description: Both biopsies show a spindle cell proliferation with fascicular architecture. In one of these biopsies, diffuse infiltration of the fatty stroma is observed. The spindle cells are bland, elongated and slender, with a pale slightly eosinophilic cytoplasm. They are surrounded by a densely collagenous stroma. There is no overt cytonuclear atypia, no clear nucleoli and no nuclear hyperchromasia. There are < 1 mitosis per 10 high power fields.
      • Presence of calcifications: no
      • Immunohistochemistry and discussion: Immunohistochemical stains for p63, cytokeratin AE1 / AE3, cytokeratin 8/18 and cytokeratin 34betaE12 are negative, which excludes a low grade fibromatosis-like metaplastic breast carcinoma. Immunohistochemical stains for SOX10 and S100 are negative, which excludes a neurofibroma. There is no immunoreactivity for desmin, which excludes a leiomyoma. Immunohistochemistry for CD34 is negative, which excludes a myofibroblastoma and PASH with fascicular architecture. The spindle cells show cytoplasmic immunoreactivity for SMA and beta catenin. There is no nuclear expression of beta catenin.
      • Molecular analysis and discussion: FISH analysis did not show USP6 rearrangement, which excludes a nodular fasciitis. Next generation sequencing of the tumor sample did not show any mutations in the CTNNB1 gene but revealed a c.4626_4645del; p.(Lys1543Argfs*9) mutation in the APC gene, with a variant allele frequency of 52%.
      • Comment: APC gene mutations are commonly observed in breast desmoid fibromatosis and might either be somatic or germline (Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:1266).
      • Recommendation: These findings are to be correlated with the clinical history and family history of the patient, as a germline APC mutation (Gardner / familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome) should be excluded.
    Board review style question #1
    Which of the following tissues is the best choice as a positive on slide control for cytokeratin AE1 / AE3 immunohistochemistry?

    1. Adrenal gland
    2. Appendix
    3. Gastric mucosa
    4. Liver
    5. Placenta
    Board review style answer #1
    D. Liver. The liver shows strong, distinct cytoplasmic immunoreactivity of all bile ductal epithelial cells, as well as at least moderate cytoplasmic staining of the majority of hepatocytes. Hepatocytes show membrane accentuation. A low expressor (such as hepatocytes) is required to enable the detection of a slightly failing immunohistochemical staining reaction (resulting in insufficient intensity in low expressors), as strong expressors (such as most epithelia) will still present with an intense cytoplasmic staining.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin AE1 / AE3
    Board review style question #2
    Which of the following tumors is predominantly positive for cytokeratin AE1 / AE3?

    1. Adrenocortical carcinoma
    2. Aggressive angiomyxoma
    3. Benign meningioma
    4. Paraganglioma
    5. STK11 adnexal tumor
    Board review style answer #2
    E. STK11 adnexal tumor. 93% of STK11 adnexal tumors present at least some immunoreactivity for CK AE1 / AE3, whereas 72% of aggressive angiomyxomas are negative for CK AE1 / AE3. Nearly all benign meningiomas, 84% of adrenocortical carcinomas and 98% of paragangliomas do not present any immunoreactivity for CK AE1 / AE3.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin AE1 / AE3
    Board review style question #3

    This tissue was stained for cytokeratin AE1 / AE3. Which is the correct statement?

    1. The protocol of this immunohistochemical stain should be revised as lymphoid tissue should not show any immunoreactivity for cytokeratin AE1 / AE3
    2. This axillary lymph node contains isolated tumor cells from an invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast
    3. This axillary lymph node shows weak to moderate cytoplasmic staining in interstitial reticulum cells with dendritic / reticular pattern
    4. This immunohistochemical staining pattern is compatible with a nodal histiocytic sarcoma
    Board review style answer #3
    C. This axillary lymph node shows weak to moderate cytoplasmic staining in interstitial reticulum cells with dendritic / reticular pattern. The tissue shown in the photograph is a normal lymph node. A weak to moderate cytoplasmic staining reaction in the interstitial reticulum cells of a lymph node is normal and therefore the protocol of this stain should not be revised. Normal liver is a better external control tissue than a lymph node, as it contains both low and high expressors of CK AE1 / AE3.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin AE1 / AE3

    Cytokeratin CAM 5.2
    Definition / general
    • Low molecular weight keratin that mainly reacts with human keratin proteins corresponding to Moll's peptides #7 (KRT7, 48 KD) and #8 (KRT8, 52 KD) on secretory epithelia of normal human tissue and associated adenocarcinomas
    Essential features
    • Low molecular weight keratin (mainly reacts with K7 and K8)
    • Diffuse and strong cytoplasmic expression but some tumors show dot-like staining pattern
    • Almost all glandular epithelia and adenocarcinomas are positive, whereas squamous epithelium and squamous cell carcinomas usually do not show CAM 5.2 expression
    • Excellent accompaniment to pankeratin in the immunopanel to confirm or rule out the epithelial nature of tissue, tumors or components of tumors
    • References: Cell 1982;31:11, J Clin Pathol 1984;37:975, Am J Pathol 1990;136:657
    Terminology
    • Antibody generated by using the human colorectal carcinoma cell line HT24
    • Anti-CAM 5.2 reacts with the majority of epithelial tumors, including lung, liver, pancreas, GI tract, breast, genitourinary system, female reproductive organs and some endocrine organs (Cell 1982;31:11)
    • Not a pankeratin but reacts with many epithelia and their neoplasms due to the abundance of K7 and K8 throughout the body
    Pathophysiology
    • There is controversy regarding which keratins CAM 5.2 reacts with; it was originally described as highlighting both K8 and K18 by Makin et al. but now it has been shown to react with K7 and K8, not K18 and K19 (J Clin Pathol 1984;37:975, Am J Pathol 1990;136:657)
    • K7 and K8 antigens are widespread in human epithelia, especially on secretory epithelia but not on the stratified squamous epithelium
    Interpretation
    • Cytoplasmic staining, usually diffuse and strong
    • Dot-like staining especially in neuroendocrine tumors, rhabdoid tumors, desmoplastic small round cell tumor, etc.
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Usually strong and diffuse cytoplasmic staining in adenocarcinomas or can be dot-like, especially in neuroendocrine tumors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Kemal Kösemehmetoğlu, M.D.
    Normal liver

    Normal liver

    Colon mucosa

    Colon mucosa

    Tonsil

    Tonsil

    Pancreas

    Pancreas

    Peritoneum

    Peritoneum

    Dendritic cell staining in lymph node

    Dendritic cell staining in lymph node


    Signet ring carcinoma of stomach Signet ring carcinoma of stomach

    Signet ring carcinoma of stomach

    Signet ring carcinoma infiltrating omentum Signet ring carcinoma infiltrating omentum

    Signet ring carcinoma infiltrating omentum

    Paget disease of nipple Paget disease of nipple

    Paget disease of nipple


    Nipple duct adenoma Nipple duct adenoma

    Nipple duct adenoma

    High grade neuroendocrine carcinoma High grade neuroendocrine carcinoma

    High grade neuroendocrine carcinoma


    CAM 5.2 in Crooke cell adenoma CAM 5.2 in Crooke cell adenoma CAM 5.2 in Crooke cell adenoma

    CAM 5.2 in Crooke cell adenoma

    CAM 5.2 in sparsely granulated somatotroph adenoma CAM 5.2 in sparsely granulated somatotroph adenoma CAM 5.2 in sparsely granulated somatotroph adenoma

    CAM 5.2 in sparsely granulated somatotroph adenoma


    CAM 5.2 in sarcomatoid carcinoma CAM 5.2 in sarcomatoid carcinoma CAM 5.2 in sarcomatoid carcinoma

    CAM 5.2 in sarcomatoid carcinoma

    Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor of the bladder Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor of the bladder

    Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor of the bladder


    CAM 5.2 in epithelioid sarcoma (proximal variant) CAM 5.2 in epithelioid sarcoma (proximal variant) CAM 5.2 in epithelioid sarcoma (proximal variant)

    CAM 5.2 in epithelioid sarcoma (proximal variant)

    CAM 5.2 in desmoplastic small round cell tumor CAM 5.2 in desmoplastic small round cell tumor

    CAM 5.2 in desmoplastic small round cell tumor

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Omentum, biopsy:
      • Adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell type (see comment)
      • Comment: Histologic sections show a small number of signet ring-like discohesive and monotonous cells highlighted by CAM 5.2 and mucicarmine.
    Board review style question #1
    Which one of the following diagnoses is expected to show dot-like staining with CAM 5.2?

    1. Malignant mesothelioma
    2. Paget disease of nipple
    3. Sarcomatoid carcinoma
    4. Signet ring carcinoma
    5. Sparsely granulated hypophyseal adenoma
    Board review style answer #1
    E. Sparsely granulated hypophyseal adenoma. Sparsely granulated somatotroph tumors have distinct fibrous bodies that appear as pale spherical inclusions on H&E staining and stain strongly with CAM 5.2 and CK18 antibodies as well as AE1 / AE3. There is a growing evidence that sparsely granulated somatotroph adenomas are larger, more common in younger female patients and are more proliferative and infiltrative (Endotext: Pathology and Pathogenesis of Pituitary Adenomas and Other Sellar Lesions [Accessed 5 January 2023]).

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin CAM 5.2
    Board review style question #2


    A 30 year old male nonsmoker with hematuria has undergone transurethral resection. The bladder mass invades the muscularis propria (not shown); histological morphology and CAM 5.2 expression are shown above. Which antibody should be requested to reach the correct diagnosis of inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor?

    1. ALK
    2. Desmin
    3. DOG1
    4. GATA3
    5. Pankeratin
    Board review style answer #2
    A. ALK. Keratin expression is a common finding in inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor of bladder. In this morphological setting characterized by spindle cells with inflammatory background, ALK expression along with SMA in myofibroblastic staining pattern will lead to the correct diagnosis of inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor. Here, the diagnosis of sarcomatoid carcinoma is a major pitfall given the abundant keratin expression and infiltrative pattern (Am J Surg Pathol 2006;30:1502).

    Comment Here

    Reference: Cytokeratin CAM 5.2

    Cytokeratin MNF 116
    Definition / general
    • Broad spectrum cytokeratin marker which stains high and low molecular weight cytokeratins (CK 5, 6, 8, 17 and probably 19)
    Uses by pathologists
    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative stains
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Case #78

    Cardiac myxoma with glandular differentiation



    Images hosted on other servers:

    Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is MNF116+ (fig A)


    Cytokeratins (CK) - general
    Definition / general
    • Definition: family of water-insoluble intracytoplasmic structural proteins that are the dominant intermediate filament proteins of epithelial and hair forming cells; also present in epithelial tumors
    • Within a cell, form a dense network radiating from the nucleus to the plasma membrane
    • Act as cytoplasmic scaffold that gives epithelial cells the ability to sustain mechanical and non-mechanical stress
    • Keratin intermediate filaments are highly dynamic structures and are reorganized during mitosis and apoptosis; reorganization is mediated by posttranslational phosphorylation, glycosylation, transglutamination and proteolysis, or through interaction with 14-3-3 or other proteins
    • Expression depends on cell type and differentiation status
    • Over 25 subtypes are defined based on molecular weight (40 to 68 kDa) and isoelectric pH (5 to 8)
    • Moll catalog number (Cell 1982;31:11) ranges from 1 (highest molecular weight) to 23 (lowest molecular weight)
    • New nomenclature exists (J Cell Biol 2006;174:169)
    • Divided into Type I (acidic; CK10, CK12-19, 40-56.5 kDa) and Type II (neutral-basic, CK1-CK8, 53-67 kDa)
    • Type I genes are expressed at 17q21.2, type II genes at 12q13.13
    • Proteins are obligate heteropolymers with equimolar amounts of type I and type II proteins that form functional filaments, such as CK8/18, CK5/14, CK1/10
    • Also divided into low molecular weight (CAM 5.2, 34 beta E11) and high molecular weight (34 beta E12); pankeratin cocktails contain AE1 and AE3 and possibly also CAM 5.2
    • Genes are KRT1 for keratin 1, KRT2 for keratin 2, etc.
    • Pankeratin: immunohistochemical stain that reacts to a wide range of keratins
    Uses by pathologists
    • Diagnose epithelial (cytokeratin+) versus nonepithelial cells / tumors (usually cytokeratin negative but there are many exceptions)
    • Diagnose particular types of epithelial tumors based on staining patterns of particular cytokeratins - dot like staining is suggestive of neuroendocrine tumors
    • In rebiopsies of tumors, don’t assume that all keratin+ cells are residual tumor cells (Am J Surg Pathol 2007;31:390)
    • Pathologists generally use a pancytokeratin because it includes a variety of cytokeratins and thus is more sensitive
    Negative staining
    • Endothelium, mesenchymal cells

    Cytokeratins - uncommon
    Cytokeratin 1 (CK1)
    • Highest molecular weight keratin (67 - 68 kDa)
    • Produced by KRT1 gene in complex manner (PLoS Genet 2006;2:e93)
    • Associates with CK10
    • Keratin 1b is expressed in eccrine sweat glands (J Invest Dermatol 2005;125:428)
    • Reduced expression in HPV infection (Cancer Res 1990;50:3709)
    • Mutations are associated with:
    • No significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: endothelial cells, skin and other squamous epithelium (suprabasal spinous and granular layers), thymic Hassal’s corpuscle
    • Positive staining - disease: angiosarcoma (73%), epithelioid hemangioendothelioma (100%), epithelioid sarcoma (70%), hemangioma (often), schwannoma (62%), squamous cell carcinomas (keratinizing), synovial sarcoma (28%), vascular tumors (greater in well versus poorly differentiated tumors)
    • References: Hum Pathol 2001;32:873, OMIM 139350
    Cytokeratin 2 (CK2)
    • Molecular weight (CK2e) is 65.5 - 65.8 kDa
    • Associates with CK10
    • Mutations cause ichthyosis bullosa of Siemens (Br J Dermatol 2005;152:1353)
    • K2e (epidermis) and K2p (palate) are encoded by separate genes, with < 75% identity at primary structural level; thus, are not true isoforms, although they cannot be distinguished by conventional 2D electrophoresis
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: skin (upper spinous and granular cells) (Br J Dermatol 1999;140:582)
    • References: OMIM 600194, Exp Cell Res 1992;202:132
    Cytokeratin 3 (CK3)
    • Molecular weight is 64 - 65 kDa
    • Associates with CK12
    • Mutations in KRT3 gene may cause Meesmann corneal dystrophy (Cornea 2005;24:928)
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: corneal epithelium (full thickness), limbus epithelium (suprabasal)
    • Negative staining: conjunctival epithelium
    • Reference: OMIM 148043
    Cytokeratin 4 (CK4)
    • Molecular weight is 59 kDa
    • Associates with CK13
    • Downregulated in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (Acta Otolaryngol 2006;126:967)
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Case report: young man with novel mutation in the keratin 4 gene causing white sponge naevus (Br J Dermatol 2003;148:1125)
    • Positive staining - normal: suprabasal cells of nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium of esophagus and cornea; also anus, larynx, pharynx, tongue (J Biol Chem 1998;273:23912)
    • Reference: OMIM 123940
    Cytokeratin 9 (CK9)
    Cytokeratin 11 (CK11)
    • Very little information is present on CK11
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: keratinizing epidermal squamous cells
    Cytokeratin 13 (CK13)
    • Molecular weight is 53 kDa
    • Pairs with CK4
    • Marker of mature but nonkeratinized squamous epithelium
    • Downregulated in squamous cell carcinoma of head and neck and other sites (Oral Oncol 2005;41:183, Virchows Arch A Pathol Anat Histopathol 1991;418:249)
    • Sensitive marker for retinoid bioactivity in skin warts of renal transplant recipients (Arch Dermatol 2002;138:61)
    • Mutation causes familial white sponge nevus (J Dent Res 2001;80:919)
    • Cable piliated Burkholderia cepacia binds to cytokeratin 13 of epithelial cells (Infect Immun 2000;68:1787)
    • Uses by pathologists: no significant clinical use by pathologists
    • Positive staining - normal: suprabasal layers of noncornified stratified epithelium, including squamous (nonkeratinized) epithelia of cervix, esophagus, larynx, oral cavity, tonsils, urothelium and respiratory type epithelium; may be filled with mucoid material or foamy macrophages
    • Positive staining - disease: Brenner tumor; squamous metaplasia; squamous cell carcinoma (10%); urothelial carcinoma (well differentiated)
    • Negative staining: epidermis
    • References: J Dent Res 2001;80:919, OMIM 148065
    Cytokeratin 15 (CK15)
    Cytokeratin 16 (CK16)
    Cytokeratin KL-1
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    CK3: suprabasal staining
    of limbus epithelium
    cultured using
    airlifting technique


    Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Leica Microsystems, Biosystems Division

    Placenta - CMV early gene RNA using probe (PB0614) ISH


    D2-40 (Podoplanin)
    Definition / general
    • Podoplanin is a 40 kDa, transmembrane, oncofetal, O linked sialoglycoprotein (mucin type) found on lymphatic endothelium, mesothelium and fetal testis (also other cells as indicated below)
    • D2-40 is a monoclonal antibody that reacts to podoplanin
    • Podoplanin expression is encoded by the PDPN gene (1p36.21) and regulated by the PROX1 gene
    Essential features
    • D2-40 is a monoclonal antibody that reacts to podoplanin showing membranous staining
    • Mostly used to show lymphatics (e.g. lymphovascular invasion) and lymphatic differentiation in vascular tumors
    • Also useful as a part of IHC panel in mesothelioma versus adenocarcinoma and seminoma versus nonseminoma differentiation
    Terminology
    • Podoplanin is also known as Aggrus, OTS8, gp36, M2A and T1A2
    Pathophysiology
    • Increases endothelial cell adhesion, migration and tube formation
    • Platelet aggregation (Aggrus)
    • Barrier function in high endothelial venules
    • Maintenance of physical elasticity of lymph nodes
    • Reference: OMIM: Podoplanin; PDPN [Accessed 28 October 2021]
    Interpretation
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Kemal Kemal Kösemehmetoğlu, M.D. and Debra Zynger, M.D.
    Dysgerminoma

    Dysgerminoma

    D2-40 in dysgerminoma

    D2-40 in dysgerminoma

    Tumor emboli or not?

    Tumor emboli or not?

    D2-40 against lymphatic emboli

    D2-40 against lymphatic emboli

    Dermal breast cancer lymhatic emboli or not?

    Dermal breast cancer lymhatic emboli or not?

    D2-40 proves lymphatic emboli

    D2-40 proves lymphatic emboli


    Schwannoma

    Schwannoma

    D2-40 expression in schwannoma

    D2-40 expression in schwannoma

    Ependymoma

    Ependymoma

    D2-40 expression in ependymoma

    D2-40 expression in ependymoma

    Kaposi sarcoma

    Kaposi sarcoma

    D2-40 expression in Kaposi sarcoma

    D2-40 expression in Kaposi sarcoma


    Lymphatic malformation

    Lymphatic malformation

    D2-40 expression proves lymphatic malformation

    D2-40 expression
    proves lymphatic
    malformation

    Differential endoothelial D2-40 expression

    Differential endothelial
    D2-40 expression

    D2-40 expression in MIFS

    D2-40 expression in MIFS

    Cecal lymphangioma

    Cecal lymphangioma

    D2-40 in cecal lymphangioma

    D2-40 in cecal lymphangioma


    Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma

    Kaposiform hemangio-endothelioma

    D2-40 in kaposiform hemangioendothelioma

    D2-40 in kaposiform hemangio-endothelioma

    Malignant mesothelioma

    Malignant mesothelioma

    D2-40 in malignant mesothelioma

    D2-40 in malignant mesothelioma

    Sarcomatoid areas of malignant mesothelioma

    Sarcomatoid areas of malignant mesothelioma

    D2-40 in sarcomatoid malignant mesothelioma

    D2-40 in sarcomatoid malignant mesothelioma


    Seminoma with IHC

    Seminoma with IHC

    D2-40

    D2-40

    Testis

    Testis

    D2-40 in prostate basal cells

    D2-40 in prostate basal cells

    Virtual slides

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Blood vessels, tufted hemangioma

    Brain, angiomatous meningioma

    Breast, Paget disease of the nipple

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Electron microscopy images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Dermal lymphatics

    Sample pathology report
    • Right breast, core biopsy:
      • Infiltrative ductal carcinoma, grade II (see comment)
      • Comment: The presence of lymphovascular invasion was supported by D2-40, which highlighted lymphatic endothelium of vessels with tumor emboli.
    Additional references
    Board review style question #1

    Which of the markers is expressed in the tumor shown above?

    1. AFP
    2. CD20
    3. CD30
    4. D2-40
    5. Inhibin
    Board review style answer #1
    D. D2-40

    Comment Here

    Reference: D2-40 (Podoplanin)
    Board review style question #2
    In which of the following differential diagnoses is D2-40 useful?

    1. Adrenocortical carcinoma versus adrenocortical adenoma
    2. Kaposi sarcoma versus angiosarcoma
    3. Mesothelioma versus squamous cell carcinoma
    4. Prostatic stromal invasion versus intraductal spread of urothelial carcinoma
    5. Seminoma versus in situ germ cell neoplasm
    Board review style answer #2
    D. Prostatic stromal invasion versus intraductal spread of urothelial carcinoma

    Comment Here

    Reference: D2-40 (Podoplanin)

    DBA-44
    Definition / general
    • Antibody raised against B cell centroblastic cell line
    • Also written as DBA.44, DBA44
    • Does not appear to be the same antibody as CD72, Am J Surg Pathol 1996;20:613 is apparently wrong
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Case #95
    Missing Image

    Hairy cell leukemia, cecum

    Positive staining - normal
    • Mantle zone of hyperplastic follicles
    Positive staining - disease
    • Hairy cell leukemia (particularly "hairy" cytoplasmic processes)
    • Splenic margin zone lymphoma (71%, Am J Surg Pathol 2007;31:438)
    • Follicular center cell lymphomas (46%)
    • High grade B cell lymphomas
    Negative staining
    • CLL

    DDIT3 (pending)
    [Pending]

    Desmin
    Definition / general
    • 52kDa cytoplasmic intermediate filament present in muscle and endothelial cells (Braz J Med Biol Res 2004;37:1819)
    • Expressed in neoplasms with myogenic differentiation
    • Variable expression in myofibroblasts
    Essential features
    • Good screening marker for neoplasms with myogenic differentiation (including rhabdomyosarcoma, rhabdomyoma, leiomyosarcoma, leiomyoma, smooth muscle and rhabdomyoblastic elements in other tumors)
    • Used in combination with myogenin / MyoD1 to confirm myogenic differentiation (Ann Diagn Pathol 2018;36:50)
    • Cytoplasmic positivity in general with perinuclear dot positivity in desmoplastic small round cell tumor
    • Expressed in genital stromal tumors (including fibroepithelial stromal polyp, aggressive angiomyxoma and angiomyofibroblastoma)
    • Expressed in rare fibrohistiocytic and myofibroblastic tumors (including angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma and low grade myofibroblastic sarcoma)
    Pathophysiology
    • Maintains structural and functional integrity of muscle cells
    • Forms cytoskeletal network across muscle fibers, localized to the subplasmalemmal region and Z band
    • Important role in mitochondrial functioning (Int J Mol Sci 2020;21:8122)
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Molecular architecture

    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    Uses by pathologists
    • Screening immunomarker for myogenic differentiation
    • Focal positivity in myofibroblastic tumors
    • Differentiates smooth muscle tumors (desmin+) from gastrointestinal stromal tumor (3 - 5% desmin+) (Ann Diagn Pathol 2007;11:39)
    • Differentiates pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma (desmin+) from undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (desmin-) (Ann Diagn Pathol 2018;37:118)
    • Differentiates rhabdomyosarcoma (desmin+) from extrarenal rhabdoid tumor (desmin-) (Ann Diagn Pathol 1998;2:351)
    • Differentiates embryonal / pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma (desmin+) from proliferative fasciitis / myositis (desmin-) (APMIS 1992;100:437)
    • Differentiates spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma (desmin+) from infantile fibrosarcoma (desmin-) (J Pediatr Hematol Oncol 2008;30:723)
    • Helps differentiate sclerosing rhabdomyosarcoma (desmin+) from sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma (desmin-) (Zhonghua Bing Li Xue Za Zhi 2004;33:337)
    • Differentiates rhabdomyoma (desmin+) from congenital granular cell epulis (desmin-) (Head Neck Pathol 2020;14:208)
    • Differentiates rhabdomyoma (desmin+) from granular cell tumor (desmin-) (Am J Surg Pathol 1998;22:779)
    • Differentiates rhabdomyoma (desmin+) from crystal storing histiocytosis (desmin-) (Head Neck Pathol 2012;6:111)
    • Differentiates aggressive angiomyxoma / angiomyofibroblastoma (desmin+) from cellular angiofibroma (5% desmin+) (Diagn Pathol 2015;10:114)
    • Differentiates mammary type myofibroblastoma (desmin+) from spindle cell lipoma (16% desmin+), cellular angiofibroma (5% desmin+) and solitary fibrous tumor (desmin-)
    • Differentiates angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma (desmin+) from aneurysmal fibrous histiocytoma (desmin-) (Histopathology 1995;26:323)
    • Differentiates reactive mesothelial proliferation (85% desmin+) from malignant mesothelioma (10% desmin+) (Histopathology 2003;43:231)
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Perinuclear dot positivity in desmoplastic round cell tumor and sclerosing rhabdomyosarcoma
    • Dendritic process-like staining along with cytoplasmic expression in angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Nasir Ud Din, M.B.B.S.
    Missing Image

    Embryonal
    rhabdomyosarcoma

    Missing Image

    Desmin stain

    Missing Image

    Alveolar
    rhabdomyosarcoma,
    solid type

    Missing Image

    Desmin positive nests

    Missing Image

    Pleomorphic
    rhabdomyosarcoma

    Missing Image

    Desmin expression


    Missing Image

    Leiomyosarcoma

    Missing Image

    Desmin positive fascicles

    Missing Image

    Desmoplastic small round cell tumor

    Missing Image

    Desmin positive round blue cells

    Missing Image

    Angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma

    Missing Image

    Immunostain desmin

    Virtual slides

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Desmin positive breast myofibroblastoma

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Adipocytic tumors, including myxoid liposarcoma
    • Fibroblastic / myofibroblastic tumors, including nasopharyngeal angiofibroma, nodular fasciitis (few scattered cells), myxoinflammatory fibroblastic sarcoma, myxofibrosarcoma, low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma, sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma, fibroma of tendon sheath, desmoplastic fibroma, angiofibroma of soft tissue, cellular angiofibroma, solitary fibrous tumor, intranodal palisaded myofibroblastoma (occasionally positive), dermatomyofibroma, dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, nuchal type fibroma (Iran J Pathol 2016;11:195, Arch Pathol Lab Med 2007;131:306, Oncol Lett 2016;11:661)
    • Pediatric fibroblastic / myofibroblastic tumors, including inclusion body fibromatosis, giant cell fibroblastoma, calcifying fibrous tumor, fibrous hamartoma of infancy, infantile fibrosarcoma
    • Fibrohistiocytic / histiocytic / dendritic cell tumors, including dermatofibroma, cellular neurothekoma, reticulohistiocytoma, crystal storing histiocytosis, plexiform fibrohistiocytic tumor, follicular dendritic cell sarcoma
    • Pericytic tumors, including glomus tumor, myopericytoma, myofibroma, myofibromatosis, sinonasal glomangiopericytoma
    • Vascular tumors, including pseudomyogenic hemangioendothelioma, epithelioid hemangioendothelioma, angiosarcoma (Zhonghua Bing Li Xue Za Zhi 2018;47:45, Arch Pathol Lab Med 2020;144:529)
    • Neural tumors, including perineurioma, dermal nerve sheath myxoma, glial heterotropia, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, schwannoma, granular cell tumor, ganglioneuroma (Am J Surg Pathol 1998;22:779)
    • Tumors of uncertain differentiation, including intramuscular myxoma, superficial angiomyxoma (occasional focal positive), acral fibromyxoma, pleomorphic hyalinizing angiectatic tumor, hemosiderotic fibrolipomatous tumor, atypical fibroxanthoma, myoepithelioma of soft tissue (0 - 20%), phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor, synovial sarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma, extrarenal rhabdoid tumor (Head Neck Pathol 2015;9:32, Cureus 2020;12:e12263)
    • Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma
    • Myeloid sarcoma
    • Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (Virchows Arch 2004;445:142, Transl Gastroenterol Hepatol 2018;3:27)
    • Malignant gastrointestinal neuroectodermal tumor
    • Congenital granular cell epulis
    • Ovarian fibroma
    • Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy
    • Primary pulmonary myxoid sarcoma
    Sample pathology report
    • Vagina, excision biopsy:
      • Botryoid embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
        • Polypoid fragments lined by squamous epithelium with subepithelial condensation of round blue cells
        • Deep dermis and subcutaneum show diffuse sheets and aggregates of round to spindle strap cells with frequent mitoses
        • Diffuse desmin and focal myogenin positivity supports the diagnosis of botryoid embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
    Board review style question #1

    A 20 year old man presented with a palpable abdominal mass of 10 cm. Microscopy revealed a tumor with distinct nests of small round blue cells in a desmoplastic stroma. Tumor cells were positive for immunostains cytokeratin AE1 / AE3, desmin and WT1 (C terminus). Immunostains LCA, TdT, synaptophysin, MyoD1 and myogenin were negative. Which stain is shown in the image in context with this tumor?

    1. Cytokeratin (AE1 / AE3)
    2. Desmin
    3. EMA
    4. Myogenin
    5. WT1
    Board review style answer #1
    B. Desmin

    Comment Here

    Reference: Desmin
    Board review style question #2
    What is the most common pattern of desmin immunostaining in rhabdomyosarcoma?

    1. Cytoplasmic staining
    2. Dendritic process-like staining
    3. Golgi staining
    4. Nuclear staining
    5. Perinuclear staining
    Board review style answer #2
    A. Cytoplasmic staining

    Comment Here

    Reference: Desmin

    Dicer
    Definition / general
    • Protein encoded by DICER1 gene on chromosome 14
    • A ribonuclease that produces 21 - 23 nucleotide short interfering RNAs (siRNAs) and microRNAs (miRNAs) by cleaving long double stranded RNAs (dsRNAs) and pre-miRNAs
    Essential features
    Terminology
    • Dicer 1, ribonuclease III, Dcr-1 homolog, helicase MOI, HERNA, helicase with RNA motif, Double stranded RNA specific endoribonuclease
    Epidemiology
    • The prevalence and penetrance of the mutations are not known
    • Dicer syndrome is a rare disorder
    Sites
    • Ubiquitously expressed
    Pathophysiology
    Etiology
    • Unknown
    Clinical features
    • Depends on the neoplastic process
    Diagnosis
    • The levels of dicer may be useful in the diagnosis of cancer
    • Decreased expression identified in patients with tumors (Cancer Res 2010;70:2571)
    Radiology description
    • Radiologic features depends on the presenting disease
    Prognostic factors
    Case reports
    Treatment
    • Depends on the present disease
    • Surgical resection with or without chemotherapy
    • Patients with pleuropulmonary blastoma may also undergo radiation therapy
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Cytoplasmic staining
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Dicer expression in benign prostatic epithelium

    Expression in urinary bladder

    Expression of
    dicer in neoplastic
    prostate tissue

    Positive stains
    Negative stains
    Molecular / cytogenetics description
    • Deletions, insertions, missense mutations, nonsense mutations, splice variants

    DNAJB9 (pending)
    [Pending]

    DOG1
    Definition / general
    • Discovered on GIST 1
    • Primarily used in the diagnosis of gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
    Essential features
    • Monoclonal (SP31, K9, DOG1.1) and polyclonal antibodies (Cancer Control 2015;22:498)
    • Most sensitive and specific marker for GIST
    Pathophysiology
    Interpretation
    • Membranous and cytoplasmic
    Uses by pathologists
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Nick Baniak, M.D.
    H&E resection

    Resection

    H&E biopsy

    Biopsy

    Diffuse staining Diffuse staining

    Diffuse staining

    Diffuse staining Diffuse staining

    Diffuse staining

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Stomach, biopsy:
      • Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (see comment)
      • Comment: Immunohistochemistry performed at X institution reveals the following immunoprofile (controls stained appropriately): positive - DOG1.
    Board review style question #1

    DOG1 may be a particularly important biomarker for GISTs with which mutation, due to the more frequent finding of CD117 and CD34 negativity?

    1. KIT
    2. NF
    3. PDGFRα
    4. SDH
    Board review style answer #1
    C. PDGFRα

    Comment Here

    Reference: DOG1

    DUX4
    Definition / general
    • Double homeobox 4 transcription factor, encoded by retrogene material within D4Z4 polymorphic macrosatellite repeat sequence
    • Involved in normal development in fetal skeletal muscle
    • Expression in differentiated tissues is normally suppressed through epigenetic mechanisms
    Essential features
    • Nuclear marker with limited expression in normal tissues (fetal skeletal muscle, mature testis)
    • Variable expression in skeletal muscle of patients with facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 1 (FSHD1)
    • Diffuse, strong expression in CIC-DUX4 fusion tumors with both t(4;19) and t(10;19) translocations
    Clinical features
    • Decreased epigenetic repression of the D4Z4 macrosatellite array and resulting expression of DUX4 is hypothesized to be primarily responsible for facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 1 (FSHD1) pathophysiology
    • Translocations overexpressing the DUX4 double homeodomain cause B cell leukemia (Cell Rep 2018;25:2955)
    Interpretation
    • Nuclear stain
    Uses by pathologists
    • Differentiate CIC-DUX4 fusion tumors from many other small round blue cell tumors in pediatric, adolescent and young adult population (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:423)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Bradford Siegele, M.D., J.D.
    <i>CIC-DUX4</i> fusion tumor (H&E)

    CIC-DUX4 fusion tumor (H&E)

    <i>CIC-DUX4</i> fusion tumor (H&E)

    CIC-DUX4 fusion tumor (DUX4)

    <i>CIC-DUX4</i> fusion tumor (H&E)

    CIC-DUX4 fusion tumor (H&E)

    <i>CIC-DUX4</i> fusion tumor (H&E)

    CIC-DUX4 fusion tumor (DUX4)


    Ewing sarcoma (DUX4)

    Ewing sarcoma (DUX4)

    Malignant rhabdoid tumor

    Malignant rhabdoid tumor (DUX4)

    Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

    Embryonal
    rhabdomyosarcoma
    (DUX4)

    Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

    Alveolar
    rhabdomyosarcoma
    (DUX4)

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Soft tissue, flank, excision:
      • Round cell tumor with CIC rearrangement and DUX4 expression by immunohistochemistry (see comment)
      • Comment: This case was sent for fluorescence in situ hybridization for rearrangement of the CIC gene, which was detected. This finding, in combination with strong, diffuse nuclear expression of the DUX4 protein by immunohistochemistry, is consistent with a CIC-DUX4 fusion tumor.
    Board review style question #1

    A CIC-DUX4 fusion tumor and DUX4 IHC images are shown. Which immunohistochemical profile is commonly seen in CIC-DUX4 fusion tumor?

    1. DUX4+ (cytoplasmic), CD99+ (diffuse), AE1 / AE3-, desmin-, WT1-
    2. DUX4+ (cytoplasmic), CD99+ (patchy), AE1 / AE3-, desmin+ (patchy), WT1-
    3. DUX4+ (cytoplasmic), CD99+ (patchy), AE1 / AE3+ (patchy), desmin-, WT1-
    4. DUX4+ (nuclear), CD99+ (diffuse), AE1 / AE3+ (patchy), desmin-, WT1+
    5. DUX4+ (nuclear), CD99+ (patchy), AE1 / AE3-, desmin-, WT1+
    Board review style answer #1
    E. DUX4+ (nuclear), CD99+ (patchy), AE1 / AE3-, desmin-, WT1+

    Comment Here

    Reference: DUX4

    E-cadherin
    Definition / general
    • E-cadherin is a transmembrane protein involved in cellular adhesion and polarity maintenance
    • E-cadherin is expressed in almost all epithelial cells
    • Loss of E-cadherin expression is associated with gain of tumor cell motility and invasiveness
    Essential features
    • E-cadherin is a transmembrane protein involved in cellular adhesion
    • Expressed in almost all epithelial cells
    • Normal pattern of expression is membranous
    • Abnormal pattern is loss or decrease of membranous expression
    • Common use is to differentiate invasive and in situ / invasive lobular carcinoma (-) from in situ / invasive ductal carcinoma (+) of the breast
    Terminology
    • Synonym: cadherin-1
    Pathophysiology
    • Epithelial cadherin (E-cadherin) is a transmembrane protein (Histopathology 2016;68:57)
      • Extracellular domain involved in intercellular adhesion and polarity maintenance
      • Cytoplasmic domain attached to actin units α / γ / β- and p120 catenins
    • Encoded by CDH1 (CaDHerin-1) gene located on chromosome 16 (16q22.1)
    • Biallelic inactivation of CDH1 results in the loss of membranous expression of E-cadherin and gain of motility of tumor cells
    Clinical features
    • Heterozygous germline alteration of the CDH1 gene is associated with hereditary diffuse gastric cancer syndrome and invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast (Prog Mol Biol Transl Sci 2013;116:337)
    Interpretation
    • Normal pattern is strong circumferential membranous staining
    • Abnormal pattern is loss or decrease / attenuation of membranous staining
    • Uninvolved epithelial cells can be used as reference
      • Useful in lobular neoplasia of the breast: staining is patchy, weak or complete loss compared with uninvolved luminal cells
    Uses by pathologists
    • To distinguish lobular carcinoma in situ from ductal carcinoma in situ (Histopathology 2016;68:57)
      • May be critical, as management could be different
      • Only useful in challenging cases
      • Morphology takes precedence over E-cadherin stain as aberrant protein expression may be present despite non-functional E-cadherin-catenin complex (Am J Surg Pathol 2008;32:773)
    • To distinguish invasive lobular from invasive ductal carcinoma
      • Less critical, as treatment remains similar
      • High grade invasive ductal carcinoma may have aberrant E-cadherin staining patterns
    • Others
    Prognostic factors
    • Loss of E-cadherin is associated with tumor progression, chemoresistance and metastases (Cells 2020;9:428)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Xiaoxian (Bill) Li, M.D., Ph.D.
    Ductal carcinoma in situ with lobular features Ductal carcinoma in situ with lobular features

    Ductal carcinoma in situ with lobular features

    Florid lobular carcinoma in situ Florid lobular carcinoma in situ

    Florid lobular carcinoma in situ

    Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast

    Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast


    Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast

    Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast

    Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast

    Invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast


    Lobular carcinoma in situ Lobular carcinoma in situ Lobular carcinoma in situ

    Lobular carcinoma in situ

    Virtual slides

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Pleomorphic lobular carcinoma

    E-cadherin

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Board review style question #1


      The pictures show both an H&E and an E-cadherin stain from a breast lesion. Which is the correct diagnosis?

    1. Cannot diagnose due to inconsistent H&E and E-cadherin staining pattern
    2. DCIS with positive E-cadherin expression
    3. Invasive ductal carcinoma
    4. LCIS with decreased E-cadherin expression
    Board review style answer #1
    D. LCIS with decreased E-cadherin expression. The morphology shows typical features of lobular carcinoma in situ with eccentric nuclei and cytoplasmic mucin. E-cadherin stain shows decreased membranous expression, consistent with aberrant E-cadherin staining in LCIS.

    Comment Here

    Reference: E-cadherin

    EBER1 and EBER2
    Epstein Barr Virus
    • Strongly associated with sinonasal (NK) lymphomas
    • Associated with monoclonal B cell lymphoproliferative disorder (high grade) and immunosuppression (methotrexate) for autoimmune disease
    • Expresses LMP1, which prevents apoptosis via bcl2 interaction
    • Expresses EBER1, which transactivates host genes
    EBER1 & EBER2
    • EBV encoded RNA
      • Nuclear RNA portions of EBER1 and 2 genes
    • Interpretation: nuclear stain
    LMP
    • Latent Membrane Protein of EBV
    • Interpretation: cytoplasmic or membranous staining
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    EBER ISH, high power

    Missing Image

    LMP in EBV+ nasopharyngeal carcinoma


    EBNA2 (pending)
    [Pending]

    EGFR mutation specific antibodies
    Definition / general
    • ~90% of EGFR mutations in lung adenocarcinoma can be attributed to 2 targetable mutations detectable by immunohistochemistry (IHC) (J Thorac Oncol 2017;12:612)
      • EGFR L858R point mutation in exon 21
      • EGFR E746_A750 del (15 base pair deletion) in exon 19
    Essential features
    • EGFR gene mutations are present in 10 - 50% of lung adenocarcinoma patients
    • Prevalence depends on population subgroup, including ethnicity
    • ~90% of EGFR mutations in the lung can be attributed to 2 targetable mutations, which can be detected by immunohistochemistry (IHC) if the specimen is inadequate for molecular testing
    • When using EGFR mutation specific IHC, use stringent interpretation criteria and close quality assurance (QA) to maintain high specificity (~99%) and inform clinicians of relatively low sensitivity (~70 - 80%)
    • Beware of cross reactivity with HER2 (rare)
    Terminology
    • EGFR: epidermal growth factor receptor
    • Synonyms: HER1, ERBB, ERBB1, others (NIH: EGFR Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor [Accessed 5 January 2024])
    • Mutations detected by mutation specific EGFR IHC
      • EGFR c.2573T>G (p.L858R): point mutation in exon 21
        • Detectable using IHC EGFR antibody clone 43B2
      • EGFR c.2185_2283del (p.E746_A750del): in frame 15 base pair deletion in exon 19
        • Detectable using IHC EGFR antibody clone 6B6
    • Not all EGFR antibodies are appropriate for IHC staining of lung adenocarcinomas
      • EGFR total protein IHC is not mutation specific and should not be used in lung adenocarcinoma cases, as there is no treatment for EGFR amplification
    Pathophysiology
    • EGFR encodes a 170 kDa transmembrane glycoprotein of the protein kinase superfamily
    • EGFR protein is activated by binding of epidermal growth factor (EGF) and transforming growth factor alpha (TGFα) → dimerization → tyrosine kinase activity → cell growth
      • Certain EGFR mutations = constitutive activity
      • Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) drugs work on some of these EGFR mutations
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    EGFR oncogenic pathways & TKI targeting

    EGFR oncogenic pathways and TKI targeting

    Clinical features
    • EGFR gene mutations are present in 10 - 50% of lung adenocarcinoma patients
      • Prevalence depends on population subgroup, including ethnicity
    • ~90% of EGFR mutations in the lung can be attributed to 2 targetable mutations, which can be detected by IHC
      • EGFR L858R point mutation in exon 21
      • EGFR E746_A750 del (15 base pair deletion) in exon 19
    • References: Am J Cancer Res 2015;5:2892, J Thorac Oncol 2017;12:612
    Interpretation
    • Positive: strong, diffuse membranous staining, variable granular cytoplasmic staining
      • Use stringent criteria to avoid false positive results; high specificity (~99%)
      • Positive IHC result for EGFR clone 43B2 or 6B6 associated with response to EGFR TKI drugs
      • ~1% false positives (cross reactivity with HER2 overexpression)
    • Equivocal or negative: moderate / patchy membranous staining or cytoplasmic staining only
    • Negative: no staining or weak membranous staining or weak cytoplasmic staining only
    • Low sensitivity (~70 - 80%)
    • All results (positive, equivocal and negative) should be confirmed by molecular testing, including molecular profiling of multiple genes whenever possible
    • Suboptimal fixation and processing can cause false negatives and equivocal results
    • References: Cytopathology 2022;33:14, Arch Pathol Lab Med 2016;140:1331
    Uses by pathologists
    • EGFR IHC can be used as a predictive marker to quickly identify patients who can benefit from oral tyrosine kinase inhibitors using minimal cellular material
    • Results can be reported using CAP's synoptic template (CAP: Cancer Protocol Templates [Accessed 19 January 2024])
    • Recent molecular society guidelines encourage molecular profiling of multiple genes whenever possible, rather than single gene / mutation testing
      • EGFR mutation specific IHCs are useful when material is insufficient for molecular testing
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Fang Zhou, M.D.

    Positive stain results
    Positive result Positive result

    Positive result

    Rare false positive result

    Rare false positive result



    Equivocal stain results
    Equivocal result Equivocal result

    Equivocal result

    Equivocal, patchy, molecular positive Equivocal, patchy, molecular positive

    Equivocal, patchy, molecular positive



    Negative (nonspecific) staining
    Negative result, nonspecific staining Negative result, nonspecific staining

    Negative result, nonspecific staining

    Negative result, nonspecific staining Negative result, nonspecific staining

    Negative result, nonspecific staining

    Negative result, nonspecific staining

    Negative result, nonspecific staining

    Cytology images

    Contributed by Fang Zhou, M.D.

    Positive stain results
    Positive result, scant cytology Positive result, scant cytology

    Positive result, scant cytology

    Positive staining - disease
    • EGFR mutations in lung adenocarcinoma
      • White patients: ~10%
      • Asian patients: ~50%
    • 2 targetable mutations comprise ~90% of all EGFR mutations in lung adenocarcinoma (J Thorac Oncol 2017;12:612)
      • EGFR L858R point mutation in exon 21: IHC clone 43B2
      • EGFR E746_A750del (15 base pair deletion) in exon 19: IHC clone 6B6
      • Mutation specific IHC assays are available
    • Notes on these 2 mutation specific IHC antibodies (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2016;140:1331)
      • High specificity if using careful and conservative interpretation guidelines = positive results are associated with response to tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs), specificity ~99%
        • Positive cases should have strong, diffuse membranous staining, with or without cytoplasmic staining
        • Cytoplasmic staining only = 80% do not have the mutation (PLoS One 2013;8:e59183)
        • Antibodies cross react with HER2, causing false positive results in HER2+ cases (rare, ~1%)
      • Low sensitivity for these 2 mutations (~80%)
      • They also do not detect other targetable or TKI resistance associated EGFR mutations (~10%)
      • They do not detect EGFR amplification (not targetable anyway)
      • Generally not recommended if there is access to (and adequate material for) high sensitivity molecular assays that may detect more mutations in EGFR and other genes (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2018;142:321)
      • Particularly useful in the following situations
        • Specimen is inadequate for molecular assays (low tumor cellularity or purity or decalcified)
        • There is simultaneous wild type allele amplification that obscures interpretation of EGFR molecular results (Mod Pathol 2021;34:2168)
        • Quick turnaround time is needed (1 - 2 days)
        • No access to molecular testing
    Molecular / cytogenetics description
    • Molecular sequencing detects the corresponding mutations detected by the IHC stains
    Sample pathology report
    • Lung, right lower lobe, biopsy:
      • Adenocarcinoma (see comment)
      • Comment: The tumor cells are positive for TTF1 while negative for p40, supporting the diagnosis. Please see synoptic report for the results of biomarker testing.
      • CAP lung cancer biomarker reporting protocol (synoptic report)

        Specimen
        Adequacy of sample for testing Adequate
        Results
        EGFR
        EGFR L858R by immunohistochemistry (clone 43B2) Negative
        EGFR exon 19 deletion (E746_A750del) (clone 6B6) Positive
         Interpretation EGFR E746_A750del immunohistochemical staining is positive,
        which is associated with response to EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors
        ALK
         ALK immunohistochemistry Negative
        PDL1 IHC
         PDL1 IHC interpretation Positive
         Percentage of tumor cells with staining (TPS) 40%
         Methods
         Antibody 22C3
         Controls Internal control cells present; expected immunoreactivity
        External controls available; expected immunoreactivity
         Assay information Laboratory developed test
    Board review style question #1

    The image above depicts a positive EGFR mutation specific IHC result. What mutations in EGFR are most commonly detected in lung adenocarcinoma?

    1. E746_A750del and EGFR R776C
    2. EGFR G719A and EGFR S768I
    3. EGFR L858R and E746_A750del
    4. EGFR L858R and EGFR T790M
    5. EGFR L861Q and EGFR G719X
    Board review style answer #1
    C. EGFR L858R and E746_A750del. Among EGFR mutations in lung adenocarcinoma, these 2 mutations are the most common. Overall, KRAS is the most commonly mutated gene in lung adenocarcinoma (it is more commonly mutated than EGFR) and targeted therapies against specific KRAS mutations (such as KRAS p.G12C) are being developed. Answers A, B, D and E are incorrect because they include rare EGFR variants.

    Comment Here

    Reference: EGFR mutation specific antibodies
    Board review style question #2
    What is the current consensus recommendation for molecular testing in patients with lung adenocarcinoma?

    1. A broad diagnostic IHC panel should be used in the biopsy diagnosis of lung cancer
    2. ALK rearrangement should be tested by IHC only
    3. Cytology specimens are never considered adequate for molecular testing
    4. EGFR mutation specific IHC testing should take priority
    5. Molecular profiling of multiple genes should be performed whenever possible
    Board review style answer #2
    E. Molecular profiling of multiple genes should be performed whenever possible to detect targetable, rare and other mutations that may qualify patients for clinical trials. Answer D is incorrect because whenever possible, molecular profiling of multiple genes (including EGFR) is preferred over EGFR only testing. Answer C is incorrect because cytology cell blocks can be used successfully for molecular testing. Even smears may be used (alcohol is superior to formalin for nucleic acid preservation). Answer B is incorrect because ALK rearrangements are not only detectable by IHC but also by FISH, PCR and NGS methods. Answer A is incorrect because the current consensus recommendation is to preserve tissue for molecular detection of targetable mutations when possible. Most cases of non-small cell lung carcinoma can be classified as adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma using 2 IHC stains: TTF1 (clone 8G7G3/1) and p40. If both markers are negative or very focal, the need for additional diagnostic IHC is determined by clinical history and imaging findings (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2018;142:321, Curr Oncol 2022;29:4981, J Thorac Oncol 2019;14:377).

    Comment Here

    Reference: EGFR mutation specific antibodies

    Elastic fibers
    Definition / general
    • Also called Verfoeff-van Gieson
    • Stains elastic fibers black
    • Outlines elastic lamina of muscular arteries and media of aorta
    • Background is trichrome
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Normal aorta


    Enzyme cytochemistry
    Definition / general
    • Detects enzymatic activity in cytoplasm
    • Advantage over immunocytochemistry is determination of enzyme's intracellular localization and intensity of catalytic activity (for research purposes)
    • Flow cytometry and immunocytochemistry are often preferred to determine presence of enzyme molecule (but not catalytic activity or localization)
    • Enzyme product unites with coupler, which produces localized color at site of enzyme activity
    • Fresh smears are preferred, especially for myeloperoxidase; if not possible, store unstained slides away from light
    Methods
    • Simultaneous capture: reagent in incubation medium combines with reaction product (example: diazo method for alkaline phosphatase)
    • Post-incubation coupling: insoluble reaction product is coupled with a colored or opaque substance (example: Rutenburg and Seligman method for acid phosphatase)
    • Self-colored substrate reaction: water-soluble dye is made insoluble when enzyme removes a hydrophilic group, leading to colored precipitate at site of enzyme activity
    • Intramolecular rearrangement: produces a colored insoluble precipitate at sites of enzyme activity of an otherwise colorless substrate (University of Iowa)
    Uses by pathologists
    • Used for these enzymes: acid phosphatase, alkaline phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, Sudan black B, nonspecific esterase
    • Also: acetyl cholinesterase, adenosine triphosphate, adenylate cyclate, catalase, cytochrome oxidase, 5' nucleotidase, nucleoside diphosphatase, succinic dehydrogenase and thiamine pyrophosphatase
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    AFIP images

    AML-M2 (left), AML-M1 (right) show myeloperoxidase staining

    AML-M1: Sudan black B positive granules

    AML-M0: myeloblasts are negative for MPO

    AML-M4: chloroacetate and nonspecific esterase



    Images from other servers:

    AML-M4: non-specific esterase

    AML-M4: lysozyme


    Epithelial membrane antigen (EMA)
    Definition / general
    Essential features
    • EMA (aka MUC1) a glycoprotein that provides barrier function
    • Overexpression is common in malignancies and leads to tumorigenesis
    • Immunohistochemical stain is positive in most carcinomas, often used alongside other cytokeratin stains
    • For noncarcinomas, EMA is useful to distinguish meningioma, some hematopoietic tumors and malignant mesothelioma
    Terminology
    Pathophysiology
    • Normal
      • Localized to the apical membranes and provides barrier function (Nat Rev Cancer 2009;9:874)
        • Blocks cell to cell and cell to extracellular matrix interactions
      • Inhibits formation of E-cadherin / beta catenin complex (Ann Pathol 2006;26:257)
    • Abnormal (Trends Mol Med 2014;20:332)
      • Overexpressed and loses cell polarity
        • Redistributed in cell surface and cytoplasm
      • Abnormal distribution leads to expression of PDGFA
        • Promotes proliferation and invasion of cells
      • Interacts with and stabilizes HIF1α
        • Enhances glucose uptake genes
      • Induces expression of proangiogenic factors (CTGF, PDGFB, VEGFA)
      • Upregulates expression of inducers that lead to destabilization of adherens junctions and leads to cytoskeleton rearrangements (Oncogene 2011;30:1449)
        • Facilitates basement membrane invasion
    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    Uses by pathologists
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Ihab Hosny, M.D.
    Missing Image Missing Image

    Epithelioid mesothelioma immunoprofile

    Missing Image Missing Image

    Epithelioid mesothelioma, EMA

    Missing Image

    Cervix, adenoid cystic carcinoma



    Cases #219, #150, #48 and #69
    Missing Image

    Bladder, high grade urothelial carcinoma

    Missing Image

    Heart, synovial sarcoma

    Missing Image

    Kidney, papillary carcinoma, solid

    Missing Image

    Scrotum, epithelioid sarcoma

    Virtual slides

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Appendix - goblet cell carcinoid: EMA highlights epithelial differentiation

    Brain - angiomatous meningioma: EMA+ (membranous staining)


    Breast - invasive ductal carcinoma: EMA+ (cytoplasmic staining)

    Ovary - yolk sac tumor: EMA-

    Cytology images

    Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
    Missing Image Missing Image

    Epithelioid mesothelioma, pleural effusion (cell block)

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Left frontal tumor, craniotomy and resection:
      • Meningioma, WHO grade 1 (see comment)
      • Comment: The histologic features fit well for a meningioma with fibroblastic features. EMA shows positive cytoplasmic staining in the spindle cells. There are no atypical features and mitoses are sparse. The MIB1 labeling is low (less than 4%).
    Additional references
    Board review style question #1

    Which of the following immunohistochemical stains best differentiates meningioma from schwannoma?

    1. AE1 / AE3
    2. CD34
    3. EMA
    4. MelanA
    5. S100
    Board review style answer #1
    C. EMA. Warning: EMA can highlight the perineural fibroblasts in schwannomas but is not positive within the mass. AE1 / AE3 is not typically positive in meningiomas. CD34 is better for differentiating solitary fibrous tumors from meningioma and is typically negative in schwannoma. MelanA differentiates meningioma from melanoma. MelanA is negative in most schwannomas. S100 can be positive in both schwannoma and in fibrous meningioma (J Neuropathol Exp Neurol 2017;76:289).

    Comment Here

    Reference: Epithelial membrane antigen (EMA)

    ERG
    Definition / general
    • Transcriptional regulator ERG is a protein encoded by ERG (ETS family transcription factor ERG), which is located at 21q22
    • Anti-ERG monoclonal antibodies to the N or C terminus are available, with a slightly different specificity (the few differences marked throughout the text)
    • Highly sensitive immunohistochemical marker for vascular differentiation, immature myeloid differentiation, cartilaginous differentiation (anti-N terminus antibody), expressed also in half of prostatic adenocarcinomas and in Ewing sarcomas with ERG rearrangement
    Essential features
    • ETS family transcription factor ERG has nuclear staining
    • Highly sensitive and quite specific immunohistochemical marker for vascular differentiation, including benign and malignant vascular tumors
    • Anti-N terminus ERG monoclonal antibody is a useful marker for certain chondrogenic tumors
    • Also expressed in tumors harboring ERG rearrangements: 50% of prostatic adenocarcinomas and 5% of Ewing sarcomas
    • Marker for immature myeloid differentiation including cases of acute myeloid leukemia / myeloid sarcoma
    Terminology
    • V-ets erythroblastosis virus E26 oncogene homolog
    • ERG3
    • p55
    • Transcriptional regulator ERG (transforming protein ERG)
    Pathophysiology
    • Ewing sarcoma with EWSR1-ERG fusion:
      • ERG is a member of the ETS (E26) family, which contains a highly conserved 85 amino acid winged helix - loop - helix domain that mediates DNA binding to sequences containing a GGAA / T core motif
      • Combination with EWSR1, which belongs to the TET protein family and contains domains resembling transcription activation domains, results in a strong aberrant transcriptional activator that is overexpressed
      • Expression of this fusion protein is thought to have a critical role in both the development and maintenance of the Ewing sarcoma phenotype (Mod Pathol 2012;25:1378)
    • Prostatic adenocarcinoma:
      • Mechanism for ERG overexpression entails a recurring gene fusion involving the androgen responsive gene TMPRSS2 and the ERG gene following intrachromosomal rearrangement
      • This leads to an overexpression of the ERG gene as a consequence of androgen dependant stimulation of the resulting fusion gene (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1014)
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    ERG rearrangement

    Clinical features
    Interpretation
    • Nuclear staining
    Uses by pathologists
    • Currently one of the best available markers of endothelial differentiation, including vascular neoplasms, such as hemangioma, hemangioendothelioma, angiosarcoma and Kaposi sarcoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:432)
    • Aids in confirming / ruling out lymphovascular invasion
    • Anti-N terminus ERG monoclonal antibody is a useful marker for certain chondrogenic tumors (J Clin Pathol 2015;68:125, J Clin Pathol 2015;68:1043)
    • Differentiating between prostatic small cell carcinoma (positive) and small cell carcinoma of lung or bladder (negative) (Hum Pathol 2011;42:11, Mod Pathol 2011;24:820)
    • Nuclear expression can assess the presence of TMPRSS2-ERG or SLC45A3-ERG fusions in prostatic adenocarcinomas; however, since only about 40 - 50% of these tumors harbor ERG rearrangement and as high grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia or other mimics can also be positive, this marker is rarely used for the diagnosis of prostate adenocarcinoma in routine clinical practice, providing useful information (beyond other stains) in only 29% of cases (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1014, Adv Anat Pathol 2018;25:387, Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:1007)
    • Useful marker in distinguishing between leukemia cutis (mainly acute myeloid leukemia) and reactive nonleukemic predominantly neutrophilic infiltrates in the skin (Am J Dermatopathol 2016;38:672)
    • ERG was shown to be positive in almost 70% of cases of acute myeloid leukemia / myeloid sarcoma, especially those with myeloid differentiation when compared with those of pure monocytic / monoblastic differentiation, which were ERG negative, while all blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasms were negative (Hum Pathol 2022;124:1)
    • ERG can serve as a reliable marker of immature myeloid cells in cases of extramedullary hematopoiesis, bone marrow trephine biopsies and in adrenal myelolipomas (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:432, Hum Pathol 2022;124:1)
    • Reliably identifies the presence of ERG fusions in Ewing sarcomas (Mod Pathol 2012;25:1378, Genes Chromosomes Cancer 2016;55:340)
    • Strong and diffuse nuclear expression is present in EWSR1-SMAD3 rearranged fibroblastic tumor (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:1325, Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:522)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Michael Michal, M.D., Ph.D., Brendan C. Dickson, M.D., M.Sc. and Debra Zynger, M.D.

    Epithelioid angiosarcoma

    Epithelioid
    hemangioendothelioma

    Epithelioid hemangioma

    Metastatic prostate
    adenocarcinoma
    with TMPRSS2-ERG
    fusion


    EWSR1-SMAD3 rearranged fibroblastic tumor

    Ewing sarcoma

    Lymphovascular invasion

    Positive staining - normal
    • Both blood vessel and lymphatic endothelial cells
    • Subpopulation of immature myeloid cells in an adult bone marrow, extramedullary hematopoiesis and in adrenal myelolipomas (Hum Pathol 2022;124:1)
    • Early embryonic subepidermal and paraspinal mesenchyme and periphery of cartilage (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:432)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Nuclear expression is absent in the vast majority of nonprostatic carcinomas and other mesenchymal, neuroectodermal and hematopoietic tumors (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:432)
    • All blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasms are negative (Hum Pathol 2022;124:1)
    Molecular / cytogenetics images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Prostatic adenocarcinoma (FISH)

    Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

    Prostatic small cell carcinoma (FISH)

    Sample pathology report
    • Breast, excision:
      • Postirradiation epithelioid angiosarcoma (see comment)
      • Comment: There is an infiltrating tumor composed of malignant epithelioid cells, which focally form primitive vascular lumina, immunohistochemically show diffuse nuclear expression of ERG and are also positive with CD31 and CD34.
    Board review style question #1
    Which of the following neoplasms will most likely be ERG negative?

    1. Angiosarcoma
    2. Chondrosarcoma
    3. Colorectal adenocarcinoma
    4. Ewing sarcoma with EWSR1-ERG fusion
    5. Prostate adenocarcinoma with TMPRSS2-ERG fusion
    Board review style answer #1
    C. Colorectal adenocarcinoma

    Comment Here

    Reference: ERG

    Estrogen receptor
    Definition / general
    • Estrogen receptor (ER) gene on chromosome 6 encodes ER protein
    • Member of hormone receptor family of ligand dependent transcription factors
    Essential features
    • Hormone receptor with roles in development, physiologic processes and reproduction
    • Frequent expression in breast cancer and can serve as a good prognostic factor in invasive breast carcinomas and endometrial carcinomas; can be an indicator of response to hormonal treatment
    • Nuclear positivity via immunohistochemical staining
    Terminology
    • ERα
    • ER alpha
    • ERa
    • ESR1
    Pathophysiology
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Estrogen signaling pathways

    Estrogen signaling pathways

    Clinical features
    Not relevant to this topic
    Interpretation
    • Nuclear staining
    • Evaluate percentage of tumor cell staining and staining intensity (weak, moderate or strong)
    • Cytoplasmic staining or < 1% nuclear staining of cells is considered negative
    • ≥ 1% nuclear staining is considered positive
    • Standardized process for initial test validation is recommended (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2020;144:545)
    • Decalcification, alternate fixatives, prolonged cold ischemia time, fixation time out of recommended range are among variables that may negatively impact expression / interpretation (J Clin Oncol 2020;38:1346)
    Uses by pathologists
    • ER testing is recommended in invasive breast cancers by validated immunohistochemistry as the standard for predicting which patients may benefit from endocrine therapy and no other assays are recommended for this purpose (J Clin Oncol 2020;38:1346)
    • Testing of ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) for ER is recommended to determine potential benefit of endocrine therapies to reduce risk of future breast cancer, while testing DCIS for PR is considered optional (J Clin Oncol 2020;38:1346)
    • Breast carcinoma is evaluated based on percentage of cancer cells staining and staining intensity
      • 1 - 100% nuclear staining is interpreted as positive
      • < 1% or 0% nuclear staining or cytoplasmic staining is interpreted as negative
      • If 1 - 10% of tumor cell nuclei are immunoreactive for ER, the sample should be reported as ER low positive with a recommended comment (J Clin Oncol 2020;38:1346)
    • Sample may be deemed uninterpretable for ER if
      • Sample is inadequate (insufficient cancer or severe artifacts present, as determined at the discretion of the pathologist)
      • External and internal controls (if present) do not stain appropriately
    Prognostic factors
    • In breast cancers, ER serves as a crucial marker for predicting sensitivity to endocrine therapy and guiding treatment decisions with hormonal agents such as tamoxifen
    • ER positive status, particularly ERα positivity, is associated with favorable survival rates in patients with breast cancer, including patients with tumors with a lower proliferation rate and histological evidence of tumor differentiation (i.e., lower grade) (Clin Exp Med 2023;23:1)
    • Most ER low (1 - 10%) positive, HER2 negative breast cancers are basal-like, with Oncotype Recurrence Score (RS) ≥ 26, indicating these tumors are similar to triple negative breast cancer (Ann Surg Oncol 2024;31:2244)
    • ER has prognostic significance in endometrial adenocarcinomas, with association with type I versus type II carcinoma, via ASCO / CAP scoring criterion (Int J Gynecol Pathol 2019;38:111)
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Interpretation of percent and intensity of nuclear staining in breast cancer (J Clin Oncol 2020;38:1346)
      • < 1% is considered negative
      • 1 - 10% is considered low positive
      • ≥ 1% is considered positive
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Julie M. Jorns, M.D., Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Leica Microsystems
    Ovary, serous borderline tumor Ovary, serous borderline tumor

    Ovary, serous borderline tumor

    Endometrial carcinoma, endometrioid type Endometrial carcinoma, endometrioid type

    Endometrial carcinoma, endometrioid type

    Benign breast lobule(s) Benign breast lobule(s)

    Benign breast lobule(s)


    Breast, invasive lobular carcinoma Breast, invasive lobular carcinoma

    Breast, invasive lobular carcinoma

    Breast, invasive ductal carcinoma Breast, invasive ductal carcinoma

    Breast, invasive ductal carcinoma

    Metastatic lobular breast carcinoma Metastatic lobular breast carcinoma

    Metastatic lobular breast carcinoma


    Breast, mucinous carcinoma

    Missing Image

    Breast tubular adenoma immunoprofile

    Invasive ductal carcinoma

    Invasive ductal carcinoma

    Virtual slides

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Breast, invasive ductal carcinoma, ER

    Breast, invasive ductal carcinoma, ER

    Positive staining - normal
    • Normal luminal breast epithelium, typically used as internal control staining, demonstrates a broad range of ER expression by immunohistochemistry, which may be influenced by both physiologic and laboratory variables
    • ERα is present mainly in mammary gland, uterus, ovary (thecal cells), bone, male reproductive organs (testes and epididymis), prostate (stroma), liver and adipose tissue (Steroids 2014;90:13)
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Molecular / cytogenetics description
    Molecular / cytogenetics images
    Not relevant to this topic
    Sample pathology report
    • Right breast, upper outer quadrant, core biopsy:
      • Invasive ductal carcinoma, preliminary modified Bloom-Richardson (Nottingham) grade 1 (2+1+1), largest continuous focus 0.5 cm (see comment)
      • Comment: immunohistochemical stains show invasive carcinoma to be
        • Estrogen receptor (91 - 100%, strong) positive
        • Progesterone receptor (91 - 100%, strong) positive
        • HER2 / neu (0) negative for overexpression
        • Controls are appropriate
    Board review style question #1

    A middle aged woman underwent core biopsy for a 1 cm screening detected breast mass with the pictured ER staining. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. Invasive ductal carcinoma, ER low positive
    2. Invasive ductal carcinoma, ER positive
    3. Invasive lobular carcinoma, ER low positive
    4. Invasive lobular carcinoma, ER positive
    5. Invasive tubular carcinoma, ER positive
    Board review style answer #1
    D. Invasive lobular carcinoma, ER positive. The tumor cells, highlighted by diffuse, strong positive ER staining, infiltrate as single cells and linear files of cells, supporting the diagnosis of ER positive invasive lobular carcinoma. Answers A - C and E are incorrect because the tumor is not infiltrating as cohesive nests or tubules and thus is not morphologically consistent with invasive ductal or invasive tubular carcinoma, nor is the tumor showing low positive (1 - 10% staining) with ER.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Estrogen receptor

    Estrogen receptor
    Definition / general
    • See also Breast malignant topic
    • 2 subtypes: ER alpha and ER beta
    • ER alpha:
      • Classic functions of ER
      • May render breast epithelium susceptible to proliferative stimulation of estrogen
      • Expressed in breast and endometrium
    • ER beta:
      • Housekeeping functions
      • Expressed in normal ovary and granulosa cells
      • Carcinoma of breast, colon, prostate
    • Both alpha and beta share highly conserved DNA binding domain and commonly interact with estrogen-regulating factors, but may affect different genes
    • Presence of estrogen (type alpha) and progesterone receptors correlates best with response to anti-estrogen treatment (tamoxifen or others) or chemotherapy, only weakly with prognosis
      • Presence is associated with better differentiated tumors, older age
    • Evaluate percentage of tumor nuclei stained and intensity of staining (none, weak, moderate, strong)
    • Immunostaining now done on paraffin fixed tissue (previously required fresh tissue)
    • Metastases to skin are often positive for androgen receptor, even if ER-, PR- (Mod Pathol 2000;13:119)
    • Antigen retrieval techniques are required for ER if glyoxal fixative is used (Hum Pathol 2004;35:1058)
    • Compared to ER, PR staining adds only a limited amount of additional predictive information for response to hormonal therapy (Mod Pathol 2004;17:1545)
    Interpretation
    Uses by pathologists
    • In breast cancer, predicts response to tamoxifen or other anti-estrogens
      • Also prognostic marker for survival (ER+ is favorable)
    • Relatively specific for breast origin (but numerous exceptions)
    • Distinguishes endocervical (ER-) from endometrial (ER+) adenocarcinomas (Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:998)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Leica Microsystems

    Breast, mucinous carcinoma

    Missing Image

    Breast tubular adenoma immunoprofile

    Missing Image

    Invasive ductal carcinoma, intense nuclear staining

    Positive staining - disease
    • Breast carcinoma (varies by subtype and tumor grade) - well differentiated tumors are typically positive
    • Endometrial adenocarcinoma (75%)
    • Ovarian serous, mucinous and endometrioid adenocarcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:667), papillary urothelial carcinoma of bladder (10 - 20%) and ovarian transitional cell carcinoma (90%, Arch Pathol Lab Med 2005;129:194)
    Negative staining
    • Endocervical adenocarcinoma, ovarian clear cell carcinoma

    EWSR1
    Definition / general
    • Ewing sarcoma breakpoint region 1
      • At 22q12
    • Involved in transcriptional regulation for specific genes and in mRNA splicing
      • Plays a role in transcription initiation
    • Common fusion partner involved in various tumors (Med Oncol 2013;30:412)
    Interpretation
    EWSR1 translocations:
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image Missing Image

    Schematic of EWS gene

    Clinical features
    • EWSR1 binds hepatitis C virus cis-acting replication element (CRE) and is required for efficient viral replication (J Virol 2013;87:6625)
    • May exhibit cytoplasmic mislocalization in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Hum Mol Genet 2012;21:2899)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image Missing Image

    Spinal cord of ALS patients

    Molecular / cytogenetics images

    Contributed by Mark R. Wick, M.D.
    Missing Image

    Bone, Ewing / PNET



    Images hosted on other servers:
    Missing Image

    Tongue

    Missing Image

    Skin, myoepithelioma


    EZH2
    Definition / general
    Essential features
    Terminology
    • Enhancer of zeste 2 polycomb repressive complex 2 subunit
    Pathophysiology
    • EZH2 is a member of polycomb group family and polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) is 1 of the 2 PcG protein core complexes that mediate gene silencing
    • Catalyzes the trimethylation of histone 3 lysine 27 (H3K27me3), associated with transcriptional repression
      • Further suppresses the activity of genes related to stem cell differentiation and ablates normal development (Nat Med 2016;22:128)
    • PRC2 methylates nonhistone protein substrates, including the transcription factor GATA4; EZH2 also directly interacts with other proteins to activate downstream genes in a PRC2 independent manner (J Hematol Oncol 2020;13:104)
    • Gain of function mutations or EZH2 overexpression is associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant liver neoplasm and melanoma (Clin Cancer Res 2011;17:2613)
    • Gain of function mutations or EZH2 overexpression is associated with worse progression of prostate cancer, breast cancer, bladder cancer, endometrial cancer, myelodysplastic syndromes and melanoma (Nat Med 2016;22:128)
    • Loss of function mutations are associated with a subset of myelodysplastic syndromes / myeloproliferative neoplasms and T cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (Nat Med 2016;22:128)
    • Overexpression is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) (Cells 2020;9:1639)
    • Potential therapeutic target; 2 phase II trials of EZH2 inhibitors for treating lymphoma are underway (Nat Med 2016;22:128)
    • P53 may be a target gene for EZH2 and inhibition of p53 expression might lead to the development of ovarian cancer (Int J Clin Exp Pathol 2020;13:456)
    Diagrams / tables

    Images hosted on other servers:

    EZH2 as a repressor

    Pathophysiology of EZH2 and its role in carcinomas

    Interpretation
    • Nuclear staining
    Uses by pathologists
    • Differentiates malignant effusions (MOC31 membranous and EZH2 nuclear staining) from benign effusions (Diagn Cytopathol 2017;45:118, Diagn Cytopathol 2014;42:111)
    • Differentiates malignant mesothelioma (loss of BAP1 and high expression of EZH2) from benign mesothelial proliferation (Histopathology 2017;70:722)
    • Differentiates squamous cell carcinoma (> 35% staining) from normal skin (< 5% staining) and actinic keratosis (< 15% staining) (Eur J Dermatol 2014;24:41)
    • Differentiates cholangiocarcinoma (positive) from ductular reaction and bile duct adenoma (negative) (Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:364)
    • Differentiates invasive high grade urothelial carcinoma (high intensity and percentage in staining) of the bladder from noninvasive low grade urothelial carcinoma and carcinoma in situ (low intensity and percentage in staining) (Urol Oncol 2012;30:428)
    • Differentiates malignant (positive) from benign (negative) hepatic tumors (Diagn Pathol 2012;7:86)
    • Differentiates ovarian cancer (significantly higher) from borderline, benign and normal group (Int J Clin Exp Pathol 2020;13:456)
    • Differentiates well differentiated leiomyosarcoma from cellular leiomyoma and well differentiated embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma from fetal rhabdomyoma (Sci Rep 2018;8:12331)
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) description
    • Scattered nuclear staining in the basal layer of the benign epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract, bronchus, endometrium and skin
    • Increased intensity of staining and number of positive cells in invasive squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma of the colorectum, urothelial carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, NK / T cell lymphoma and high grade neuroendocrine tumor
    • EZH2 shows increased expression in cytoplasm and nucleus, while mutated P53 shows expression mainly in nucleus in ovarian carcinoma (Int J Clin Exp Pathol 2020;13:456)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Raavi Gupta, M.D.

    Low grade neuroendocrine tumor

    High grade neuroendocrine tumor


    Normal skin

    Squamous cell carcinoma in situ

    Squamous cell carcinoma

    Positive staining - normal
    • Testis, placenta, bone marrow: diffuse and strong staining
    • Skin: scattered and weak staining in the basal and spinous layer of the epidermis and strong intense stain in Langerhans cells (Eur J Dermatol 2014;24:41)
    • Esophagus, vagina, cervix: scanty and weak staining in the basal layer of the squamous epithelium
    • Gastrointestinal tract, fallopian tube, endometrium: scattered and weak staining in the basal layer of the epithelium and deep crypts
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Effusion fluid, abdomen:
      • Positive for malignancy (see comment)
      • Comment: Clusters of epithelial cells with hyperchromatic and angulated nuclei present in both ThinPrep and cell block. Immunohistochemical stains performed on sections of cell block show that tumor cells are positive for MOC31 and PAX8, while negative for D2-40 and calretinin. EZH2 stain is strongly positive in around 70% of tumor cells. These findings are consistent with metastatic adenocarcinoma of Müllerian primary.
    Board review style question #1
    A 56 year old woman reports cough, fatigue and low fever for 3 months, which has worsened in the past 2 days. She is admitted to the emergency room. Chest Xray shows opacity in the right upper lobe and extensive effusion in the right lung. Thoracentesis reveals tan-yellow fluid containing scanty clusters of epithelioid cells forming 3 dimensional architecture, with slightly enlarged nuclei and prominent nucleoli in the background of extensive inflammation, neutrophil infiltration and degenerative changes. Which of the following immunostains support the diagnosis of a malignant effusion over a benign effusion in the cell block?

    1. MOC31 membranous and EZH2 membranous staining
    2. MOC31 membranous and EZH2 nuclear staining
    3. MOC31 negative and EZH2 cytoplasmic staining
    4. MOC31 nuclear and EZH2 cytoplasmic staining
    Board review style answer #1
    B. MOC31 membranous and EZH2 nuclear staining supports the diagnosis of malignant effusion over benign effusion.

    Comment Here

    Reference: EZH2

    Factor VIII related antigen
    Definition / general
    • Interpretation: cytoplasmic stain; endothelium acts as a positive internal control
    Uses by pathologists
    • Common endothelial marker
    Positive staining - normal
    • Endothelial cells, megakaryocytes, platelets and mast cells
    Positive staining - disease
    • Vascular tumors

    Factor XIIIa
    Definition / general
    • FXIIIa is widely expressed in a variety of cell types; however, it is most commonly recognized as a marker of fibrohistiocytic proliferations
    • Derived from monocyte / macrophage myeloid lineage and expressed in dermal dendrocytes, primarily surrounding microvasculature in the adventitial dermis near the dermoepidermal junction and near skin appendages (Int J Mol Med 2008;22:403)
    • Active form of factor XIII, the last enzyme in the coagulation cascade
    Essential features
    • Cytoplasmic marker with expression in normal epithelial tissue and various pathologic states
    • Mainly used to distinguish dermatofibroma from dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
    • Generally expressed (with some variation) in benign sebaceous neoplasms, fibroblasts in fibrovascular tumors and a proportion of histiocytomas
    • Generally negative (with some variation) in malignant sebaceous neoplasms and clear cell tumors
    Terminology
    • Factor XIIIa, FXIIIa, F13a, fibrin stabilizing factor
    Pathophysiology
    Uses by pathologists
    • Marker of fibrohistiocytic proliferations
    • Marker of dermal dendrocytes
    • Differentiates dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (CD34+, factor XIIIa-) from dermatofibroma or benign fibrous histiocytoma (FH) (CD34-, factor XIIIa+)
    • FXIIIa (AC-1A1) is a sensitive and specific marker for sebaceous differentiation (J Cutan Pathol 2018;45:1)
    • Shown to be expressed in higher numbers in indeterminate leprosy compared to normal skin (Am J Dermatopathol 2015;37:269)
    Prognostic factors
    • FXIII has been shown to have a role in metastatic potential by impeding NK cell mediated clearance of tumor cells (J Thromb Haemost 2008;6:812)
    • Lung squamous cell carcinoma: plays a role in cell invasion and disease progression; extensive fibrin linkage correlated with worse prognosis (Nat Commun 2018;9:1988)
    • Low levels of FXIIIa following an acute myocardial infarction have been correlated with worse prognosis with increased complications, such as heart failure and death (Thromb Haemost 2015;114:123)
    Interpretation
    • Cytoplasmic staining ranging from focal to diffuse and weak to strong
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Brandon Umphress, M.D.

    Dermatofibroma, FXIIIa positivity

    Dermatofibroma, diffuse FXIIIa positivity


    Fibrohistiocytic proliferation, partial FXIIIa+

    Cellular fibrous histiocytoma, FXIIIa+

    Benign fibrous histiocytoma, FXIIIa+

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - not malignant
    Positive staining - malignant
    Negative staining - disease
    Sample pathology report
    • Skin, thigh lesion, biopsy:
      • Dermatofibroma (see comment)
      • Comment: Immunohistochemical studies with FXIIIa demonstrate diffuse positivity within tumor cells, while CD34 is negative. The findings are supportive of the diagnosis of dermatofibroma.
    • Skin, back mass, excision:
      • Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, margins free (see comment)
      • Comment: Immunohistochemical studies with CD34 demonstrate diffuse positivity within the tumor, while FXIIIa is negative. The immunohistochemical findings are in support of the diagnosis.
    Board review style question #1
    A 37 year old woman presents with a 1 year history of a lumpy mass on her midback. On physical exam, the lesion is 3 cm, slightly raised, resembling a scar that feels rubbery upon palpation. Histologic examination shows a spindle cell neoplasm that is diffusely positive for CD34 and negative for factor XIIIa and S100 staining. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. Cutaneous melanoma
    2. Dermatofibroma
    3. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
    4. Myxoid liposarcoma
    Board review style answer #1
    C. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is CD34+, factor XIIIa- and S100-. Dermatofibroma is typically CD34- and factor XIIIa+. Myxoid liposarcoma is usually vimentin+, S100+ and CD34-. Cutaneous melanoma would express S100.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Factor XIIIa
    Board review style question #2

    Which of the following features regarding factor XIIIa is true?

    1. Commonly differentiates melanoma from basal cell carcinoma
    2. Marker of fibrohistiocytic proliferations
    3. Part of the coagulation cascade aiding in plasminogen crosslinking
    4. Stains negatively for normal dermal dendrocytes
    Board review style answer #2
    B. Factor XIIIa is a general marker for fibrohistiocytic proliferations

    Comment Here

    Reference: Factor XIIIa

    Fascin
    Definition / general
    • 55 kDa protein that forms tight and stable cytoplasmic bundles with filamentous actin
    • Fascin-1: most common type; present in specialized cells with extensive surfaces or migratory potential, such as neurons, glia, dendritic cells, macrophages, skeletal and smooth muscle, endothelial cells; not normal epithelial cells
    • Fascin-2: in retina
    • Fascin-3: in testis
    • Actin bundling protein with important role in cell motility and adhesion
    • Overexpression in tumors often associated with aggressive disease
    Positive staining - disease
    • Carcinoma of biliary tract, breast, colon, lung, ovary, pancreas, skin
    • Follicular dendritic cell tumors, Hodgkin lymphoma-classic subtype (highly sensitive)
    • Interdigitating dendritic cell tumors, Langerhan cell histiocytosis, urothelial carcinoma (noninvasive papillary or invasive)
    Negative staining
    • Normal epithelial cells, normal urothelium, benign urothelial lesions
    Additional references

    Filaggrin
    Definition / general
    Terminology
    • Abnormalities in filaggrin production are associated with three skin diseases: atopic dermatitis, ichthyosis vulgaris and psoriasis vulgaris ( Calonje: McKee's Pathology of the Skin, 4th Edition, 2011);
      • Individuals with truncation mutations in the gene coding for filaggrin have a predilection to develop one of those conditions
      • Roughly 50% of all severe cases of atopic dermatitis are associated with at least one mutated filaggrin gene
      • Atopic dermatitis: severe (usually inherited) form of eczema; the exact pathophysiologic mechanism in poorly understood but is believed to be multi-factorial (environmental, hormonal, reduced skin barrier function, etc.)
      • Ichthyosis vulgaris: an autosomal dominant disease associated with the mutation of the profilaggrin gene;
        • Clinically characterized as slight to moderate fine scaling varying in quality
        • Histologically characterized as mild to moderate orthohyperkeratosis with a hyperplastic, atrophic or normal epidermis and a thin / absent granular cell layer
      • Psoriasis vulgaris: probably autoimmune disorder characterized by hyperproliferation of the epidermis with a relative lack of keratinocyte maturation
        • Histologically features acanthosis, partial or complete loss of the stratum granulosum, parakeratosis and hyperkeratosis, suprapapillary thinning of the epidermis and neutrophils in the upper stratum spinosum and stratum corneum
    ICD coding
    • ICD-10:
      • L20.84 - intrinsic (allergic) eczema
      • Q80.0 - ichthyosis vulgaris
      • L40.0 - psoriasis vulgaris
    Epidemiology
    • Ichthyosis vulgaris
      • Truncation mutations R501X and 2284del4 are common in Caucasian individuals; 7 - 10% of them have at least one copy of those aberrations
      • Abnormalities in R501X and 2284del4 are generally absent in non-Caucasian individuals; restricted mutations (3321delA and S2554X) have been seen in Japanese persons (J Invest Dermatol 2008;128:1436)
      • United States
        • Hereditary ichthyosis vulgaris is relatively common in the U.S., with a prevalence of ~1 in 300 persons; acquired ichthyosis is very rare and its prevalence in the U.S. is unknown
      • International
        • Hereditary ichthyosis vulgaris is encountered internationally;
          • Study in England showed a frequency of 1 in 250 children
          • Acquired ichthyosis is rare worldwide and its prevalence is unknown
    • Atopic dermatitis (atopic eczema) and psoriasis
      • Density of intra-epidermal filaggrin is decreased in both atopic dermatitis (AD) and psoriasis variants (PV); however, the aforementioned mutations in the filaggrin gene have not been identified consistently in patients with either of those diseases
      • Mechanisms for alterations in filaggrin synthesis are currently unknown for AD and PV (Australas J Dermatol 1998;39:225)
      • AD is seen in 15 to 20% of children and 1 to 3% of adults internationally; Between 0.3 and 2.5% of all persons have PV, according to cross sectional sections done in several countries ( Am J Manag Care 2017;23:S115)
    Sites
    • Skin, other anatomic locations containing squamous epithelium
    Pathophysiology
    • Essential for the proper formation of the stratum corneum for barrier formation and to reduce moisture loss (xerosis)
    • Functions via promoting the aggregation and disulfide bond formation of epithelial keratin intermediate filaments
    • Demonstrates monomeric incorporation into the lipid envelope of the stratum corneum
    • Also undergoes proteolysis to provide free hygroscopic acid (urocanic acid and pyrrolidone carboxylic acid) release into the stratum corneum, which aids in water retention in the natural moisturizing factor of the skin (J Cell Sci 2009;122:1285)
    • Loss of filaggrin or profilaggrin leads to dysfunction in formation of the stratum corneum and is the cause of ichthyosis vulgaris - the most common disorder of keratinization (PLoS One 2009;4:e5227)
    • Mutations are also seen in atopic dermatitis; studies have suggested that the resulting disruption in skin barrier function increases the percutaneous transfer of allergens, which may trigger an exaggerated immune response (Prz Gastroenterol 2014;9:200, J Allergy Clin Immunol 2012;129:1031)
    • Loss of function mutations have been postulated to increase individual susceptibility to develop skin malignancies because of decreased levels of filaggrin degradation products such as urocanic acid, which protect against damage from ultraviolet irradiation (J Eur Acad Dermatol Venereol 2018;32:242)
    • Although psoriasis variants (PV) definitely show a genetic (familial) association, no consistently identified abnormal gene complexes have been identified in patients with those conditions
    • PV does have an association with the histocompatibility antigens HLA-Cw6 and HLA-DR7 (J Invest Dermatol 2007;127:1367)
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Mark Wick, M.D.

    Filaggrin

    Positive staining - normal
    • Present in the cytoplasm of keratinocytes
    • Active filaggrin synthesis is present at the level of the epidermis where keratinocytes are transitioning between the nucleated granular layer and the anucleate cornified layer
    • Potentially seen in normal squamous mucosa
    Positive staining - disease
    • Potentially seen in squamous cell neoplasms of the skin and other organs that contain squamous epithelium and in locations where squamous metaplasia may occur
    • Abnormalities in the scope and distribution of filaggrin immunoreactivity have been seen in squamous dysplasia of the uterine cervix
    • Interestingly, there is no difference in the filaggrin immunoreactivity of skin from patients with atopic dermatitis and skin from normal individuals
    Negative staining
    • Normal urothelium, normal cuboidal and columnar epithelium, tumors lacking squamous differentiation
    Board review style question #1
    Which is one of the many essential functions of the filaggrin protein?

    1. Association with nectin and calcium to protect against mechanical stress
    2. Disulfide bond formation of intermediate filaments for epidermal stabilization
    3. Regulation of cellular migration and trafficking
    4. Storage and release of apocrine secretions
    Board review style answer #1
    B. Disulfide bond formation of intermediate filaments for epidermal stabilization. Answer A describes Loricrin, a terminally differentiating structural protein (J Oral Maxillofac Pathol 2015;19:64). Answer C describes GGA3 (Traffic 2016;17:670) and perhaps other proteins.

    Comment Here

    Reference: Filaggrin
    Board review style question #2
    Ichthyosis vulgaris is a disorder of keratinization which is associated with profilaggrin gene truncation. Histologically, this lesion is characterized by the presence of:

    1. Acute inflammatory infiltrate present in the upper stratum spinosum
    2. Mild acanthosis with papillomatosis, psoriasiform hyperplasia and prominent rete ridges
    3. Orthohyperkeratosis with diminished / absent stratum granulosum
    4. Spongiosis with vesiculation, superficial perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with eosinophils
    Board review style answer #2
    C. Orthohyperkeratosis with diminished/absent stratum granulosum

    Comment Here

    Reference: Filaggrin
    Board review style question #3
    Which statement regarding filaggrin is true?

    1. It is produced in the dermis and released in the stratum basale
    2. Loss of function mutations are not associated with an increased risk of cutaneous malignancy
    3. Together with keratin, it comprises 80 - 90% of epidermal proteins
    Board review style answer #3
    C. Together with keratin, it comprises 80 - 90% of epidermal proteins

    Comment Here

    Reference: Filaggrin

    FLI1
    Definition / general
    • FLI1 (Friend leukemia integration 1) gene is a proto-oncogene located on chromosome 11q24
    Essential features
    • Due to the increasing number of tumors found to express FLI1, more specific markers or molecular confirmation is necessary for the diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma
    Pathophysiology
    • Key member of the ETS family of transcription factors and closely related to ERG (Am J Respir Cell Mol Biol 2017;57:121)
    • Crucial role in maintenance and differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells and angiogenesis
    Interpretation
    Uses by pathologists
    • To differentiate Ewing sarcoma from other round blue cell tumors
      • 90% of Ewing sarcoma have EWS-FLI1 fusion
      • Distinguish Ewing sarcoma of kidney (positive) from blastema predominant Wilms tumor (negative)
      • Distinguish Ewing sarcoma (positive) from small cell osteosarcoma or mesenchymal chondrosarcoma (negative) (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2011;19:233)
    • Diagnosis of benign and malignant vascular tumors (positive) (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1061)
    Prognostic factors
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Contributed by Nasir Ud Din, M.B.B.S.
    Ewing sarcoma, H&E Ewing sarcoma, H&E

    Ewing sarcoma, H&E

    Pseudomyogenic hemangioendothelioma, H&E

    Pseudomyogenic hemangio-endothelioma, H&E

    Angiosarcoma, H&E

    Angiosarcoma, H&E


    Ewing sarcoma, FLI1 Ewing sarcoma, FLI1

    Ewing sarcoma, FLI1

    Pseudomyogenic hemangioendothelioma, FLI 1

    Pseudomyogenic hemangio-endothelioma, FLI 1

    Angiosarcoma, FLI1

    Angiosarcoma, FLI1

    Positive staining - normal
    • Endothelial cells, T and B lymphocytes
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    Sample pathology report
    • Liver, left lobe mass, trucut biopsy:
      • Features are consistent with epithelioid hemangioendothelioma (see comment)
      • Comment: Histological examination shows cores of a neoplasm composed of cords, clusters and small nests of round to polygonal cells. These cells have vesicular nuclei, conspicuous nucleoli and eosinophilic cytoplasm. Intracytoplasmic lumina are noted, occasionally containing red blood cells. The background is hyalinized with myxoid areas. Tumor cell are diffusely positive for CD31, CD34, ERG and FLI1 and focally positive for CK CAM5.2.
    Board review style question #1

    Discolored skin from left foot of a 70 year old Caucasian man was biopsied and shows compressed, slit-like vascular channels infiltrating dermis admixed with proliferation of moderately atypical, spindled cells. Which is the best immunohistochemical profile that confirms the diagnosis of Kaposi sarcoma?

    1. CD31 positive, CD34 positive, ERG positive
    2. ERG negative, HHV8 positive, EMA positive
    3. ERG positive, CD34 positive, FLI1 negative
    4. FLI1 positive, HHV8 positive, CD31 positive
    5. LMP1 positive, MOC31 negative, p63 positive
    Board review style answer #1
    D. FLI1 positive, HHV8 positive, CD31 positive. FLI1 is a highly sensitive vascular marker, while CD31 is both sensitive and specific, thus confirming the vascular origin. HHV8 positivity is seen in Kaposi sarcoma among vascular tumors.

    Comment Here

    Reference: FLI1

    FMC7
    Definition / general
    • Late B cell differentiation marker
    Positive stains
    • Mantle cell lymphoma, hairy cell leukemia, prolymphocytic leukemia
    Negative staining
    • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

    FN1 (pending)
    Table of Contents
    Definition / general
    Definition / general
    [Pending]

    Follicular dendritic cell secreted protein (FDCSP) (pending)
    Table of Contents
    Definition / general
    Definition / general
    (pending)

    Fontana-Masson
    Definition / general
    • Melanin stain
    • Interpretation: melanin granules reduce ammonia-silver nitrate and turn black, but difficult to interpret faint staining in sparsely positive cells
    Clinical features
    • Melanin is normally found in skin, eye, substantia nigra, melanoma
    • Melanin stains are Fontana-Masson (stains melanin black) and Schmorl method (stains melanin blue-green)
    • Bleaching with potassium permanganate or hydrogen peroxide is used to remove melanin to examine cellular morphology
    • Note: pseudomelanin of melanosis coli, usually found in macrophages, is PAS positive; true melanin is not
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Melanoma

    Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

    Positive staining - normal
    Positive staining - disease

    FOS (pending)
    Table of Contents
    Definition / general
    Definition / general
    [Pending]

    FOSB (pending)
    Table of Contents
    Definition / general
    Definition / general
    [Pending]

    FOXL2
    Definition / general
    • Forkhead Box L2; belongs to large family of forkhead FOX transcription factors (PLoS One 2012;7:e46270)
    • One of first genes expressed in female gonad development, required for proper granulosa cell differentiation during folliculogenesis
    • Expression strongly maintained in granulosa cells throughout life
    • FOXL2 expression has role in developing eyelid, associated with blepharophimosis ptosis epicanthus inversus syndrome (BPES), with or without accompanying premature ovarian failure (Mol Vis 2011;17:436, J Pediatr Endocrinol Metab 2013 Sep 13:1)


    FOXL2 mutation

    Uses by pathologists
    • FOXL2 mutation analysis distinguishes diffuse adult granulosa cell tumor ( 402C→G mutation present) from cellular fibroma (mutation absent) (Am J Surg Pathol 2013;37:1450, Mod Pathol 2013;26:860)
    • Note: FOXL2 staining is not specific for the FOXL2 mutation
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    Ovary: BPES patients
    (figs K / L)

    Ovary: granulosa cell tumors

    Positive staining - normal
    • Nuclear stain
    • Ovary: granulosa cells
    Positive staining - disease
    Negative staining
    • Ovary: most non sex cord stromal tumors
    • Ovary: gonadoblastoma - germ cells in gonadoblastoma and dysgerminoma components (Pediatr Dev Pathol 2011;14:391)

    FOXP3
    Definition / general
    • FOXP3 (Forkhead box P3) is a member of the FOX protein (forkhead / winged helix) family and acts as a master regulator of the development and function of regulatory T cells (Science 2003;299:1057)
    • It is a specific marker of both natural T regulatory cells (nTregs) and adaptive / induced T regulatory cells (a / iTregs) (Immunity 2005;22:329)
    • This can play an important role in immune destruction of cancer cells and various autoimmune diseases
    Essential features
    • Acts as a transcriptional regulator of regulatory T cells (Tregs)
    • Plays an essential role in maintaining homeostasis of the immune system by regulating the suppressive function, stability and expansion of the Tregs
    • Depending upon its interaction with various histone deacetylases or acetylases, FOXP3 can act both as a transcriptional activator or repressor in Tregs (GeneCards - FOXP3)
    • Orchestrates the expression levels of proteins like CTLA4, IL2, IL17, IFN-ϒ, RORA, RORC and RELA, resulting in inhibition of effector and helper T cells as well as expansion of Tregs (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 2005;102:5138, Nature 2007;446:685, Nature 2008;453:236, J Immunol 2008;180:4785)
    Terminology
    Also known as:
    • Scurfin, IPEX, DIETER, AIID, PIDX, XPID, JM2, FOXP3delta7
    • Mutations cause IPEX syndrome - Immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, x-linked immunodeficiency (GeneCards - FOXP3)
    Sites
    Pathophysiology
    • Induction of FOXP3 positive Treg cells has been reported to markedly reduce autoimmune disease severity in animal models of diabetes, multiple sclerosis, asthma, inflammatory bowel disease, thyroiditis and renal disease (Springer Semin Immunopathol 2006;28:3)
    • In mice, a 'Scurfy' phenotype is observed due to a mutant FOXP3 (lacking Forkhead domain); these mice demonstrate hyperproliferation of CD4+ T lymphocytes, extensive multiorgan infiltration and elevation of numerous cytokines (Nat Genet 2001;27:68)
    • In humans, patients with solid tumors show increased local FOXP3 positive T cells, which can inhibit the suppression of cancerous cells by the immune system (Blood 2006;108:804); conversely, FOXP3 positive Tregs are dysfunctional in autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) (J Autoimmun 2006;27:110)
    Clinical features
    Prognostic factors
    • Increased FOXP3 expression in muscle invading urinary bladder cancer is associated with reduced long term survival (BJU Int 2011;108:1672)
    • In breast cancer, increasing FOXP3 expression is associated with reduced overall survival; FOXP3 is also a strong prognostic factor for distant metastases free survival (J Clin Oncol 2009;27:1746)
    • In colorectal carcinoma, high FOXP3 expression in cancer cells are associated with poor prognosis: in these patients, FOXP3 levels in tumor infiltrating Treg cells did not correlate with overall patient survival (PLoS One 2013;8:e53630)
    • In smokers with adenocarcinoma of the lung, high FOXP3 / CD4 T cells correlated with poor survival (Ann Oncol 2016 Aug 8 [Epub ahead of print])
    Microscopic (histologic) images

    Images hosted on other servers:

    FOXP3 expression in prostate cancer

    FOXP3 expression in glioblastoma

    FOXP3 expression in normal lymph node

    Positive stains
    Negative stains
    Additional references

    Fumarate Hydratase (FH), S-(2-succino) cysteine (2SC)
    Definition / general
    • Fumarate Hydratase (FH) is an enzyme that catalyzes the reversible hydration / dehydration of fumarate to malate
    • S-(2-succino) cysteine (2SC) is a chemical modification of proteins and increases when biallelic FH is inactivated
    • 2SC is a sensitive marker in detecting defective FH enzyme function
    • FH is available commercially for clinical use but 2SC is not
    Essential features
    • Complete loss of immunoreactivity for FH and diffuse immunopositivity for 2SC are reliable biomarkers for detection of tumors with biallelic inactivation of FH
      Terminology
      • FH: fumarate hydratase
      • 2SC: S-succino cysteine
      • HLRCC: hereditary leiomyomatosis and renal cell carcinoma
      • SMT-FH: smooth muscle tumors with fumarate hydratase aberration
      • LM-BN: leiomyoma with bizarre nuclei
      Pathophysiology
      • Fumarate hydratase is a metabolic enzyme which participates in the citric acid cycle or Krebs cycle
      • It plays an important role allowing cells to use oxygen and generate energy
      • It helps convert a molecule called fumarate to a molecule called malate
      • Germline mutations or somatic biallelic inactivation of FH result in certain tumor development
      Clinical features
      • Germline mutations of FH are seen in hereditary renal cell carcinoma, leiomyomatosis, skin pillar leiomyoma and defined as renal cell carcinoma syndrome (HLRCC), also known as Reed syndrome (Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:865)
      • Somatic biallelic inactivation and loss of FH can also be seen in sporadic high grade papillary renal cell carcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:865), in leiomyoma with bizarre nuclei and rarely in usual type leiomyoma
      • Biallelic inactivation / mutations of FH are seen in:
      • Most leiomyomas with FH inactivation / loss have characteristic histologic features, defined as smooth muscle tumors with fumarate hydratase aberration, including high cellularity with eosinophilic macronucleoli, perinucleolar halos, eosinophilic cytoplasmic globules, neurilemmoma-like growth pattern and branching staghorn vessels (Int J Gynecol Pathol 2018;37:421, Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:923, Mod Pathol 2014;27:1020)
      • Using the two IHC stains in combination with FH mutational analysis appears to be an extremely reliable way to confirm FH alterations and diagnosis of hereditary leiomyomatosis and renal cell carcinoma
        Uses by pathologists
        Prognostic factors
        • FH deficient RCC (both somatic and germline mutations) tend to be more aggressive and worse outcome, demonstrated by its high rate of advanced stage, positive nodes, and distant metastases (Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:865)
        • Germline mutations of FH portend a high risk of renal cell carcinoma as well as frequent skin and uterine leiomyoma at younger age (Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:627)
        • Most smooth muscle tumors with FH alterations seem to be acquired or somatic FH inactivation / mutations (Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:599)
        • Detection of FH deficient RCC by immunostain for FH/2SC can provide prognostic value
          Microscopic (histologic) description
          • SMT-FH leiomyomas:
            • Tumors have relatively distinct histology and nuclear features characteristic by large and small round or oval nuclei, smooth nuclear membranes, prominent / macro nucleoli with perinucleolar halos
            • They show areas of neurilemmoma like growth pattern, eosinophilic hyaline globules and staghorn vessels
          • HLRCC:
            • Tumors show mixed architectural patterns, with papillary, tubular, tubulopapillary, solid and cystic structures
            • Hallmark of HLRCC demonstrate large eosinophilic nucleolus surrounded by a clear halo
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Jian-Jun Wei, M.D. and Maria Tretiakova, M.D.

          Uterine leiomyoma with FH alteration

          Skin leiomyoma with FH alteration

          Missing Image

          2SC positive stain

          Missing Image

          FH negative stain

          Missing Image

          2SC negative stain


          HLRCC, 10x

          HLRCC, 10x

          HLRCC FH loss, 10x

          HLRCC FH loss, 10x

          RCC with tubulopapillary architecture

          RCC with tubulopapillary architecture

          FH deficient sporadic RCC

          FH deficient sporadic RCC

          Positive stains
          • FH immunopositivity: strong and diffuse staining (dot-like and granular) in cytoplasm and mitochondria (Int J Gynecol Pathol 2018;37:421)
            • FH Positive staining: normal myometrium and tumors without FH alteration
          • 2SC immunopositivity: strong and diffuse staining (block-like) in cytoplasm and nucleus for 2SC (Int J Gynecol Pathol 2018;37:421)
            • 2SC Positive staining: in tumors with biallelic inactivation of FH
          Negative stains
          • FH immunonegativity: a complete absence of immunoreactivity in tumor cells
          • Immunopositivity for FH in vessels (endothelial cells and intima) can be used as internal positive control for stain
            • FH Negative staining: tumors with biallelic inactivation of FH, including FH related renal cell carcinoma, skin leiomyoma and uterine leiomyoma
          • 2SC immunonegativity: a complete absence of immunoreactivity in tumor cells
            • 2SC Negative staining: normal myometrium and tumors without FH alteration
          Molecular / cytogenetics description
          • Fumarate hydratase gene is located in 1q43 and consists of 10 exons
          • HLRCC follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern; this means that a parent with a FH gene mutation may pass along a copy of the gene with the mutation and it requires a second hit of FH alterations (somatic point mutation, or deletion) for renal cell carcinoma or leiomyomatosis
          • Fumarate hydratase mutations have been found in all exons with frequent mutations commonly found in exon 7
          • Based on one study, somatic fumarate hydratase point mutations account for over 40% of smooth muscle tumors with fumarate hydratase aberration with biallelic inactivation of FH and remainder tumors may be related to FH gene deletion (Int J Gynecol Pathol 2018;37:421)
          • In addition, many FH-SMT with biallelic inactivation of FH can be caused by chromosome deletion in 1q (see below molecular image)
          • Germline mutation can be found in almost all hereditary leiomyomatosis and renal cell carcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2014 38:627)
          Molecular / cytogenetics images

          Images hosted on other servers:

          FH mutation analysis in leiomyoma

          Board review style question #1
            Biallelic inactivation of fumarate hydratase (FH) is associated with which of the following:

          1. Exclusively present in germline mutation
          2. Hereditary leiomyomatosis and renal cell carcinoma
          3. Intravenous leiomyomatosis
          4. Loss of both FH and 2SC by immunohistochemical stain
          Board review style answer #1
          B. Hereditary leiomyomatosis and renal cell carcinoma

          Comment Here

          Galectin3
          Definition / general
          • Member of carbohydrate-binding protein family known as lectins
          • One of 14 galectins, which function as cell receptors for N-acetyl-lactosamine moieties present on most extracellular matrix components
          • Also member of the beta-galactoside-binding protein family that plays an important role in cell - cell adhesion, cell - matrix interactions, macrophage activation, angiogenesis, metastasis, apoptosis
          Uses by pathologists
          • In one study, Gal-3+ with Ki67 > 6% was associated with parathyroid carcinomas vs. adenomas (Hum Pathol 2005;36:908)
          Positive staining - normal
          • Endothelial cells, peripheral nerve, folliculostellate cells of adenohypophysis
          Positive staining - disease
          • Tumors of thyroid, head and neck, liver, colon, prolactinomas; parathyroid carcinoma; rarely in reactive of hyperplastic parathyroid lesions
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

          Immunostaining shows intrathyroidal cancer spread

          Cytoplasmic and nuclear staining

          Additional references

          Gastrin (pending)
          Table of Contents
          Definition / general
          Definition / general
          [Pending]

          GATA3
          Definition / general
          • One of 6 members of the GATA family of transcription factors
          • Involved in the luminal differentiation of breast epithelium, development of collecting system / urothelium and trophoblastic differentiation
          • Also master regulator of type 2 helper T cells
          Essential features
          • Nuclear marker with expression in many epithelial neoplasms (including most breast, urothelial, paraganglioma / pheochromocytoma and skin carcinoma; smaller percentages of lung, liver, pancreatic, gastric, renal, thyroid, endometrial, ovarian and salivary gland carcinoma)
          • Variable expression seen in selected germ cell tumors, mesotheliomas and rare sarcomas
          • Due to the increasing number of tumors found to express GATA3, immunohistochemical staining with additional markers is necessary to determine the etiology of metastatic lesions of unknown primary
          Clinical features
          Interpretation
          • Nuclear stain
          Uses by pathologists
          • Differentiate metastatic urothelial and breast carcinomas (GATA3+) from many other metastatic carcinomas (Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:13)
          • Differentiate urothelial carcinoma (> 80% GATA3+) from prostatic carcinoma (2% GATA3+)
          • Differentiate metastatic lobular carcinoma of the breast (GATA3+) from gastric signet ring cell carcinoma (GATA3-)
          • Differentiate squamous cell carcinoma of the skin (GATA3+) from squamous cell carcinoma of the lung (GATA3-)
          • Differentiate mesothelioma (81% GATA3+) from pulmonary adenocarcinoma (12% GATA3+)
          • Differentiate acute leukemias with T cell differentiation (GATA3+) from acute myeloid leukemia (< 10% GATA3+) and B lymphoblastic leukemias (GATA3-) (Hum Pathol 2017;65:166)
          • Subtyping renal neoplasms: GATA3+ in subset of clear cell papillary renal carcinomas and chromophobe renal cell carcinomas (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2018;26:316, Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:13)
          • Subtyping salivary gland neoplasms: diffuse GATA3 staining in 100% of mammary analogue secretory carcinoma and salivary duct carcinomas; GATA3 positive, but not diffuse staining, in other salivary tumors (Head Neck Pathol 2013;7:311)
          Prognostic factors
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Emily S. Reisenbichler, M.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D., Maria Tretiakova, M.D., Ph.D. and Debra Zynger, M.D.
          Metastatic breast carcinoma Metastatic breast carcinoma

          Metastatic breast carcinoma

          Poorly differentiated breast carcinoma Poorly differentiated breast carcinoma Poorly differentiated breast carcinoma

          Poorly differentiated breast carcinoma


          Invasive urothelial carcinoma

          Invasive urothelial carcinoma

          Nonneoplastic urothelium Nonneoplastic urothelium

          Nonneoplastic urothelium

          Nonneoplastic collecting ducts

          Nonneoplastic collecting ducts

          Urothelial carcinoma

          Urothelial carcinoma


          Pheochromocytoma Pheochromocytoma

          Pheochromocytoma

          Nonneoplastic lymphocytes Nonneoplastic lymphocytes

          Nonneoplastic lymphocytes

          Positive staining - normal
          Positive staining - tumors
          Negative staining - normal
          • Breast myoepithelial cells
          • Skin - epidermal granular cell layer, matrix cells of hair bulb and eccrine glands (Am J Dermatopathol 2015;37:885)
          • Thyroid follicular cells
          Negative staining - tumors
          Board review style question #1
          A biopsied liver lesion is radiographically suspected to be a metastasis of unknown primary. Which stain combination would be most consistent with metastasis from a breast primary?

          1. GATA3 negative, CK7 positive, TTF1 positive, CK20 negative
          2. GATA3 negative, S100 positive, SOX10 positive, AE1 / AE3 negative
          3. GATA3 positive, ER positive, CK7 positive, p63 negative
          4. GATA3 positive, p63 positive, ER negative, CK5 / 6 positive
          Board review style answer #1
          C. GATA3 positive, ER positive, CK7 positive, p63 negative. While none of these markers alone is specific for breast carcinoma, most breast carcinomas are positive, particularly estrogen receptor (ER) positive tumors. The combined immunohistochemical findings in the other answer choices are most indicative of melanoma and carcinomas of urothelial and lung primary.

          Comment Here

          Reference: GATA3

          GCET (pending)
          Table of Contents
          Definition / general
          Definition / general
          [Pending]

          GD2 (pending)
          [Pending]

          Giemsa / Helicobacter pylori
          Giemsa stain
          • As a hematology stain, works best with alcohol fixed smears
          • As a histology stain, detects mast cells and microorganisms, such as Giardia or Helicobacter
          • A "Romanowsky-type" stain, composed of mixtures of methylene blue, azure, and eosin compounds
          • Methylene blue is a metachromatic stain, meaning that some tissue components (mast cell granules, cartilage, mucin, amyloid) stain purple and not blue
          Helicobacter pylori stain
          • VENTANA anti Helicobacter pylori (SP48)
          • Rabbit Monoclonal Primary Antibody designed to qualitatively detect presence of Helicobacter pylori in formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded gastric biopsy tissue via light microscopy
          • Received FDA clearance in October 2011
            • No research studies yet
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
          H. pylori H. pylori

          H. pylori


          Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
          Definition / general
          • Intermediate filament for astrocytes (normal, reactive, neoplastic)
          Positive staining - disease

          GLUT1
          Definition / general
          • Glucose transporter isoform 1, GLUT1, is a member of a family of glucose transporters, proteins that catalyze bidirectional transfer of substrates, particularly glucose, across cell membranes
          • GLUT are key rate limiting factors for glucose metabolism (Melanoma Res 2019;29:603)
          Essential features
          Terminology
          • Glucose transporter isoform 1, GLUT1, GLUT-1
          Pathophysiology
          Clinical features
          • Upregulation of GLUT1 has been identified in various neoplastic processes
          Interpretation
          • Membrane staining pattern
          Uses by pathologists
          Prognostic factors
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Shaofeng Yan, M.D., Ph.D.

          Infantile hemangioma

          GLUT1, infantile hemangioma

          Sclerosing perineurioma

          GLUT1, sclerosing perineurioma

          Positive staining - normal
          Positive staining - disease
          Negative staining
          Board review style question #1


          A 2 year old boy has a vascular lesion on the cheek. The lesional endothelial cells are positive for GLUT1 by immunohistochemistry. Which of the following diagnoses is most consistent with this lesion?

          1. Angiokeratoma
          2. Infantile hemangioma
          3. Microvenular hemangioma
          4. Vascular malformation
          Board review style answer #1
          B. Infantile hemangioma

          Comment Here

          Reference: GLUT1

          Glutamine synthetase (pending)
          Table of Contents
          Definition / general
          Definition / general
          [Pending]

          Glypican 3
          Definition / general
          Essential features
          • Cytoplasmic or membranous staining
          • Used as part of a panel in diagnosing differentiating hepatocellular carcinoma from benign liver lesions and metastatic neoplasms
          • Used to identify a yolk sac tumor component in primary or metastatic germ cell tumors
          Pathophysiology
          • Oncofetal protein encoded by GPC3 gene; plays a role in the regulation of cell division and apoptosis (Diagn Pathol 2015;10:34)
          Clinical features
          Interpretation
          Uses by pathologists
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Nick Baniak, M.D.

          Hepatocellular carcinoma

          Yolk sac tumor

          Placenta (glypican 3)

          Virtual slides

          Images hosted on other servers:

          Glypican 3 staining yolk sac tumor

          Positive staining - not malignant
          • Placenta; syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast positive
          • Nonneoplastic liver with high grade hepatitis C activity (> 80%) (Hum Pathol 2008;39:209)
          Positive staining - disease
          Negative staining
          Sample pathology report
          • Retroperitoneal lymph node, excision:
            • Metastatic germ cell tumor comprised of teratoma (90%) and yolk sac tumor (10%)
            • Immunohistochemistry performed shows the following staining profile in the yolk sac component:
              • Positive: glypican 3
              • Negative: OCT 3/4
          Board review style question #1

          A 67 year old man presents with a solitary liver lesion. Glypican 3 staining was performed as part of a panel (see image above). What is the most likely diagnosis?

          1. Cirrhotic nodule
          2. Focal nodular hyperplasia
          3. Hepatic adenoma
          4. Hepatocellular carcinoma
          Board review style answer #1
          D. Hepatocellular carcinoma

          Comment Here

          Reference: Glypican 3 (GPC3)

          GMS
          Definition / general
          • Grocott-Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) is a special stain to detect fungi
          • Also positive in some nonfungal organisms and nonorganisms
          Essential features
          • Outlines fungal organisms by staining polysaccharides in cell walls
          • Fungal morphology on GMS usually not specific enough to allow definitive species identification
          • Stains some nonfungal organisms: bacteria, mycobacteria, Strongyloides, viral inclusions
          • Artifacts, mimickers and other pigments are common confounders to accurate interpretation
          Terminology
          • Other names for GMS:
            • Grocott stain
            • Grocott methenamine (hexamine) silver stain
          • Disambiguation from other similar terms:
          Pathophysiology
          Clinical features
          • GMS stain cannot provide definitive organism identification
          • Identification is preferably by other methods:
            • Culture (which can also gather susceptibility data)
            • Alternative testing of nontissue samples (e.g. antibody detection, antigen detection, galactomannan, β-D-glucan, PCR, blood culture, etc.)
            • Molecular testing
              • Few clinically validated tests are available for testing of formalin fixed, paraffin embedded (FFPE) blocks
              • Many false negatives due to formalin crosslinking
            • In a few instances, additional special stains on formalin fixed, paraffin embedded (FFPE) blocks
          • Reference: Clin Microbiol Rev 2011;24:247
          Interpretation
          • Sharply outlines fungal cell walls
          • Gray to black with peripheral outlines
          • Organisms may be very few and pale
          • Artifacts are common
            • Irregular sizes and shapes
            • No peripheral outline
            • Not associated with tissue reaction
            • Out of tissue plane
          • Counterstain: light green
            • Can also use light H&E (e.g. when a case sent for consult contains only one unstained slide)
          • Signs of infection: inflammation with or without granulomas, necrosis, hemorrhage, angioinvasion
          • Otherwise, it may be colonization rather than true infection; clinical correlation is required
          • In comment, describe the fungal elements seen on GMS
            • Hyphae: Septated or nonseptated? Branching or nonbranching? Acute or right angle branching?
            • Yeasts: Budding or nonbudding? Broad based or narrow based budding?
            • Presence of spherules or endospores
          • If a fungal identity in the report is requested by clinician, then state the fungi most frequently associated with this morphology and that morphologic mimickers exist; include a statement about the importance of clinical correlation
          • Reference: Clin Microbiol Rev 2011;24:247
          Uses by pathologists
          • GMS is ordered when fungi are suspected on H&E or cytology preparations
            • Granulomatous reaction is most common
            • Wide range of other reactions: exudative, necrotic or little cellular response (immunocompromised)
            • On H&E and cytologic preparations, fungi can be stained at varying intensities, appear refractile (capsule) or may not be visible
            • More than one organism may be identified in the same lesion
          • Advantages
            • Relatively quick and cost effective
            • GMS positive fungus in tissue helps confirm a positive culture result for environmentally ubiquitous fungi (versus contaminant)
            • Culture may be false negative
            • Pneumocystis cannot be grown in culture (mBio 2018;9:e00939)
            • Antibody testing can be negative in immunodeficient patients
            • Antibody and antigen tests may crossreact between different organisms
          • Disadvantages
            • Low sensitivity
            • Cannot definitively identify fungal species
            • Cannot provide antifungal susceptibility data
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Fang Zhou, M.D.

          Positive staining: normal
          Keratin debris

          Keratin debris

          Cytoplasmic mucin, peribronchial glands Cytoplasmic mucin, peribronchial glands

          Cytoplasmic mucin, peribronchial glands

          Cytoplasmic mucin

          Cytoplasmic mucin, sinonasal mucosa

          Thin extracellular mucin

          Thin extracellular mucin


          Thick extracellular mucin

          Thick extracellular mucin

          Neutrophil cytoplasm

          Neutrophil cytoplasm

          Foreign bodies near fungus

          Foreign bodies near fungus

          Artifacts out of plane Artifacts out of plane

          Artifacts out of plane


          Polarizable foreign fibers Polarizable foreign fibers

          Polarizable foreign fibers

          Polarizable foreign fibers Polarizable foreign fibers

          Polarizable foreign fibers

          Red blood cells overstaining Red blood cells overstaining

          Red blood cells overstaining



          Positive staining: fungal organisms
          Fungal hyphae

          Fungal hyphae

          Fungal yeasts Fungal yeasts

          Fungal yeasts

          Keratin debris

          Fungal pseudohyphae and yeasts


          Probable <i>Cryptococcus</i> spp. Probable <i>Cryptococcus</i> spp.

          Probable Cryptococcus spp.

          Probable <i>Cryptococcus</i> spp. Probable <i>Cryptococcus</i> spp.

          Probable Cryptococcus spp.



          Positive staining: nonfungal organisms
          Gram positive coccal bacteria Gram positive coccal bacteria

          Gram positive coccal bacteria

          Gram positive coccal bacteria Gram positive coccal bacteria

          Gram positive coccal bacteria


          Filamentous bacteria

          Filamentous bacteria

          Mycobacteria Mycobacteria

          Mycobacteria



          Other confounding pigments
          Calcium phosphate deposits Calcium phosphate deposits

          Calcium phosphate deposits

          Melanin pigment Melanin pigment

          Melanin pigment


          Anthracotic pigment Anthracotic pigment

          Anthracotic pigment

          Hemosiderin pigment Hemosiderin pigment

          Hemosiderin pigment



          Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D.

          Candida esophagitis

          Esophagitis

          Virtual slides

          Images hosted on other servers:

          Invasive aspergillosis, sinonasal

          Deep fungal infection, skin

          Fungal dermatitis

          Positive staining - normal
          Positive staining - disease
          • Fungal yeasts (diameter 2 - 15 microns) (Clin Microbiol Rev 2011;24:247)
            • Blastomyces dermatitidis
            • Cryptococcus spp.
            • Histoplasma capsulatum
            • Candida glabrata: yeasts only (other Candida spp. show mixed yeasts and pseudohyphae)
            • Pneumocystis jirovecii: will not grow in culture
            • Penicillium marneffei
            • Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
            • Sporothrix schenckii
            • Emmonsia crescens
            • Lacazia loboi
            • Other emerging opportunistic fungi, etc.
          • Fungal hyphae (diameter 2 - 6 microns) (Clin Microbiol Rev 2011;24:247)
            • Often ubiquitous in the environment (especially soil) and can contaminate cultures, so seeing hyphae in infected tissue is helpful to confirm culture results (Clin Microbiol Rev 2011;24:247)
            • Aspergillus spp.
            • Mucorales order: stains poorly with GMS; add PAS stain
              • Mucor spp. and Rhizopus spp. (mucormycosis / zygomycosis)
              • Entomophthorales spp.
            • Dematiaceous (melanin+) fungi
              • Madurella spp., Fonsecaea spp., Cladophialophora spp., Exophiala spp., Curvularia spp., Bipolaris spp., etc.
            • Other hyphae seen in tissue infections: Trichosporon spp., Fusarium spp., Scedosporium spp., Trichoderma spp., Paecilomyces spp., Pseudoallescheria spp., Scopulariopsis spp., Acremonium spp., Schizophyllum spp., Phaeoacremonium spp., Trichophyton spp., Phialophora verrucosa, Bipolaris spicifera, Curvularia lunata, etc. (other emerging opportunistic fungi)
          • Mixture of fungal yeasts and pseudohyphae:
          • Mixture of fungal spherules and endospores:
          • Nonfungal organisms (J Am Soc Cytopathol 2017;6:223, Diagn Cytopathol 2017;45:1105, Suvarna: Bancroft's Theory and Practice of Histological Techniques, 8th Edition, 2019, Clin Microbiol Rev 2011;24:247)
            • Must tell them apart from fungi (use size, shape)
            • May be helpful in challenging or sparse cases to prompt the ordering of additional validated confirmatory stains or clinical tests for the nonfungal organisms
              • In absence of other confirmatory results, interpret the GMS with caution (contaminants, artifacts, mimickers)
            • Mycobacterium
              • Fatty capsule may be lost due to antimycobacterial therapy and tissue processing, causing acid fast stains to fail or stain fewer bacilli
              • Sometimes, GMS can still stain residual cell wall carbohydrates
            • Bacteria (Gram stain may be lost due to necrosis or antibiotics)
              • Streptococcus spp.
              • Staphylococcus spp.
              • Filamentous: Nocardia and Actinomyces spp.
              • Bacillus cereus
              • Bartonella henselae
              • Bartonella quintana
            • Strongyloides stercoralis
            • Schistosoma eggs
            • Cytomegalovirus inclusions
            • Toxoplasma
          Negative staining
          • Organisms mimicking fungi that are GMS negative (Clin Microbiol Rev 2011;24:247)
            • Rhinosporidium seeberi
            • Trypanosoma cruzi
            • Leishmania spp.
          • Nonorganisms (may resemble fungi on H&E but do not contain carbohydrates and are negative for GMS)
          Sample pathology report
          • Sinonasal mucosa, biopsy:
            • Invasive fungal sinusitis (see comment)
            • Comment: GMS stain on block A1 shows broad, nonseptate fungal hyphae with right angle branching, associated with tissue necrosis and angioinvasion, consistent with invasive fungal sinusitis. Dr. _ was notified at 10:00am on 4/19/2021 with repeat back verification.
          Board review style question #1

          GMS stain performed on an esophageal biopsy from a patient with AIDS shows a mixture of yeasts and pseudohyphae, suggestive of Candida species. Which species can be ruled out based on this morphology?

          1. Candida albicans
          2. Candida dubliniensis
          3. Candida glabrata
          4. Candida parapsilosis
          5. Candida tropicalis
          Board review style answer #1
          C. Candida glabrata, formerly known as Torulopsis glabrata, is the only Candida species that does not form pseudohyphae in tissue. It was formerly considered a saprophytic organism that is commonly found in normal human flora but it has emerged as an opportunistic organism with both innate and acquired antifungal resistance (Microorganisms 2019;7:39, J Clin Microbiol 2004;42:4419).

          Comment Here

          Reference: GMS
          Board review style question #2
          A biopsy from a solid lung nodule shows granulomatous inflammation and fungal hyphae are seen on GMS stain. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

          1. Blastomyces dermatitidis
          2. Cryptococcus
          3. spp.
          4. Histoplasma capsulatum
          5. Pneumocystis jirovecii
          6. Scedosporium
          7. spp.
          Board review style answer #2
          E. Among the listed organisms, only Scedosporium spp. (though uncommon) are usually encountered as hyphae in infected tissue specimens (Clin Microbiol Rev 2008;21:157). It is an opportunistic fungus with intrinsic antifungal resistance (Med Mycol 2018;56:102). The other organisms in the answer choices are more commonly encountered dimorphic fungi that are usually seen as yeast forms in infected tissues.

          Comment Here

          Reference: GMS

          Gram stain
          Definition / general
          • Stain to detect and differentiate bacteria

          Method:
          • Apply crystal violet, then iodine, then decolorize by alcohol/acetone, then counterstain by safranin/fuchsin
          • Gram positive bacteria retain the crystal violet-iodine complex after decolorization, are not counterstained, and appear purple
          • Gram negative bacteria have a different cell wall structure, don’t retain the crystal violet-iodine complex after decolorization, and so are counterstained by safranin/fuchsin and appear pink/red

          Paraffin sections:
          • Use neutral red instead of safranin; gram negative organisms usually stain poorly because their bacterial wall lipid is removed in tissue processing
          • Note: with hematoxylin and eosin staining on paraffin sections, bacteria appear as blue rods or cocci regardless of gram reaction; colonies appear as fuzzy blue clusters
          • Rapid diagnostic strategy for bronchioalveolar lavage samples consists of Gram stain and bacterial ATP assay (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2005;129:78)
          • Not suitable for burn wound surfaces (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2003;127:1485)
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Images hosted on other servers:

          Gram positive tissue sections

          Bacillus anthracis in CSF

          Lactobacillus osteomyelitis

          Mycobacterium abscessus (soft tissue)


          Granzyme B
          Table of Contents
          Definition / general
          Definition / general
          • Enzyme associated with cytotoxic T lymphocytes; induces apoptosis in target cells of these lymphocytes

          GRM1 (pending)
          [Pending]

          Gross cystic disease fluid protein 15 (GCDFP-15)
          Definition / general
          Essential features
          • A marker of apocrine differentiation
          • Positive mainly in breast and salivary gland lesions
          • Useful in confirming breast primary in metastatic carcinomas but sensitivity is lower than GATA3
          Terminology
          • BRST2
          • Prolactin inducible protein (PIP)
          Pathophysiology
          • Expression of GCDFP-15 is regulated by androgen receptor (Int J Mol Med 1999;4:135)
          • Gene expression profiling revealed associations between PIP gene and cell adhesion, apoptosis and proliferation in breast cancer cells (PLoS One 2009;4:e4696)
          Clinical features
          Interpretation
          • Cytoplasmic staining
          Uses by pathologists
          • Confirming apocrine differentiation in breast and salivary gland lesions (Virchows Arch 2022;480:177)
          • Confirming breast or salivary gland primary in metastatic carcinomas (J Mol Pathol 2022;3:219, Semin Diagn Pathol 2022;39:313)
            • Less sensitive than GATA3 and mammaglobin for hormone receptor positive breast cancers
            • Less sensitive than SOX10 for hormone receptor negative breast cancers
            • Less sensitive than TRPS1 for hormone receptor positive, nonapocrine HER2 positive and triple negative breast cancers
          • Diagnosis of salivary gland carcinomas including salivary duct carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma
          • Differentiating primary extramammary Paget disease (positive) from secondary extramammary Paget disease (negative) (Arch Pathol Lab Med 1998;122:1077)
          Prognostic factors
          • GCDFP-15 stain expression in breast cancer offers no independent prognostic value over hormone markers (BMC Cancer 2014;14:546)
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Joshua J.X. Li, M.B.Ch.B. and Gary M. Tse, M.B.B.S.
          Breast apocrine glands GCDFP-15 (breast apocrine glands)

          Breast apocrine glands

          Apocrine ductal carcinoma in situ GCDFP-15 (apocrine ductal carcinoma in situ)

          Apocrine ductal carcinoma in situ

          Metastatic breast cancer GCDFP-15 (metastatic breast cancer)

          Metastatic breast cancer


          Salivary gland GCDFP-15 (salivary gland)

          Salivary gland

          Salivary duct carcinoma GCDFP-15 (salivary duct carcinoma)

          Salivary duct carcinoma

          Virtual slides

          Images hosted on other servers:
          Hidradenoma papilliferum (H&E) Hidradenoma papilliferum (GCDFP-15)

          Hidradenoma papilliferum

          Extramammary Paget disease (H&E) Extramammary Paget disease (GCDFP-15)

          Extramammary Paget disease

          Apocrine ductal carcinoma in situ (H&E) Apocrine ductal carcinoma in situ (GCDFP-15)

          Apocrine ductal carcinoma in situ

          Positive staining - normal
          Positive staining - disease
          Negative staining
          Sample pathology report
          • Lung nodule, core needle biopsy:
            • Metastatic carcinoma, consistent with breast primary (see comment)
            • Comment: Sections show clusters and nests of tumor cells with a moderate amount of cytoplasm, hyperchromatic irregular nuclei and occasional distinct nucleoli. The tumor cells show immunoreactivity to GATA3, GCDFP-15 and estrogen receptor, supporting a breast primary.
          Board review style question #1

          Which of the following is true about GCDFP-15 stain?

          1. It can be used in differentiating primary and secondary extramammary Paget disease
          2. It is an independent prognostic marker for breast cancers
          3. It is the most sensitive marker for metastatic breast cancer
          4. It is uniformly positive in all apocrine lesions of the breast
          5. It is positive in malignant but not benign salivary gland neoplasms
          Board review style answer #1
          A. It can be used in differentiating primary and secondary extramammary Paget disease. GCDFP-15 is positive in primary extramammary Paget disease while negative in secondary extramammary Paget disease (Arch Pathol Lab Med 1998;122:1077). Answer B is incorrect because GCDFP-15 does not show independent prognostic power over hormone markers. Answer E is incorrect because positive staining can be seen in pleomorphic adenomas. Answer D is incorrect because the positive rate of GCDFP-15 in apocrine lesions of the breast is just over 50%. Answer C is incorrect because GATA3 and TRPS1 are superior in sensitivity to GCDFP-15 for metastatic breast cancer.

          Comment Here

          Reference: Gross cystic disease fluid protein 15 (GCDFP-15)

          H3.3 G34W (H3F3A)
          Definition / general
          • Mutation specific immunohistochemical stain directed against the G34W mutation in histone 3F3A
          • Useful to support the diagnosis of giant cell tumor of bone
          Essential features
          • Mutations in H3F3A in position G34 are present in up to 96% of giant cell tumors of bone
          • Most common mutation is G34W
          • Antibody directed to the G34W mutant protein is a robust immunohistochemical marker to support this diagnosis (Cancer Cytopathol 2018;126:552, Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:1059)
          • Strong nuclear stain in neoplastic mononuclear cells
          • No expression of G34W has been reported in other giant cell rich histologic mimics
          Terminology
          • H3F3A G34W
          Pathophysiology
          • Point mutations in the glycine 34 position in H3F3A have been reported in up to 96% of giant cell tumors of bone
          • The most common mutation in these tumors, by far, is G34W (J Pathol Clin Res 2015;1:113, Nat Genet 2013;45:1479)
          • These mutations affect histone methylation
          Interpretation
          • Strong and diffuse nuclear staining in neoplastic mononuclear cells
          • Giant cells are usually negative
          Uses by pathologists
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Jose G. Mantilla, M.D.
          Giant cell tumor of bone Giant cell tumor of bone

          Giant cell tumor of bone

          G34W reactivity in giant cell tumor G34W reactivity in giant cell tumor

          G34W reactivity in giant cell tumor

          Giant cell poor giant cell tumor of bone

          Giant cell poor giant cell tumor of bone

          G34W reactivity in giant cell poor giant cell tumor

          G34W reactivity in giant cell poor giant cell tumor

          Positive staining - disease
          • Giant cell tumor of bone (92 - 96% of cases)
          Negative staining
          Molecular / cytogenetics description
          Sample pathology report
          • Distal femur lesion, biopsy:
            • Giant cell tumor of bone (see comment)
            • Comment: Histologic sections contain a neoplasm composed of cytologically bland mononuclear cells in a syncytial growth pattern accompanied by abundant multinucleated giant cells, which share similar cytologic features with the mononuclear cell population. No overt features of malignancy are identified. A G34W immunohistochemical stain is positive. These findings support the diagnosis of giant cell tumor of bone.
          Board review style question #1

          A radiolucent lesion in the mandible of a 38 year old man was biopsied, as shown on the image above. A H3.3 G34W immunohistochemical stain is negative. Which is the correct diagnosis?

          1. Central giant cell granuloma
          2. Chondroblastoma
          3. Conventional type osteosarcoma
          4. Giant cell tumor of bone
          5. Solid aneurysmal bone cyst
          Board review style answer #1
          A. Central giant cell granuloma. Although this lesion has similar morphologic features to those of giant cell tumor of bone, it is an indolent lesion with different biological features. Its characteristic location and absence of G34W reactivity help support this diagnosis (Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol Oral Radiol 2014;118:583). Answer B is incorrect because the histologic features in the images are not representative of chondroblastoma, which is composed of cytologically bland clear to epithelioid cells and may have a characteristic pattern of pericellular calcification. Giant cells are common. Answer C is incorrect because no features of malignancy are present in the image. Answer D is incorrect because giant cell tumor of bone has similar histologic features; however, most cases express G34W and typically arise in the epiphysis of long bones. Answer E is incorrect because although aneurysmal bone cysts may have prominent giant cells, the lesion lacks histologic features diagnostic of an aneurysmal bone cyst (aneurysmal spaces, characteristic myofibroblastic population, etc.).

          Comment Here

          Reference: H3.3 G34W (H3F3A)
          Board review style question #2
          Which of the following diseases has been reported to harbor point mutations in the histone 3.3 genes?

          1. Conventional type osteosarcoma
          2. Epithelioid sarcoma, proximal type
          3. Giant cell tumor of bone
          4. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
          5. Undifferentiated SMARCA4 deficient thoracic malignant neoplasm
          Board review style answer #2
          C. Giant cell tumor of bone. Point mutations in H3.3 have been described in the majority of cases of giant cell tumor of bone and chondroblastoma (Nat Genet 2013;45:1479). Answers D, B and E are incorrect because although alterations in the polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) complex genes (as seen in malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor) and switch / sucrose nonfermenting complex (SWI / SNF) (seen in both epithelioid sarcoma and undifferentiated SMARCA4 deficient thoracic neoplasm) lead to alterations in histone methylation, these are not due to intrinsic mutations in the histone genes. Answer A is incorrect because conventional type osteosarcoma lacks recurrent genetic alterations.

          Comment Here

          Reference: H3.3 G34W (H3F3A)

          H3K27M (pending)
          [Pending]

          H3K27me3
          Definition / general
          Essential features
          Pathophysiology
          Interpretation
          • H3K27me3 is constitutively expressed and intact expression is denoted by the presence of diffuse nuclear staining; loss of staining may be complete or heterogeneous (mosaic) (Mod Pathol 2016;29:4)
          • Interpretation is context dependent
          • An eccentric intranuclear dot reflects the inactivated X chromosome in normal tissues (Histopathology 2016;69:702)
          Uses by pathologists
          Prognostic factors
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Brendan C. Dickson, M.D.
          Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

          Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

          Malignant triton tumor with rhabdomyoblastic differentiation Malignant triton tumor with rhabdomyoblastic differentiation

          Malignant triton tumor with rhabdomyoblastic differentiation

          Schwannoma Schwannoma

          Schwannoma

          Positive staining - normal
          • Normal tissue contains intact nuclear H3K27me3 expression
          • Presence of an eccentric intranuclear dot reflects the inactivated X chromosome in normal tissues (Histopathology 2016;69:702)
          Positive staining - disease
          • Most tumor tissues contain intact nuclear H3K27me3 expression
          Negative staining
          Sample pathology report
          • Immunohistochemical analysis of H3K27me3 expression (clone, dilution, automated staining platform*):
            • The tissue staining pattern is intact / mosaic / lost.*
            • External (positive and negative) and internal (e.g., endothelial cells and lymphocytes) controls have intact staining pattern.*
          • *Details to be specified / confirmed upon reporting stain
          Board review style question #1

          A tumor is biopsied in a patient with a remote history of cancer. It shows a cellular spindle cell neoplasm with a herringbone pattern. Which of the following neoplasms is most likely to exhibit loss of H3K27me3?

          1. Cellular schwannoma
          2. Epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
          3. Neurofibroma
          4. Radiation associated malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
          Board review style answer #1
          D. Radiation associated malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor. Complete loss of H3K27me3 occurs in > 90% of radiation associated malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors. It is intact in the vast majority of cases of epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, schwannoma and neurofibroma.

          Comment Here

          Reference: H3K27me3

          H3K36M (pending)
          [Pending]

          Hansel stain
          Definition / general
          • Combination of eosin and methylene blue
          Uses by pathologists
          Positive staining - disease

          HBME
          Definition / general
          • Also called HBME-1
          • Marker of mesothelial cells, named after laboratory of Dr. Hector Battifora and MEsothelioma
          • Also positive in various thyroid carcinomas
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

          Tumor interface

          Striking membranous staining

          Strong membranous HBME-1 immunoreactivity

          Strong HBME-1
          immunoreactivity
          with apical membrane
          accentuation


          hCG
          Definition / general
          Uses by pathologists
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Cases #200, #207 and AFIP images
          Missing Image

          Choriocarcinoma, metastatic

          Missing Image

          Choriocarcinoma, 8 year old girl, mature teratoma

          Missing Image

          Bladder, urothelial carcinoma, AFIP



          Images hosted on other servers:
          Missing Image

          Normal placenta, third trimester

          Positive staining - normal
          • Placenta (syncytiotrophoblasts)
          Positive staining - disease
          Negative staining

          HepPar1
          Definition / general
          • Hepatocyte Paraffin 1
            • Also called Hep Par1, Hep
          • Recognizes mitochondrial antigen of hepatocytes
          • Highly sensitive (92%); negative in higher nuclear grade tumors (Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:978)
          • Moderately specific; false positive cases were CK7+ or CK20+ (adenocarcinoma), chromogranin+ or synaptophysin+ (neuroendocrine)
          • May be biomarker for early Barrett esophagus (Am J Clin Pathol 2012;137:111)
          Interpretation
          Uses by pathologists
          • Determine hepatocellular origin, particularly in panel with alpha-fetoprotein and CEA or CD10 (canalicular pattern, more specific than Hep Par1)
          • Differentiate hepatocellular carcinoma from cholangiocarcinoma or metastases to liver, as part of panel (Malays J Pathol 2006;28:87)
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Case #161
          Missing Image

          Liver, hepatocellular carcinoma, fibrolamellar



          Images hosted on other servers:
          Missing Image Missing Image

          Colon, tubular adenoma, low grade dysplasia, focal granular cytoplasmic staining

          Missing Image

          Colon, tubular adenoma, high grade dysplasia

          Missing Image Missing Image

          Colon, adenocarcinoma, strong staining

          Positive staining - normal
          • Hepatocytes, small intestinal epithelium
          Positive staining - disease
          • Most hepatocellular carcinomas and its metastases (Int J Surg Pathol 2010;18:433), some colon adenocarcinomas and some nonhepatocellular carcinomas metastatic to liver
          Negative staining
          • Bile duct adenoma, hepatoid adenocarcinoma (often)

          HER2 (c-erbB2) breast
          Definition / general
          • HER2/neu is the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2, also called ERBB2 (Erb-B2 receptor tyrosine kinase 2)
          • HER2 gene encodes transmembrane growth factor receptor (p185)
          • Cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase is constitutively active when overexpressed due to homo / heterodimerization (International Seminars in Surgical Oncology 2008;5:9)
          • The biologic impact of HER2 gene amplification is not due to (a) mere chromosome 17 polysomy without HER2 gene amplification (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:1221) or (b) chromosome 17 aneusomy
          Terminology
          • Also called Human Epidermal growth factor Receptor 2, c-erbB2, neu, ERBB2, CD340
          Clinical features
            HER2 gene amplification / protein overexpression
          • Present in approximately 15 - 20% of breast tumors
          • Associated with comedocarcinoma and aggressive invasive tumors
          • Usually appears first in ADH or DCIS (Mod Pathol 2002;15:116)
          • Also seen in non breast cancers (Mod Pathol 2007;20:192)
          • Anti-HER2 therapy (trastuzumab / Herceptin®) plus chemotherapy reduces recurrence, metastases and mortality in HER2 gene amplified breast cancer patients (Int Semin Surg Oncol 2008;5:9, Acta Oncol 2008;47:1564); Lapatinib (Tykerb®) has a similar effect (Biologics 2009;3:289)
          • Anti-HER2 therapy may improve survival in metastatic disease (Am J Clin Oncol 2008;31:250, N Engl J Med 2007;357:1496) but is associated with cardiac toxicity (BMC Cancer 2007;7:153)
          • To detect, the most commonly used in situ hybridization (ISH) is a dual probe fluorescent ISH (FISH) using fluorochrome labeled probes for (a) the HER2 locus on the long arm of chromosome 17 and (b) a site near the centromere of chromosome 17 (CEN17 or CEP17)
          • In situ hybridization detects HER2 gene amplification as evaluated by counting at least 20 tumor cells and estimating the HER2 copy number and the HER2/CEP17 ratio
          • Amplification can also be detected with chromogenic ISH (CISH), (Mod Pathol 2002;15:657, Mod Pathol 2005;18:1015, Mod Pathol 2006;19:481, Breast Cancer Res 2007;9:R68) and silver enhanced ISH (SISH) (Am J Clin Pathol 2009;132:514)
          • CISH and SISH use a peroxidase enzyme labeled probe with chromogenic detection, allowing results to be visualized with standard brightfield microscopy, so histologic features and HER2 status can be evaluated in parallel; signals do not decay over time, unlike FISH (Am J Clin Pathol 2009;132:539)
          • Chromogenic in situ hybridization (CISH) is the only FDA approved single probe ISH test for HER2
          • Quantitative reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction can also be used (Am J Clin Pathol 2008;129:563)
          • Immunohistochemistry (IHC) detects evidence of protein overexpression via evaluation of the membranous staining in the tumor cells
          • Testing must be performed in accredited laboratories

          ASCO / CAP recommendations for HER2 testing and result interpretation
          • Click here for 2013 update
          • Click here for 2018 focused update
          • HER2 testing must be performed on every primary invasive carcinoma and on a metastatic site (if stage IV)
          Tissue handling
          • Cytology specimens, needle biopsies and resection specimens can be used for testing
          • Cold ischemia time must be limited, with the time to fixative within 1 hour
          • Tissue fixed in 10% neutral buffered formalin between 6 - 72 hours
          • Testing must be performed according to standardized analytically validated protocols
          • Labs should show 95% concordance with another validated test (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2007;131:18, Mod Pathol 2008;21:S8); similar recommendations in UK (J Clin Pathol 2008;61:818)
          Interpretation
            Equivocal Results
          • If initial HER2 testing by immunohistochemistry results in equivocal value, reflex testing should be performed on the same specimen using the alternative test OR perform testing on a new specimen, if available, using the same or alternative test

            Heterogeneity
          • Approximately 20 - 30% cases could be classified as heterogeneous
          • The HER2/CEP17 ratio of each cohesive clone with amplification should be included in the report
          • Cases in which > 10% of cells are amplified (in a minimum of 20 non overlapping cells in the amplified and non amplified areas) should be regarded as HER2+, while cases in which 1 - 10% tumor cells show amplification should be regarded as HER2 negative
          • Tumors with scattered amplified cells should be categorized based on the overall score for the cells counted (minimum of 60 cells) (Mod Pathol 2014;27:4)

            Indeterminate Results
          • HER2 may be reported as indeterminate if technical problems preclude the reporting of a positive, negative or equivocal test result
          • Reasons include improper specimen handling, crush artifact, edge artifacts and analytical testing failures
          • In these cases, the reasoning for an indeterminate result should be reported and additional tissue should be acquired for testing
          Case reports
          Microscopic (histologic) images

          Contributed by Emily S. Reisenbichler, M.D. and Semir Vranić, M.D., Ph.D.
          Missing Image

          1+: IHC

          2+: IHC

          Missing Image

          3+: IHC

          Immunohistochemistry & special stains
          • Positive:
            • IHC 3+ (strong positive): tumor displays complete, intense circumferential membranous staining in > 10% of tumor cells (*readily appreciated using a low power objective and observed within a homogenous and contiguous invasive cell population)
          • Equivocal:
            • IHC 2+: weak to moderate complete membrane staining observed in > 10% of invasive tumor cells
          • Negative:
            • IHC 1+: incomplete faint membrane staining and within > 10% of invasive tumor cells
            • IHC 0: no staining observed or incomplete faint / barely perceptible membrane staining within ≤ 10% of invasive tumor cells
          Molecular / cytogenetics description
            In situ hybridization (ISH)
          • The Panel recommends that concomitant IHC review should become part of the interpretation of single probe ISH results and the Panel preferentially recommends the use of dual probe instead of single probe ISH assays
          • Positive:
            • Single probe average HER2 copy number ≥ 6.0 signals/cell
            • Dual probe HER2/CEP17 ratio ≥ 2.0 with any average HER2 copy number, or HER2/CEP17 < 2.0 with an average HER2 copy number ≥ 6.0 signals / cell
          • Additional workup required:
            • If a case has a HER2/CEP17 ratio ≥ 2.0 but the average HER2 signals/cell is < 4.0, a definitive diagnosis will be rendered based on additional workup
            • If a case has an average of ≥ 6.0 HER2 signals/cell with a HER2/CEP17 ratio of < 2.0, formerly diagnosed as ISH positive for HER2, a definitive diagnosis will be rendered based on additional workup
            • If the case has an average HER2 signals/tumor cell of ≥ 4.0 and < 6.0 HER2 signals/cell and HER2/CEP17 ratio is < 2.0, formerly diagnosed as ISH equivocal for HER2, a definitive diagnosis will be rendered based on additional workup
          • Additional workup steps:
            • IHC testing for HER2 should be performed using sections from the same tissue sample used for ISH
              1. If the IHC result is 3+, diagnosis is HER2 positive
              2. If the IHC result is 2+, recount ISH by having an additional observer, blinded to previous ISH results, count at least 20 cells that include the area of invasion with IHC 2+ staining:
                • If reviewing the count by the additional observer changes the result into another ISH category, the result should be adjudicated per internal procedures to define the final category
                • If the count remains an average of < 4.0 HER2 signals/cell and HER2/CEP17 ratio is ≥ 2.0, the diagnosis is HER2 negative with a comment
                • If the HER2/CEP17 ratio remains < 2.0 with ≥ 6.0 HER2 signals/cell, the diagnosis is HER2 positive
                • If the count remains an average of ≥ 4.0 and < 6.0 HER2 signals/cell with HER2/CEP17 ratio < 2.0, the diagnosis is HER2 negative with a comment
              3. If the IHC result is 0/1+, diagnosis is HER2 negative with comment
          • Negative:
            • Single probe average HER2 copy number < 4.0 signals/cell
            • Dual probe HER2/CEP17 ratio < 2.0 with an average HER2 copy number < 4.0 signals/cell
            Molecular / cytogenetics images

            Contributed by Emily S. Reisenbichler, M.D.

            HER2 amplified

            HER2 not amplified



            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image Missing Image

            CISH amplification: clusters and single signals


            Board review style question #1
              A woman with a right breast mass and axillary lymphadenopathy was found to have invasive mammary carcinoma with a positive lymph node. HER2 by IHC was performed with equivocal (2+) result on the core biopsy of the breast. What is the next step in management?

            1. Report the result as equivocal and begin treatment
            2. Report the result as negative
            3. Repeat HER2 IHC on the breast core
            4. Perform HER2 FISH on the breast core
            5. Report the result as positive
            Board review style answer #1
            D. The ASCO / CAP guidelines recommendations if initial HER2 testing by immunohistochemistry results in equivocal values, reflex testing by FISH should be performed on the same specimen or an alternative specimen (in this case the lymph node).

            Comment Here

            Reference: HER2 (c-erbB2) breast

            HER2 colon
            Definition / general
            • HER2 testing is performed on several cancer types to assess prognosis and to determine suitability for trastuzumab (Herceptin) therapy
            • HER2 oncogene encodes for a 185 KD transmembrane glycoprotein receptor with intracellular tyrosine kinase activity
            • HER2 amplification and overexpression lead to epithelial cell growth and tumorigenesis
            Essential features
            • HER2 is a member of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER / EGFR / ERBB) family
            • Immunohistochemical testing gives a score of 0 - 3+ that measures the amount of HER2 receptor protein on the surface of cells in a sampled tissue
            • Strong lateral or complete basolateral membrane staining of colorectal tumor cells is considered positive, similar to gastric and gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinomas, unlike breast cancers, where circumferential membrane reactivity is required for positivity
            • Approximately 3 - 5% of colorectal cancers have amplification of the HER2 gene (PLoS One 2014;9:e98528)
            Terminology
            • Encoded by gene ERBB2 (erythroblastic oncogene B2)
            • Also known as CD340 proto-oncogene Neu
            Pathophysiology
            • ERBB2, a known proto-oncogene, is located on the long arm of human chromosome 17 (17q12)
            • It encodes a transmembrane glycoprotein receptor that functions as an intracellular tyrosine kinase
            • HER2 protein has an extracellular ligand binding domain, a transmembrane domain and an intracellular tyrosine kinase catalytic domain
            • HER2 is not involved in ligand binding of the growth factors unless it is overexpressed
            • On ligand activation, the HER2 proteins undergo dimerization and transphosphorylation of their intracellular domains
            • Heterodimerization results in the autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues within the cytoplasmic domain of the receptors and initiates a variety of signaling pathways, principally the mitogen activated protein kinase (MAPK), phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase (PI3K) and protein kinase C (PKC) resulting in cell proliferation, survival, differentiation, angiogenesis and invasion (Biochim Biophys Acta 1994;1198:165)
            • As with other EGFR receptors, HER2 is critical in the activation of subcellular signal transduction pathways controlling epithelial cell growth and differentiation and possibly angiogenesis
            Clinical features
            • Rate of positivity in colon cancer is about 3 - 5%
            • HER2 overexpression can be detected by immunohistochemical staining (IHC) for HER2 protein, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) for ERBB2 gene amplification on paraffin embedded tissue or reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) for overexpression of ERBB2
            • HER2 IHC assesses the level of expression of the membrane receptor; score range from 0 - 3+ (see table)
            • Specimens with equivocal IHC results should then be validated using FISH
              • FISH can be used to measure the number of copies of the gene which are present and is thought to be more reliable than IHC
              • Results of FISH are reported as negative (not amplified) or positive (amplified)
            • HER2 positive colorectal tumors have shown potential benefit from combination therapy with HER2 targeted therapy (trastuzumab plus lapatinib), which represents a standard treatment after failure of conventional therapy (Mod Pathol 2015;28:1481)
            Interpretation
            • Consensus panel recommendations on HER2 IHC scoring for colorectal cancer (HERACLES diagnostic criteria) (Mod Pathol 2015;28:1481)

            Immunohistochemistry staining Immunohistochemistry expected pattern Immunohistochemistry classification FISH test
            No staining (0) --- Negative No
            Faint staining (1+) any cellularity Segmental or granular Negative No
            Moderate (2+) in < 50% cells Any Negative No
            Moderate (2+) in ≥ 50% of cells Circumferential, basolateral or lateral Equivocal Yes
            Intense (3+) in ≤ 10% cells Circumferential, basolateral or lateral Negative No
            Intense (3+) in > 10% Circumferential, basolateral or lateral Positive No
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            • HER2 overexpression has been controversially linked to prognosis
            • Some studies showed no significant difference in disease free survival between patients whose cancers were HER2 positive and HER2 negative and is thought to be not a predictor of outcome; however, 5 year cancer specific survival was improved in patients whose cancers were HER2 positive versus negative (Am J Surg Pathol 2013;37:522)
            • Other studies showed HER2 overexpression in colorectal cancer was associated with poorer 3 year and 5 year survival and correlated with advanced stage and high mitotic activity (Int J Colorectal Dis 2007;22:491, Histol Histopathol 1995;10:661)
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Roula Katerji, M.D. and Aaron R. Huber, D.O.
            Score 0

            Score 0

            Score 1

            Score 1+

            Score 2

            Score 2+

            Score 3

            Score 3+

            Sample pathology report
            • Colon, mass, biopsy:
              • Moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma
              • Immunohistochemistry HER2 analysis
                • Results: negative
                • Interpretation: 0
                • Staining results: no reactivity
              • Methodology
                • Antibody and assay methodology: rabbit anti-human HER2, Herceptest™ (FDA approved test kit) (Dako, Carpinteria, CA)
                • Control slides examined: external kit slides provided by manufacturer (cell lines with high, low and negative HER2 protein expression) and in house known HER2 amplified control tissue was evaluated along with the test tissue and showed appropriate staining
                • Interpretation based on recommendations put forth by Valtorta et al. (Mod Pathol 2015;28:1481)

              Interpretation criteria:
              3+ Positive Strong complete, lateral or basolateral membranous reactivity in more than 10% of cells
              2+ Equivocal Moderate complete, lateral or basolateral reactivity in 50% of cells
              1+ Negative Faint barely perceptible membranous reactivity any cellularity
              0 Negative No reactivity
            Board review style question #1

            While reviewing the HER2 immunohistochemical stains of a biopsy specimen of colon adenocarcinoma, the pathologist observes that ≥ 50% of cells have moderate lateral staining. Repeated immunohistochemical stains showed the same pattern. The correct interpretation and next step of this finding according to the HERACLES trial is

            1. Equivocal because there is moderate lateral or basolateral staining in ≥ 50% of tumor cells; FISH is the next step
            2. Negative because a positive result is strong circumferential membrane staining in > 70% of tumor cells, FISH is not required
            3. Negative because only moderate complete basolateral (and not lateral) membrane reactivity is a considered equivocal result, FISH is not required as a next step
            4. Positive because a positive result is moderate lateral or basolateral reactivity in at least 10% of neoplastic cells
            5. Positive because there is intense lateral membrane positivity in ≥ 50% of cells
            Board review style answer #1
            A. An equivocal result of HER2 staining in colorectal adenocarcinoma is moderate (2+) in ≥ 50% of cells in circumferential, basolateral or lateral. First retest with IHC is mandatory to make sure you have > 50% cellularity; if confirmed the next step is to do FISH. If amplified, the results are interpreted as positive. The remaining answer choices are incorrect because they deviate from this criterion. Choice B is incorrect because you need moderate (2+) in ≥ 50% of cells to have equivocal results and the next step is FISH. Choice C is incorrect because moderate circumferential lateral or basolateral staining in more than 50% is considered equivocal. Choice D is incorrect because positive result is when you have intense staining (3+) and not moderate. Choice E is incorrect because the image doesn’t show intense staining in ≥ 50% of cells; this choice describes the positive results of HER2 IHC test and FISH is not mandatory as a next step.

            Comment Here

            Reference: HER2 colon

            HER2 stomach/GE junction
            Definition / general
            • Cell surface receptor that functions in normal cell growth, encoded by ERBB2
            • Gene amplification and protein overexpression lead to tumorigenesis
            • HER2 testing identifies tumors that may respond to HER2 targeted therapy with trastuzumab
            Essential features
            • A cytoplasmic marker, overexpression of which bodes poor prognosis in untreated gastric and gastroesophageal junction (GEJ) adenocarcinomas
            • Receptor overexpression or gene amplification identifies tumors that might respond to HER2 targeted therapy with trastuzumab
            • Immunohistochemistry for HER2 is scored on a 4 tiered scale that ranges from 0 to 3+
            • Strong lateral or complete basolateral membrane staining is adequate for positivity in gastric and GEJ adenocarcinomas, unlike in breast cancers, where circumferential membrane reactivity is required for positivity
            • HER2 is assessed differently in resection and biopsy specimens, with the major difference being that only a cluster of 5 positive cells is required in a biopsy
            Terminology
            • Gene is ERBB2 (erythroblastosis oncogene B2)
            • Protein has variably been termed CD340, HER-2, HER2 and HER2 / neu
            Pathophysiology
            • ERBB2 gene is a proto-oncogene located on chromosome 17q12
            • HER2, the protein product of the gene, is a transmembrane receptor tyrosine kinase of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family
            • Other members of the EGFR family are HER1, HER3 and HER4
            • HER2 has no ligand but forms dimeric complexes with other EGFR family receptors after binding of ligand to their extracellular domains
            • Dimerization leads to phosphorylation of tyrosine residues in the cytoplasmic domain and activation of downstream signaling
            • This leads to cell proliferation and suppression of apoptosis (Biochim Biophys Acta 1994;1198:165)
            • In normal cells, receptor activation and dimerization are tightly regulated and short lived events
            • In tumors, HER2 gene amplification results in increased number of receptors, constitutive receptor signaling in the absence of ligand binding, markedly increased gene expression, excessive uncontrolled growth and tumorigenesis
            • HER2 also enhances invasiveness and metastasis independent of its effects on cell proliferation (Cancer Res 1997;57:1199)
            Diagrams / tables

            Images hosted on other servers:

            HER2 IHC
            testing in gastric &
            gastroesophageal
            adenocarcinoma

            Clinical features
            • Reported rates of HER2 positivity in gastric and GEJ adenocarcinomas range from 8.2 - 35% (Gastric Cancer 2014;17:1, J Gastric Cancer 2017;17:52)
            • Higher rates of HER2 positivity are seen in intestinal type tumors, patients younger than 60 years of age, moderately differentiated tumors and GEJ tumors (versus tumors in more distal gastric sites) (Cancer 2000;88:238, World J Gastroenterol 2012;18:2402, Lancet 2010;376:687)
            • Testing multiple samples from the same patient increases the rate of HER2 positivity due to tumor heterogeneity (Am J Clin Pathol 2019;151:461)
            • HER2 testing is carried out by immunohistochemistry (IHC) or by in situ hybridization (ISH) on formalin fixed and paraffin embedded tissue
            • HER2 IHC assesses the level of expression of the membrane receptor
              • Intensity of membrane staining is scored; in surgical specimens, the percentage of cancer cells with positive immunoreactivity is also factored into scoring
              • Scores range from 0 to 3+ (Table 1) (Histopathology 2008;52:797)
            • ISH assesses the status of gene amplification
              • Most common use of ISH is for confirmation of IHC equivocal (2+) cases
              • ISH techniques include fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), dual in situ hybridization and bright field in situ hybridization methodologies like chromogenic in situ hybridization (CISH) and silver enhanced in situ hybridization
              • ISH is reported as negative (nonamplified) or positive (amplified)
            • The following are part of the guidelines for HER2 testing issued by the College of American Pathologists and the American Society of Clinical Oncology (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2016;140:1345)
              • Recommended that testing be carried out before initiation of HER2 targeted therapy
              • Biopsy and surgical specimens are preferred but FNA cell block specimens are acceptable as an alternative
              • Areas of the tumor with the lowest grade morphology should be selected for testing
              • If the tumor is morphologically heterogeneous, more than 1 tissue block may be selected for testing
              • ISH scoring should be performed on areas of invasive adenocarcinoma with the strongest HER2 expression by IHC
            Interpretation
            • In gastric adenocarcinomas, only lateral or basolateral membranous staining (not circumferential staining) by IHC is necessary for positivity
            • Positive FISH is HER2:CEP17 ratio ≥ 2.0 (dual probe assays) or HER2 copy number > 6.0 (single probe assays) (Mod Pathol 2012;25:637)
            • In the U.S., a positive HER2 testing result is IHC 3+ or positive ISH (Gastric Cancer 2014;17:1)
            • In Europe, a positive result is IHC 3+ or IHC 2+ with positive ISH (Gastric Cancer 2014;17:1)


            Table 1: HER2 testing for gastric and GEJ adenocarcinomas (Histopathology 2008;52:797, Arch Pathol Lab Med 2016;140:1345)
            Pattern of HER2 membrane reactivity by IHC in surgical specimen Pattern of HER2 membrane reactivity by IHC in biopsy specimen HER2 score by IHC HER2 status by IHC Recommendations for ISH testing and treatment
            No reactivity or membrane reactivity in < 10% of tumor cells No membrane reactivity in cancer cells 0 Negative No ISH testing

            HER2 targeted treatment not recommended
            No more than faint partial membrane reactivity in 10% or more of tumor cells A cluster of at least 5 cancer cells with no more than faint membrane reactivity regardless of the percentage of positive cancer cells 1+ Negative No ISH testing

            HER2 targeted treatment not recommended
            10% or more of the tumor cells show weak to moderate lateral or complete basolateral membrane reactivity A cluster of at least 5 cancer cells with weak to moderate lateral or complete basolateral membrane reactivity regardless of the percentage of positive cancer cells 2+ Equivocal Reflex to ISH

            Administer HER2 targeted treatment only if ISH positive
            10% or more of the tumor cells show strong lateral or complete basolateral membrane reactivity A cluster of at least 5 cancer cells with strong lateral or complete basolateral membrane reactivity regardless of the percentage of positive cancer cells 3+ Positive No ISH testing

            Eligible for HER2 targeted treatment
            Uses by pathologists
            • Testing for HER2 protein overexpression or gene amplification identifies patients who may derive benefit from HER2 targeted therapy with agents like trastuzumab (Lancet 2010;376:687)
            • Trastuzumab is a humanized recombinant anti-HER2 targeting monoclonal antibody approved for combination treatment (with chemotherapy) of patients with inoperable locally advanced, recurrent or metastatic gastric or GEJ adenocarcinomas (Ther Adv Med Oncol 2013;5:143)
            Prognostic factors
            • In many studies, HER2 overexpression in untreated gastric and gastroesophageal cancers has been found to be associated with more aggressive biologic behavior, shorter survival, serosal invasion, higher stage and higher rates of lymph node and distant organ metastasis (J Cancer 2012;3:137, World J Gastroenterol 2012;18:2402)
            • However, other studies have found HER2 overexpression in adenocarcinomas of the esophagus, GEJ or gastric cardia to be associated with better survival, lower tumor grade and stage and lower rates of lymph node metastasis (BMC Cancer 2019;19:38, Clin Cancer Res 2012;18:546)
            • Intratumoral heterogeneity (nonuniform HER2 IHC scores in different areas of a tumor), is seen in up to 26% of metastatic or unresectable gastric adenocarcinoma and is associated with lower progression free and overall survival (World J Clin Cases 2019;7:1964)
            • HER2 overexpression (by IHC or FISH) identifies patients who might derive benefit from HER2 targeted therapy
            • Trastuzumab based chemotherapy in patients with HER2 overexpression results in prolongation in median survival, progression free survival, overall response rate, clinical benefit rate and duration of response (Lancet 2010;376:687)
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Aaron R. Huber, D.O.

            Score 0, HER2 IHC

            Score 1+, HER2 IHC

            Score 2+, HER2 IHC

            Score 3+, HER2 IHC


            Score 1+, HER2 IHC

            Score 2+, HER2 IHC

            Score 3+, HER2 IHC

            GEJ adenocarcinoma

            Negative HER2 IHC

            Molecular / cytogenetics images

            Contributed by Aaron R. Huber, D.O.

            ERBB2 FISH



            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image

            Esophagus adenocarcinoma CISH

            Sample pathology report
            • Gastroesophageal junction, mass, biopsy:
              • Adenocarcinoma
            • Immunohistochemistry HER2 analysis:
              • Results: Positive
              • Interpretation: 3+
            • Methodology:
              • Antibody and assay methodology: Rabbit anti-human HER2, HerceptestTM (FDA-approved test kit), (Dako, Carpenteria, CA).
              • Control slides examined: External kit slides provided by manufacturer (cell lines with high, low and negative HER2 protein expression) and in-house known HER2 amplified control tissue were evaluated along with the test tissue and showed appropriate staining.
              • Interpretation: Interpretation based on recommendations put forth by Hofmann et al. in assessment of a HER2 scoring system for gastric cancer: results from a validation study in Histopathology 2008;52:797.

            Interpretation criteria
            3+
            Positive
            Surgical specimen with moderate to strong complete or basolateral membranous reactivity in more than 10% of cancer cells

            Biopsy sample with cohesive cluster with moderate to strong complete or basolateral membranous reactivity
            2+
            Equivocal
            Surgical specimen with weak to moderate complete or basolateral reactivity in more than 10% of cancer cells

            Biopsy sample with cohesive cluster with weak to moderate complete, basolateral or lateral membranous reactivity
            1+
            Negative
            Surgical specimen with faint barely perceptible membranous reactivity in more than 10% of cells

            Biopsy sample with cohesive cluster with faint or barely perceptible membranous reactivity
            0
            Negative
            Surgical specimen with no reactivity or reactivity in less than 10% of cells

            Biopsy sample with no membranous reactivity in any cancer cell

            Board review style question #1

            While reviewing the HER2 immunohistochemical stains of a biopsy specimen of gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma, the pathologist observes that multiple groups of more than 5 tumor cells that constitute 5% of the neoplasm show strong complete lateral and basolateral membranous reactivity. The correct interpretation of this finding is

            1. Equivocal because only strong complete basolateral (and not lateral) membrane reactivity is a positive result
            2. Negative because a positive result is strong circumferential membrane staining in > 10% of tumor cells
            3. Negative because a positive result is strong lateral or complete basolateral membrane reactivity in ≥ 10% of the cancer cells
            4. Positive because a positive result is moderate lateral or basolateral reactivity in at least 10% of neoplastic cells
            5. Positive because there is strong lateral or complete basolateral membrane positivity in a cluster of more than 5 cancer cells
            Board review style answer #1
            E. A positive HER2 result on immunohistochemistry (a 3+ score) in a gastric biopsy specimen is strong lateral or complete basolateral staining in a cluster of at least 5 cancer cells, regardless of the percentage of the tumor that the cluster comprises. The remaining answer choices are incorrect because they deviate from this criterion. It is noteworthy that HER2 is interpreted differently in surgical specimens than in biopsies as at least 10% of the neoplastic cells in surgical specimens must show strong complete lateral or basolateral staining to count as a positive result (answer choice C). Choice B is the definition of a positive result (3+ score) in breast cancers. HER2 is also scored using different criteria in gastric and breast cancers.

            Comment Here

            Reference: HER2 stomach/GE junction

            HGAL
            Definition / general
            • Human germinal center associated lymphoma (HGAL)
            • B cell germinal center marker; others are CD10, BCL6, GCET1, LMO2, MEF2B
            • Note: this marker is different from human galectin
            Essential features
            Terminology
            • Also known as germinal center expressed transcript 2 (GCET2), germinal center associated signaling and motility (GCSAM) (Blood Adv 2021;5:5072)
            Pathophysiology
            • Regulates B cell receptor signaling and cell motility; may interact with tubulin and other cytoskeletal proteins to regulate lymphoma motility and spread (Blood 2010;116:5217, Blood Adv 2021;5:5072)
            Interpretation
            • Cytoplasmic staining
            Uses by pathologists
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Yasodha Natkunam, M.D., Ph.D., Izidore S. Lossos, M.D., Jennifer Rose Chapman, M.D., Nat Pernick, M.D. and Neslihan Berker, M.D.
            Tonsil (normal) Tonsil (normal) Tonsil (normal) Tonsil (normal) Tonsil (normal) Tonsil (normal)

            Tonsil (normal)


            Tonsil (normal) Tonsil (normal) Tonsil (normal) Tonsil (normal)

            Tonsil (normal)


            Lymph node (normal)

            Lymph node (normal)

            Lymph node-DLBCL Lymph node-DLBCL Lymph node-DLBCL Lymph node-DLBCL

            Lymph node, diffuse large B cell lymphoma


            Lymph node-follicular lymphoma Lymph node-follicular lymphoma Lymph node-follicular lymphoma Lymph node-follicular lymphoma Lymph node-follicular lymphoma

            Lymph node, follicular lymphoma

            Lymph node-marginal zone lymphoma

            Lymph node, marginal zone lymphoma

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - disease
            • Germinal center derived lymphomas, including follicular center cell lymphoma
            • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (54% of cases, 84% of germinal center B cell [GCB] derived cases and 35% of non-GCB cases) (Turk J Haematol 2023;40:162)
            • Lymphomas of TFH derivation, particularly early patterns of angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2022;46:643)
            Negative staining
            • Small lymphocytic lymphoma, plasmablastic lymphoma, marginal zone lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma, peripheral T cell lymphoma, anaplastic large cell lymphoma (Turk J Haematol 2023;40:162)
            Sample pathology report
            • Axillary lymph node, excision:
              • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (see comment)
              • Comment: Sections show partial or complete effacement of normal tissue architecture by a diffuse infiltrate of large atypical B lymphoid cells with vesicular chromatin and prominent nucleoli. The tumor cells are immunoreactive for B cell markers CD20 and CD79a. Although negative for the germinal center marker CD10, they are immunoreactive for HGAL and LMO2.
            Board review style question #1

            Which of the following statements about HGAL is true?

            1. HGAL does not stain follicular center cells
            2. HGAL does not stain T follicular helper cells
            3. HGAL expression is associated with improved survival in diffuse large B cell lymphoma
            4. HGAL is a non-germinal center cell marker
            Board review style answer #1
            C. HGAL expression is associated with improved survival in diffuse large B cell lymphoma and classical Hodgkin lymphoma. Answers A, B and D are incorrect because HGAL stains follicular center cells, stains T follicular helper cells and is a germinal center cell marker.

            Comment Here

            Reference: HGAL
            Board review style question #2
            HGAL is a useful marker in which of the following scenarios?

            1. Classification of cutaneous large B cell lymphomas
            2. Detection of follicular lymphoma involving the bone marrow
            3. Diagnosis of marginal zone lymphoma
            4. Helps classify CD10+ diffuse large cell lymphoma
            Board review style answer #2
            A. Classification of cutaneous large B cell lymphomas. HGAL marks germinal center B cells and can aid in the identification of tumors that arise from B lymphocytes such as primary cutaneous large B cell lymphoma. Answer B is incorrect because HGAL is less specific for follicular lymphomas involving the bone marrow and has shown downregulation in some studies. Answer C is incorrect because HGAL is a reliable marker for follicular lymphomas, not marginal zone lymphomas. Answer D is incorrect because HGAL helps classify CD10 negative diffuse large cell lymphomas, not CD positive ones.

            Comment Here

            Reference: HGAL

            HHV8 / KSHV
            Definition / general
            • Human Herpes Virus 8 is also known as Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated Herpes Virus
            • Gamma herpesvirus identified as an etiologic agent for Kaposi’s sarcoma in 1994
            • Latently infects endothelial cells, monocytes and B cells in Kaposi’s sarcoma patients
            • HHV8 Latency Associated Nuclear Antigen, highly expressed during latent HHV8 infection, is commonly used for IHC testing
            Clinical features
            • HHV8 infection is associated with 3 HIV related lymphoproliferative disorders: primary effusion lymphoma, multicentric Castleman’s disease and multicentric Castleman’s disease-associated plasmablastic lymphoma
            • IHC is sensitive and specific for Kaposi’s sarcoma but PCR is not due to its presence in other tumors (including hemangiomas) in immunocompromised (may be present within intratumoral blood mononuclear cells, Mod Pathol 2005;18:463)
            • LANA interacts with pRb, which regulates beginning of S phase of cell cycle; also inhibits p53
            • Presence in serum is associated with developing Kaposi sarcoma in immunocompromised individuals
            • References: Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:1363
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:

            LANA+ Kaposi sarcoma

            Soft tissue, foot: Kaposi sarcoma

            Positive staining - disease
            • HHV8 associated Kaposi sarcoma (endothelial and spindle cells, 92% sensitive and highly specific), primary effusion lymphoma, multicentric Castleman disease

            HIK1083
            Definition / general
            • Mouse monoclonal antibody that recognizes the peripheral alpha-linked N-acetylglucosamine residue present in the carbohydrate moiety of the mucin molecule
            • It recognizes mucin derived from the normal gastric mucosal cells (mucosal neck cells and pyloric gland cells) and Brunner gland cells in the gastrointestinal tract of mammals
            Uses by pathologists
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image

            Breast metastases of
            gastric signet ring
            cell carcinoma

            Positive stains
            • Gastric epithelium
            Electron microscopy description
            • Cytoplasmic localization

            HLA-DR
            Definition / general
            • HLA-DR is a MHC (major histocompatibility complex) class II cell surface receptor encoded by human leukocyte antigen complex on 6p21.31 (Wikipedia: HLA-DR [Accessed 3 August 2018])
            • Antigen presenting cells use HLA-DR molecules to present protein fragments (processed antigen) to T cells, a key event in induction of T cell responses (PLoS One 2012;7:e31483)
            Terminology
            • Also called HLA-DR (Ia)
            Clinical features
            Diagrams / tables

            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image

            DR with bound ligand

            Missing Image

            DR receptor

            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image

            Cervix, squamous cell carc, FA

            Missing Image

            Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

            Missing Image

            Skin, atopic eczema lesions

            Missing Image

            Skin scar

            Positive staining - normal
            • Basophils (immature), osteoblasts
            • Antigen presenting cells (B cells, dendritic cells, macrophages, monocytes)
            • Precursor T cells and CD4+ T cells
            • Liver, bile ductules
            • Thymus
            Positive staining - disease
            • AML: M0-M6 (some variability)
              • Also AML with myelodysplastic related changes, recurrent genetic abnormalities
              • Acute basophilic leukemia, acute panmyelosis with myelofibrosis, transient myeloproliferative disorder of Down syndrome (80%)
            • Breast: medullary carcinoma
            • Esophagus: Crohn's disease
            • Langerhans cell histiocytosis
            • Lymphomas:
              • Adult T cell leukemia / lymphoma (HTLV1+, frequent)
              • B-ALL
              • Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm
              • Extranodal NK / T cell lymphoma nasal type
              • Primary effusion
              • SLL / CLL
            • Thyroid: Graves disease (thyrocytes and lymphocytes)
            Negative staining

            HMB45
            Definition / general
            • Human Melanoma Black, discovered in 1986 (Am J Pathol 1986;123:195)
            • Monoclonal antibody originally identified from melanoma abstract, recognizes melanosomal glycoprotein gp100 (Pmel17)
            • Membrane protein required to form melanosomal fibrils, facilitates maturation of stage I pre-melanosomes to stage II
            • Identifies oncofetal glycoconjugate associated with immature melanosomes and probably related to the tyrosinase enzymatic system (J Histochem Cytochem 1992;40:207)
            Uses by pathologists
            • Common marker to confirm melanoma (invasive melanomas with paradoxical maturation show at least focal deep HMB45 reactivity, in contrast to nevi, which are negative in deep dermis)
            • Evaluating sentinel lymph nodes for melanoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1039)
            • Diagnosis (or ruling out diagnosis) of perivascular epithelioid cell tumors (angiomyolipoma, lymphangioleiomyomatoisis, PEComa, clear cell "sugar" tumor)
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Cases #195, #220, #32 and #109

            Cutaneous melanoma, HMB45

            Missing Image

            Bladder, paraganglioma

            Missing Image

            Kidney, angiomyolipoma

            Missing Image

            Kidney, atypical epithelioid angiomyolipoma

            Missing Image

            Uterus, melanoma



            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image

            Esophagus, melanoma

            Missing Image Missing Image

            Kidney, angiomyolipoma

            Missing Image

            Lung, clear cell "sugar" tumor


            Missing Image Missing Image

            Perivascular epithelioid cell tumors

            Missing Image

            Skin, melanoma

            Missing Image Missing Image

            Skin, nevi and melanomas

            Cytology images

            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image

            Thyroid, metastatic melanoma

            Positive staining - normal
            • Lymph nodes: scattered mononuclear cells
            • Skin: junctional melanocytes, activated melanocytes
            Positive staining - disease
            • Skin and other sites: melanoma (85-90%, see exceptions under Negative staining)
              • Also blue nevus, Spitz nevus (Spitz nevi may be HMB45- at other sites)
              • Nevus cells may be HMB45+ in intraepidermal and superficial dermal component
              • Nevus cells may also have weak nuclear staining that is overwhelmed by hematoxylin and usually not seen (Mod Pathol 2008;21:1121)
            • Angiomyolipoma (various sites, usually negative in nasal cavity)
            • Clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue (Am J Surg Pathol 2008;32:452)
            • Clear cell "sugar" tumor (Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:670)
            • Epithelioid sarcoma (occasional)
            • Kidney: t(6;11)(p21;q12) renal cell carcinoma (Hum Pathol 2012;43:726)
            • Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (also stains nonproliferative cells)
            • Melanocytosis
            • PEComa (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:1558)
            • Pheochromocytoma (30%, Arch Pathol Lab Med 1992;116:151)
            • Pigmented neural tumors (some), including some nerve sheath tumors, some neurofibromas (Hum Pathol 2005;36:871), pigmented neuroectodermal tumor of infancy
            • Tuberous sclerosis complex components
            Negative staining
            • Adult / resting melanocytes
            • Some melanomas: desmoplastic, oral mucosal, spindle cell (but 50% of HMB45 negative melanoma cells have premelanosomes on EM)
            • Atypical fibroxanthoma
            • Epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors
            • Leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma
            • Paget disease of breast, scrotum, vulva
            • Pigmented dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, pigmented epithelioid melanocytoma
            • Uterine tumors resembling ovarian sex cord tumors (Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:1749)

            HMGA2 (pending)
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            (pending)

            HNF-1B
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            (pending)

            HPV (Human papillomavirus)
            Definition / general
            • Human papillomaviruses (HPVs) are a group of small, double stranded DNA viruses that show tropism for squamous epithelium and infect cells in the basal layer of stratified squamous epithelia (Nat Rev Cancer 2010;10:550)
            • High risk HPV types are the causative agents of cervical (99%), penile, vaginal, vulvar, anal and oropharynx cancers (Nat Rev Cancer 2010;10:550, Vaccine 2006;24:S3/11)
            Essential features
            • HPV oncoproteins E5, E6 and E7 are responsible for initiation and progression of HPV associated cancers
            • Approximately 40 HPV types are known to infect the anogenital tract
            • HPV types are subdivided into high risk, probably high risk and low risk, having the potential to cause cancers and warts around the genital organs
            • Current methods available for HPV detection include polymerase chain reaction (PCR) based techniques, DNA in situ hybridization (ISH), RNA ISH and immunohistochemical detection of the p16 (CDKN2A), E4, E6 and E7
            Pathophysiology
            • Persistent infection with high risk HPV type is necessary but not sufficient for the progression to HPV associated cancer (Nat Rev Cancer 2010;10:550)
            • HPV E6 and E7 are the primary transforming viral proteins and E5 enhances proliferation and contributes to cancer progression
            • Intense and diffuse expression of p16 reflects functional inactivation of Rb induced by viral oncoprotein E7, which in turn releases E2F, allowing the cell to enter in the S phase of cell cycle (Eur Ann Otorhinolaryngol Head Neck Dis 2015;132:135)
            • p16 immunohistochemistry represents a surrogate for transcriptionally active high risk HPV, since HPV viral oncoprotein E7 signaling induces strong overexpression of the cellular protein p16INK4a in HPV transformed cells (Nat Rev Cancer 2010;10:550)
            • HPV oncoprotein E6 leads to the inactivation of tumor suppressor protein p53, contributing to tumor progression (Nat Rev Cancer 2010;10:550)
            Diagrams / tables

            Contributed by Ana Félix, M.D., Ph.D.
            HPV infection

            HPV infection

            Clinical features
            • More than 100 HPV types have been differentiated molecularly and at least 40 of them have a tropism for anogenital mucosa (Sci Rep 2018;8:11313)
            • HPVs are clinically classified as low risk and high risk, based on the propensity of the HPV associated lesions to undergo malignant progression (Virus Res 2009;143:195)
            • Low risk HPVs are associated with benign warts (Virus Res 2009;143:195)
            • High risk HPVs are associated with intraepithelial neoplasia and cancers (Virus Res 2009;143:195)
            • Only a fraction of women infected with high risk HPVs develop cervical cancer, indicating that additional factors must contribute to malignant progression (Nat Rev Cancer 2010;10:550)
            • Certain subtypes of HPVs are the causative agents of cervical (99%), penile, vulvar and anal carcinomas and oropharyngeal carcinomas (Nat Rev Cancer 2010;10:550, Vaccine 2006;24:S3/11)
            • High risk HPV is likely to be a causative agent of some low grade bladder carcinomas (Cancer 2011;117:2067)

            HPV DNA classification
            Group HPV types Comments
            Alpha HPV types
            1 16 Most potent HPV type; known to cause cancer at several sites
            1 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59 Sufficient evidence for cervical cancer
            2A 68 Limited evidence in humans and strong mechanistic evidence for cervical cancer
            2B 26, 53, 66, 67, 70, 73, 82 Limited evidence in humans for cervical cancer
            2B 30, 34, 69, 85, 97 Classified by phylogenetic analogy to HPV types with sufficient or limited evidence in humans
            3 6, 11 --
            Beta HPV types
            2B 5 and 8 Limited evidence for skin cancer in patients with epidermodysplasia verruciformis
            3 Other beta and gamma types

            Table: HPV classification according to International Agency for Research on Cancer Monograph Working Group (Lancet Oncol 2009;10:321)
            Interpretation
            • HPV DNA ISH
              • Punctate and dot-like signals within tumor nuclei indicate the presence of integrated HPV, while diffuse nuclear staining is thought to indicate the presence of episomal HPV genomes (Korean J Pathol 2010;44:513)
            • RNA ISH
            • p16 IHC
              • Diffuse and strong nuclear or nuclear and cytoplasmatic staining involving the basal and parabasal layers is considered positive (block-like staining)
              • Patchy / weak or cytoplasmatic only staining should be considered negative
              • Nuclear and cytoplasmic expression of p16 in ≥ 70% of tumor cells is required for the diagnosis of HPV positive oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2018;142:559)
            • E6 / E7 IHC
              • Cytoplasm staining of the tumor cells with E6 (Abcam, Clone C1P5) or E7 (Chemicon, Clone TGV701Y) oncoproteins is considered positive (Anticancer Res 2016;36:319)
            • E4 IHC
              • E4 protein is an immunohistochemical biomarker of productive HPV infection and associated with a low short-term progression risk (Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:1518)
              • Cytoplasmic staining of E4 (LBP, clone FH1.1) restricted to the upper quarter of the epithelium, involving the upper half of the epithelium or extensive staining is considered positive (Cancer Med 2020;9:2454)
              • E4 protein is absent in cancer, almost always negative in CIN3, while CIN2 and CIN1 can be either E4 positive or negative (Cancer Med 2020;9:2454)
              • Expression of p16 above 67% of the epithelium is associated with negative E4, while expression of p16 up to 67% of the epithelium is associated with positive E4 (p < 0.001) (Cancer Med 2020;9:2454)
              • Dual marker approach with p16 / E4 may help grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) lesions and improve disease stratification (Mod Pathol 2015;28:977, Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:1518)
            • Serum antibodies to HPV proteins
            Uses by pathologists
            • PCR
              • Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved the reverse transcription PCR method to detect E6 / E7 messenger RNA (mRNA) as the gold standard test for HPV detection, which can be used for viral load quantitation, DNA sequencing and mutation analysis (MLO Med Lab Obs 2012;44:14)
              • Compared with PCR based methods, DNA / RNA ISH and p16 IHC are more practical tools, with an interpretation fully in the light field (Cancer 2010;116:2166)
            • HPV DNA ISH
              • Differentiating HPV related oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (ISH+) from HPV independent oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (ISH-) (Cancer 2010;116:2166)
              • High specificity (89%) but lower sensitivity (83%)
              • Does not provide evidence for transcriptional HPV activity
            • HPV E6 / E7 mRNA ISH
              • Provides evidence for transcriptional HPV activity (Int J Cancer 2013;132:882)
              • 100% concordance with PCR in oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinomas (Int J Cancer 2013;132:882)
              • High specificity (93%) and sensitivity (97%) in oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinomas (Br J Cancer 2013;108:1332)
              • Highly sensitive method for the detection of anogenital HSIL, cervical squamous cell carcinoma and HPV related oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (sensitivity ≥ 97%) (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:607)
              • Differentiating anogenital low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) (positive in 78% of the cases) from negative / reactive cases (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:607)
              • Differentiating LSIL / cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN1) (ISH+) from negative / reactive lesions (ISH-) in cervical samples (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:192)
              • Should only be used in cases that are morphologically concerning for LSIL / CIN1 (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:192)
              • Differentiating cervical / oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma metastatic to the lung (ISH+) from primary pulmonary squamous cell carcinoma (ISH-)
              • Differentiating usual type cervical adenocarcinoma (ISH+) from endometrial carcinoma (ISH-)
              • Differentiating usual type cervical adenocarcinoma in situ (ISH+) from microglandular hyperplasia and tuboendometrioid metaplasia (ISH-)
            • p16 IHC
              • Surrogate marker for HPV driven squamous cell carcinoma, mainly cervical and oropharyngeal, independently of the HPV genotype involved (Hum Pathol 2004;35:689)
              • Sensitive but not specific (particularly outside the oropharynx) for the diagnosis of HPV related squamous cell carcinomas (Cancer Clin Oncol 2013;2:51)
              • Differentiating high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (p16+) from low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion or a non-HPV associated pathology such as atypical squamous metaplasia (p16-) (J Low Genit Tract Dis 2012;16:205)
              • Can be used as an adjunct to morphologic assessment for biopsy specimens interpreted as CIN1 that are at a high risk for missed high grade disease, defined as a prior cytologic interpretation of high grade squamous intraepithelial lesions, ASC-H or ASC-US / HPV16+ (J Low Genit Tract Dis 2012;16:205)
            • E6 / E7 IHC
              • Oncoproteins expressed in HPV associated cervical and oropharyngeal cancer can be detected by immunohistochemical evaluation (Anticancer Res 2016;36:319)
            Prognostic factors
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Ana Félix, M.D., Ph.D.
            HSIL

            HSIL

            p16

            p16

            Positive staining - disease
            • Squamous intraepithelial lesions (high grade or low grade)
              • Lower anogenital tract (cervix, vagina, vulva, perianus, anus, penis, scrotum)
              • Oropharynx
              • Less commonly, oral cavity and larynx
            • Squamous cell carcinoma (Lancet Oncol 2009;10:321)
              • Lower anogenital tract
              • Oropharynx
              • Less commonly, oral cavity and larynx
            • Adenocarcinoma
              • Uterine cervix (usual type)
            Negative staining - disease
            • Benign cervical lesions
              • Immature squamous metaplasia
              • Microglandular hyperplasia
              • Tuboendometrial metaplasia
            • Adenocarcinoma
              • Uterine cervix (clear cell, mesonephric, gastric type)
              • Endometrium
              • Ovary
              • Lung
            • Squamous cell carcinoma
              • Oropharynx
              • Oral cavity
              • Larynx
              • Lung
              • Skin
            Molecular / cytogenetics description
            • PCR
              • PCR is a cost effective technique that can be used for viral load quantification, DNA sequencing and mutation analysis (Curr Mol Med 2019;19:237)
              • PCR based detection of the HPV DNA can be used in formalin fixed paraffin embedded (FFPE) tissues containing a low number of viral DNA copies (Infect Agent Cancer 2020;15:46)
              • PCR based detection of the HPV DNA allows individual genotyping of low risk HPV, high risk HPV and probably high risk HPV types, though it cannot distinguish the HPV transcriptionally active infections from those defined as passenger HPV (Infect Agent Cancer 2020;15:46)
              • HPV DNA PCR is a highly sensitive technique with a not negligible risk of contamination (Front Oncol 2020;10:1751)
              • Quantitative reverse transcription PCR method for the detection of HPV E6 / E7 mRNA reveals that transcriptionally active HPV is present (Int J Cancer 2013;132:882)
              • E6 / E7 mRNA reverse transcription PCR detection requires fresh / frozen tissue (Front Oncol 2020;10:1751)
              • Quantitative reverse transcription PCR assays correlate highly with slide based HPV RNA in situ hybridization (Int J Cancer 2013;132:882)
            • ISH
              • Nucleic acid hybridization assays are very effective in detecting the common HPV types (HPVs 6 / 11 or 16) (Curr Mol Med 2019;19:237)
              • Great advantage of ISH is that it can be interpreted fully in the light field and ISH probes are commercially available for FFPE tissue (Hum Pathol 2017;63:184)
              • DNA ISH has a low sensitivity and requires large amounts of purified DNA (Curr Mol Med 2019;19:237, Mod Pathol 1998;11:971)
              • RNA ISH is capable of detecting the HPV E6 / E7 mRNA transcripts in up to 28 HPV types in its transcriptionally active (Infect Agent Cancer 2020;15:46)
              • RNA ISH is more sensitive than DNA ISH (100% versus 88%), more specific (87% versus 74%) and the correlation between p16 overexpression and presence of HPV mRNA is high (Hum Pathol 2017;63:184, Oral Oncol 2016;55:11)
              • HPV E6 / E7 mRNA ISH shows more than 97% sensitivity for the detection of HPV related (PCR+ and p16+) neoplasia of the cervix, vulva, anus and head and neck (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:607)
              • HPV E6 / E7 mRNA ISH positivity is 84% sensitive and 86% specific for an expert adjudicated diagnosis of CIN1 (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:192)
            • Multiplex HPV RNA ISH / p16 IHC
            Molecular / cytogenetics images

            Contributed by Ana Félix, M.D., Ph.D.
            ISH for high risk HPV DNA

            ISH for high risk HPV DNA



            Images hosted on other servers:
            Multiplex HPV RNA ISH / p16 IHC

            Multiplex HPV RNA ISH / p16 IHC

            Sample pathology report
            • Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing
              • p16 (by immunohistochemistry) for anogenital carcinomas and premalignant lesions
                • Negative (cytoplasmic only staining, patchy nonblock type staining or diffuse blush / weak intensity staining)
                • Positive (strong and continuous nuclear or nuclear and cytoplasmatic staining involving the basal and parabasal layers - block positive staining)
                • Indeterminate
              • p16 (by immunohistochemistry) for oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma
                • Negative (< 50% diffuse and strong nuclear and cytoplasmic staining)
                • Equivocal (≥ 50% but < 70% diffuse and strong nuclear and cytoplasmic staining)
                • Positive (≥ 70% diffuse and strong nuclear and cytoplasmic staining)
                • Indeterminate
              • HPV DNA (by ISH)
                • Negative (no signal)
                • Positive (punctate or diffuse)
                • Indeterminate
              • HPV E6 / E7 mRNA (by ISH)
                • Negative (no signal)
                • Positive (cytoplasmic or nuclear signals)
                • Indeterminate
              • HPV DNA - specify HPV genotypes tested (by PCR)
                • Undetectable
                • High risk HPV detected (specify HPV genotypes)
                • Low risk HPV detected (specify HPV genotypes)
                • Indeterminate
              • HPV E6 / E7 mRNA - specify HPV genotypes tested (by reverse transcription PCR)
                • Undetectable
                • High risk HPV detected (specify HPV genotypes)
                • Low risk HPV detected (specify HPV genotypes)
                • Indeterminate
            Board review style question #1
            Which of the following tumors is more likely to be HPV unrelated?

            1. Anal squamous cell carcinoma
            2. Cervix adenocarcinoma
            3. Colon adenocarcinoma
            4. Oropharynx squamous cell carcinoma
            5. Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva
            Board review style answer #1
            C. Colon adenocarcinoma

            Comment Here

            Reference: HPV (Human papillomavirus)
            Board review style question #2
            Which of the following sentences is true?

            1. DNA ISH cannot be interpreted by light microscopy
            2. HPV E4 protein is almost always expressed in high grade squamous intraepithelial lesions / CIN3
            3. PCR distinguishes the HPV transcriptionally active infections from those defined as passenger HPV
            4. p16 immunohistochemistry is a surrogate marker for transcriptionally active low risk HPV
            5. RNA ISH is more sensitive and specific than DNA ISH
            Board review style answer #2
            E. RNA ISH is more sensitive and specific than DNA ISH

            Comment Here

            Reference: HPV (Human papillomavirus)

            HSP70 (pending)
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            [Pending]

            HSV (pending)
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            [Pending]

            Human placental lactogen
            Definition / general
            • Also called HPL
            Positive stains
            • Placental site trophoblastic tumors, exaggerated placental sites
            Negative staining
            • Placental site nodules (or focal), epithelioid trophoblastic tumors (or focal)

            IDH1 (R132H)
            Definition / general
            • Isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 and 2 (IDH1 and IDH2) are metabolic enzymes that catalyze the oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate to produce α ketoglutarate (also known as 2 oxoglutarate [2OG]), NAPDH and CO2 (Genes Dev 2013;27:836)
            Essential features
            • IDH mutations were first identified in a small percent of glioblastomas and later found in the majority of adult low grade diffuse gliomas (Science 2008;321:1807, N Engl J Med 2009;360:765)
            • IDH mutant gliomas have a better prognosis than the IDH wild type counterparts
            • Over 90% of IDH mutations in gliomas are a missense mutation of IDH1 amino acid 132 (from arginine [R] to histidine [H]), which can be detected by mutation specific immunostain IDH1 R132H (Acta Neuropathol 2009;118:599, Neuropathology 2020;40:68)
            • IDH mutations have also been identified in some nonglioma tumor types (outlined in Positive staining - disease); however, those tumors are dominated by non IDH1 R132H mutations and thus have very little utility for the IDH1 R132H immunostain
            Pathophysiology
            • Mutant IDH enzymes produce (R)-2-hydroxyglutarate ([R]-2HG) instead of 2OG, which results in widespread DNA hypermethylation and a unique glioma CpG island methylator phenotype (G CIMP) in IDH mutant gliomas (Nature 2012;483:479)
            • Abnormal accumulation of tumor metabolite 2HG allows detection of IDH mutant glioma in live patients by magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) (Neuro Oncol 2016;18:1559)
            Diagrams / tables

            Images hosted on other servers:
            Role in TCA cycle

            Role in TCA cycle

            Catalyzation of wild type and mutant IDH1 and IDH2 reactions

            Catalyzation of wild type and mutant IDH1 and IDH2 reactions

            Uses by pathologists
            • IDH1 R132H immunostain is widely used in pathology laboratories on brain tumors in order to classify diffuse gliomas and provide prognostic implications
            • Multispecific mutant IDH1 / IDH2 immunostain (clone MsMab1) that detects mutant IDH1 (R132H, R132S, R132G) and IDH2 (R172S, R172G) or monoclonal antibody (clone 11C8B1) that detects mutant IDH2 R172T
            • Multiple monoclonal antibodies that target other individual IDH1 / IDH2 mutations and another multispecific mAbs (i.e., MsMab2) that recognizes IDH1 R132L and IDH2 R172M are available but have not gained significant clinical utility in pathology laboratories (Brain Tumor Pathol 2015;32:3)
            Prognostic factors
            • Diffuse glioma: IDH mutant gliomas have better prognosis than their IDH wild type counterparts (N Engl J Med 2009;360:765)
            • Acute myeloid leukemia (AML): IDH1 mutations are associated with worse overall survival (hazard ratio: 1.17; 95% CI: 1.02 - 1.36) and a lower complete remission rate (risk ratio: 1.30; 95% CI: 1.04 - 1.63) (Am J Blood Res 2012;2:254)
            • Chondrosarcoma: IDH1 / IDH2 mutations are associated with worse overall survival (hazard ratio: 1.90; 95% CI: 1.06 - 3.42; p: 0.03) (Cancer Med 2021;10:4415)
            Microscopic (histologic) description
            • IDH1 (R132H) mutant gliomas show diffuse cytoplasmic reactivity in all tumor cells on IDH1 R132H immunostains
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Chunyu Cai, M.D., Ph.D. and Justin Bishop, M.D.
            IDH low grade astrocytoma

            IDH low grade astrocytoma

            IDH high grade astrocytoma

            IDH high grade astrocytoma

            IDH oligodendroglioma

            IDH oligodendroglioma

            IDH1 / IDH2 MsMab1 IHC on SNUC

            IDH1 / IDH2 MsMab1 IHC on SNUC



            Contributed by GenomeMe
            Astrocytoma: IDH1 R132H, clone IHC132

            Astrocytoma: IDH1 R132H, clone IHC132

            Glioma: IDH1 R132H, clone IHC132 Glioma: IDH1 R132H, clone IHC132

            Glioma: IDH1 R132H, clone IHC132

            Positive staining - normal
            • IDH1 R132H is a mutation specific monoclonal antibody and is negative in normal tissue
            Positive staining - disease
            • Glial neoplasms:
              • By definition, all oligodendrogliomas harbor IDH1 / IDH2 mutation
              • Vast majority of adult type diffuse astrocytomas are IDH mutant
            • Nonglial neoplasms:
            Negative staining
            • CNS neoplasms:
              • Within the CNS, IDH R132H is considered a specific marker for a subset of adult diffuse gliomas and is not expressed in pediatric type diffuse gliomas, circumscribed gliomas, glioneuronal tumors, ependymal tumors, choroid plexus tumors or mesenchymal tumors (N Engl J Med 2009;360:765)
              • Of diffuse gliomas, IDH R132H mutation is not found in wild type glioblastoma, H3F3A G34R or K27M mutant gliomas; IDH mutation is uncommon in infratentorial, spinal cord diffuse gliomas and pediatric gliomas under 14 years of age (Acta Neuropathol Commun 2016;4:60, Acta Neuropathol 2012;124:449, Childs Nerv Syst 2011;27:87)
            • Non CNS neoplasms:
              • IDH1 R132H immunostain is negative in 258 thyroid, 11 renal cell, 10 ovarian, 18 endometrial, 20 breast, 25 colorectal, 22 non small cell lung carcinomas, 25 melanomas and 8 thyroid follicular adenomas (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2014;22:284)
              • In the initial study, IDH1 / IDH2 mutation was not detected in 494 non CNS tumors, including 35 lung cancers, 57 gastric cancers, 27 ovarian cancers, 96 breast cancers, 114 colorectal cancers, 95 pancreatic cancers, 7 prostate cancers, 4 chronic myelogenous leukemias, 7 chronic lymphocytic leukemias, 7 acute lymphoblastic leukemias and 45 acute myelogenous leukemias (N Engl J Med 2009;360:765)
            Sample pathology report
            • Brain, left frontal lobe mass, excision:
              • Astrocytoma, IDH mutant, WHO grade 2
            Board review style question #1

            Which of the following is the most common IDH mutation in diffuse gliomas?

            1. IDH1 R132G
            2. IDH1 R132H
            3. IDH1 R132L
            4. IDH2 R172K
            5. IDH2 R172S
            Board review style answer #1
            B. IDH1 R132H

            Comment Here

            Reference: IDH1 (R132H)

            IFITM1
            Definition / general
            • Part of the IFITM family (interferon induced transmembrane protein); involved in interferon mediated, antiviral immune response and tumor growth and proliferation
            • Useful as a marker of endometrial stromal differentiation
            Essential features
            • Part of the IFITM family (interferon induced transmembrane protein, IFITM1, IFITM2, IFITM3)
            • Downstream molecule of the Wnt / beta catenin signaling pathway in pregnancy related uterine growth and uterine development
            • Marker of endometrial stroma and endometrial stromal differentiation in spindle cell lesions
            • Increased IFITM1 expression correlates with increased TNM stage and poor prognosis in gallbladder, colorectal and breast carcinomas
            Terminology
            • CD225
            Pathophysiology
            Interpretation
            • Cytoplasmic staining
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Aurelia Busca, M.D., Ph.D.
            Myometrial invasion Myometrial invasion

            Myometrial invasion

            Myometrial invasion, IFITM1 Myometrial invasion, IFITM1

            Myometrial invasion, IFITM1

            Adenomyosis

            Adenomyosis

            Adenomyosis, IFITM1

            Adenomyosis, IFITM1

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - disease
            Negative staining
            Sample pathology report
            • Endometrium, curettings:
              • Spindle cell lesion, most consistent with endometrial stromal neoplasm (see comment)
              • Comment: Sections show a spindle cell lesion with bland nuclear features, resembling endometrial stroma and presence of small arterioles. By immunohistochemistry, the lesional cells are positive for CD10 and IFITM1 (endometrial stromal markers) and negative for desmin and caldesmon (smooth muscle markers). The findings are most consistent with a low grade endometrial stromal neoplasm. Definite classification (endometrial stromal nodule versus low grade endometrial stromal sarcoma) requires a resection specimen.
            Board review style question #1

            Which of the following statements is true about the endometrial carcinoma and IFITM1 immunostain illustrated in the photos shown above?

            1. IFITM1 highlights the endometrial stroma
            2. IFITM1 highlights the myometrium
            3. Pattern of staining supports the fact that the tumor is not invasive into myometrium
            4. Tumor is IFITM1 positive
            Board review style answer #1
            A. IFITM1 highlights the endometrial stroma

            Comment Here

            Reference: IFITM1
            Board review style question #2
            Which of these lesions is typically IFITM1 positive?

            1. Cellular leiomyoma
            2. Conventional leiomyoma
            3. High grade endometrial stromal sarcoma
            4. Low grade endometrial stromal sarcoma
            Board review style answer #2
            D. Low grade endometrial stromal sarcoma

            Comment Here

            Reference: IFITM1

            IgA IgD IgG IgM (pending)
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            (pending)

            IgG4
            Definition / general
            Interpretation
            • Cytoplasmic staining
            Uses by pathologists
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:

            Eye - MALT
            lymphoma with
            infiltration by
            IgG4+ plasma cells

            Gastric tumor (left) and ulcer (right) - IgG4 related

            Kidney - tubulointerstitial nephritis - IgG4 related


            Lacrimal gland - IgG4 related

            Various images

            Pancreatitis - IgG4 related

            Positive staining - disease
            • Plasma cells in IgG4+ related sclerosing disorders

            IHC procedure
            Definition / general
            • Immunohistochemistry (IHC) is a tool for surgical pathology and research
            • Diagnosis should be based on H&E morphology, with confirmation by immunohistochemistry or molecular testing; it is dangerous to use immunohistochemistry alone to make the diagnosis
            • A stain / result is not just positive or negative; focus on the types of cells that are immunoreactive and determine if they are tumor cells, inflammatory cells, normal cells or stromal cells; comparing the results to an H&E stained section or a negative control of the same block may be helpful (Am J Surg Pathol 2007;31:1627, J Clin Pathol 2011;64:466)
            • After you identify the type of cell staining, it is helpful to note the percentage of these cells staining, the intensity of staining (weak, 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+) and the pattern of staining (membranous, cytoplasmic, nuclear, dot-like)
            • The pattern of immunoreactivity should follow the anatomic distribution of the antigen before it is called positive / immunoreactive
            • Reference: CAP Laboratory Improvement Programs: Principles of Analytic Validation of Immunohistochemical Assays
            • Antibodies are often useful beyond their recommended expiration dates
            • Combining results from different studies may be hazardous, as studies may use different antibodies and different standards of interpretation
            • Recommended to interpret immunohistochemical stains in small needle core biopsy specimens based on the area with the greatest immunoreactivity (Am J Clin Pathol 2007;127:273)
            Common errors
            • Not using a positive or negative control; they are helpful in interpreting the staining pattern, particularly if it is heavy or weak
            • Other sources of error are ectopic antigen expression (may be due to abundant endogenous biotin, Hum Pathol 2011;42:369), cross reactions (Mod Pathol 2012;25:231), less specificity than thought (Int J Clin Exp Pathol 2012;5:137), use of the wrong secondary antibody or rarely the wrong primary antibody
            IHC procedure - general
            • Most important steps in immunohistochemistry are selection of appropriate antibodies, correct interpretation, technical quality and integration of results into final diagnosis (Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:873)
            • Pretreatment, often with microwaving of tissue in citrate buffer to unmask antigens hidden by formalin cross-links or other fixative
            • Other agents for pretreatment (antigen retrieval) are pepsin, proteases and trypsin
            • Apply primary antibody (monoclonal antibodies usually are more specific); antibody binds to antigens of interest
            • Wash off excess primary antibody
            • Add biotinylated anti-IgG antibody (secondary antibody), which binds to the primary antibody present
            • Add avidin-biotin-peroxidase complex, which binds to secondary antibody
            • Add 3, 3’ diaminobenzidine (DAB) as a chromagen (color changing reagent), with hematoxylin counterstaining
            • Other enzyme complexes besides avidin-biotin are horseradish peroxidase, alkaline phosphatase with naphthol phosphate and glucose oxidase with nitroblue tetrazolium
            • Other chromagens besides DAB are AEC (water soluble, sensitive to light)
            • Alternative fixation methods are possible, but must validate IHC for each target (Virchows Arch 2012;461:259)
            • References: Wikipedia, IHC World-protocols, NordiQC
            Diagrams / tables

            Images hosted on other servers:

            Direct method (uses only one antibody)

            Indirect method (uses primary and secondary antibodies)

            Uses by pathologists
            • Assist with diagnosis, by identifying staining patterns characteristic of specific tumors or disease processes
            • Assist with identification of normal tissue
            • Identify protein overexpression (HER2, EGFR), which is associated with response to treatment, and so is useful to clinicians
            • For research, to assist in understanding disease processes
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Case of the Week #200

            Cytoplasmic staining pattern (beta hCG):
            stain is diffuse within cytoplasm




            Images hosted on other servers:

            Golgi staining pattern: prolactin

            Cytoplasmic staining pattern (inhibin):
            stain is diffuse within cytoplasm

            Nuclear staining pattern: p63 in myoepithelial carcinoma

            Dot-like staining pattern

            Videos



            IMP3
            Definition / general
            Essential features
            Terminology
            Pathophysiology
            • IMPs are thought to enter the nucleus, bind to target mRNA and are then exported to the cytoplasm where they possibly influence posttranscriptional expression of the bound mRNA (Biochem J 2003;376:383)
            • Functional analyses of IMP3 suggested its potential influence on tumor cell adhesion and invasive growth in cancer (J Biol Chem 2005;280:18517, EMBO J 2006;25:1456)
            Interpretation
            • Cytoplasmic stain
            Uses by pathologists
            • Differentiation between reactive epithelial changes and high grade dysplasia / carcinoma in different organ systems (bile ducts and pancreas, ampulla of Vater, gastric epithelium, colonic epithelium)
            • Differentiation between benign and malignant tumors in different organ systems (liver, breast, testis)
            Prognostic factors
            Microscopic (histologic) description
            • Positivity most often defined as moderate to strong expression in more than 10% of tumor cells
            • Interpretation limited by use of different cut offs and different scoring systems in the literature
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by David Wachter, M.D.
            Missing Image

            Ductal adenocarcinoma of pancreas and pancreatic isle

            Missing Image

            Ductal adenocarcinoma of pancreas and duodenum

            Missing Image

            Hepatocellular carcinoma

            Positive staining - normal
            • TMA study analyzed IMP3 expression in normal tissues (Oncol Rep 2018;39:3)
            • Weakly positive: amnion, chorion cells, decidua, thymocytes, crypt cells of rectal mucosa, ciliated cells of bronchial mucosa, secretory cells of cervix, cells of the adenohypophysis of the anterior lobe of your the pituitary gland
            • Moderately positive: mesenchymal cells of placenta, mucous cells of submandibular and sublingual and bronchial glands, spermatogonia of testis
            • Strongly positive: syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, lymph follicles in lymph nodes and tonsils with lymphoblasts, lymphocytes, absorptive cells of ileum, ciliated cells of fallopian tube
            Positive staining - disease
            Negative staining

            Inhibin
            Definition / general
            • Dimeric glycoprotein consisting of alpha and beta subunits that is mainly produced in the gonads
            • Regulates follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion through negative feedback mechanisms with paracrine and autocrine actions on gonads and adrenal glands
            Essential features
            • Dimeric protein consisting of an alpha subunit and 2 closely related beta subunits: βA and βB
            • Member of the transforming growth factor beta family (TGF beta) serving as a marker of follicular growth, ovarian function and spermatogenesis
            • Inhibin alpha is expressed in ovary, endometrium, brain, adrenal gland and testis
            • Inhibin is highly expressed in sex cord stromal tumors including ovarian granulosa cell tumors (GCT) and Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors (Rom J Morphol Embryol 2017;58:753)
            Terminology
            • Inhibin alpha
            • Inhibin beta
            • Folliculostatin
            Pathophysiology
            • Inhibin is produced by different cell types at different times during the male and female life cycle
              • 2 most clinically important subunits are alpha and beta (other isoforms include betaC and betaE) (Reprod Biol Endocrinol 2010;8:143)
              • Inhibin suppresses the production and release of FSH from the pituitary gland in a negative feedback loop (Clin Endocrinol (Oxf) 2021;95:702)
              • Reproductive organs are the main source of inhibin; however, it can be found in the prostate, brain, placenta and adrenal glands
            • Both subunits are produced by Sertoli cells in men before puberty
              • In early puberty, inhibin beta levels rise then plateau (Clin Endocrinol (Oxf) 2021;95:702)
              • Serum levels of inhibin beta are decreased in boys with delayed puberty and bilateral cryptorchidism (J Urol 2022;207:701)
              • Serum levels of inhibin beta are a marker for male infertility in adults
            • Inhibin is produced by granulosa, theca and luteal cells of the ovary with variable expression patterns during the menstrual cycle
              • Secretion of both inhibin subunits in women is stimulated by FSH in the early follicular phase, reaching their highest concentrations in the middle of the luteal phase
              • Inhibin alpha levels are highest during the late follicular and luteal phases, while the beta subunit is most prominent during early and mid follicular phases
              • Decreased inhibin beta levels are associated with a decrease in the number of ovarian follicles and can lead to infertility (Hum Reprod Update 2010;16:39)
            Clinical features
            • Elevations of both inhibin subunits have been detected in GCT
            • Mutations in the inhibin gene are associated with premature ovarian failure caused by a reduction in inhibin beta (Hum Reprod Update 2010;16:39)
            • Serum levels of both inhibin subunits may be useful when assessing ovarian function in patients with Turner syndrome (Pol Merkur Lekarski 2009;26:258)
            • Serum levels of inhibin alpha are part of a quadruple test for prenatal screening of Down syndrome (Semin Reprod Med 2004:22:235)
            Interpretation
            Uses by pathologists
            • Inhibin alpha protein expression is generally considered an important diagnostic feature for adrenocortical tumors and sex cord stromal tumors of the testis and the ovary (Biomedicines 2022;10:2507)
            • Inhibin protein expression helps to distinguish sex cord stromal tumors from other malignant ovarian neoplasms since it is highly expressed in GCT and Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors, whereas other ovarian carcinoma subtypes are mostly negative
              • Sex cord and stromal histology elements are confirmed by reticulin stains that show the framework surrounding individual tumor cells
            • Most clinical tests for inhibin measure serum levels along with other reproductive hormones to test for ovarian or testicular function
            • When used together, serum levels for inhibin and CA125 (marker for epithelial tumors) improved the specificity for identifying GCT from 82% to 95% in postmenopausal women (Mol Cell Endocrinol 2002;191:97)
            • It is important to note that tissue staining of inhibin does not always correlate with serum levels (Am J Cancer Res 2022;12:3495)
            Prognostic factors
            Microscopic (histologic) description
            • Inhibin is a useful marker to differentiate GCT from other epithelial neoplasms with similar histology; inhibin staining in other epithelial neoplasms is usually weak or negative and limited to nontumoral stromal theca cells (Rom J Morphol Embryol 2017;58:753)
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Pamela Wirth, Ph.D. (source: University of Toronto and University of Michigan virtual slide box)
            Adrenal cortical adenoma Adrenal cortical adenoma

            Adrenal cortical adenoma

            Ovary thecoma Ovarian thecoma

            Ovarian thecoma


            Ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma Ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma Ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma

            Ovarian mucinous adenocarcinoma

            Positive staining - normal
            • Sertoli cells (diffuse and strong), granulosa cells, prostate, brain, adrenal glands
            • Leydig cells of the testis (Mod Pathol 1998;11:774)
            • Corpus luteum of the ovary, cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast, chorion cells of the placenta (stronger staining in the first trimester than in mature placenta), cortical cells of adrenal gland and granulosa cells of the ovary (Biomedicines 2022;10:2507)
            Positive staining - disease
            • Sex cord stromal tumors including granulosa cell tumors, Sertoli cell tumors, Leydig cell tumors and ovarian fibrothecomas (Mod Pathol 1998;11:774)
            • Adrenocortical tumors (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2012;20:462)
            • Placental and gestational trophoblastic lesions
            • Adrenocortical and sex cord stromal tumors usually show a moderate to strong level of cytoplasmic inhibin staining
              • GCT of the ovary (100%)
              • Adrenal cortical adenomas (93%) and carcinomas (80%)
              • Ovarian fibrothecomas (70 - 80%)
              • Acinar cell carcinomas of the pancreas (80%) (Biomedicines 2022;10:2507)
            Negative staining
            Molecular / cytogenetics description
            • Inhibin alpha gene (INHA) is located on chromosome 2 (2q33 - q36)
            • Inhibin beta genes, βA and βB subunits (INHBA and INHBB), are located on chromosome 7 (7p15 - p13) and chromosome 2 (2cen - q13), respectively (Endocr Rev 2014;35:747)
            • Mutations in the inhibin gene are associated with premature ovarian failure as a result of reduced inhibin beta activity (Hum Reprod 2000;15:2644)
              • Variant in INHssA gene due to polymorphism
              • Variant in INHalpha gene due to amino acid substitution
            • Higher INHBA expression is significantly associated with reduced overall survival in cervical cancer (Front Genet 2022;12:705512)
            Sample pathology report
            • Biopsy, ovary:
              • Granulosa cell tumor (see comment)
              • Comment: A 60 year old woman presented with abnormal uterine bleeding and abdominal pain. Ultrasound revealed a solid mass on the right ovary. Microscopic examination of the biopsy revealed sheets of tumor cells arranged in a trabecular pattern. Diagnosis of granulosa cell tumor was supported by positive diffuse cytoplasmic immunostaining for inhibin alpha.
            Board review style question #1

            A biopsy removed from the ovary of a 56 year old woman with abnormal bleeding showed cells with ill defined cytoplasmic membranes and distinctive pale gray cytoplasm. The biopsy was positive for inhibin (image above) and reticulin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

            1. Clear cell carcinoma of the ovary
            2. Endometrioid carcinoma
            3. Granulosa cell tumor
            4. Ovarian thecoma
            Board review style answer #1
            D. Ovarian thecoma. Ovarian thecomas typically present in postmenopausal women with abnormal bleeding as the main symptom. Histologic characteristics of thecomas are poorly defined cytoplasmic membranes with a pale gray cytoplasm. Thecomas stain positive for both reticulin and inhibin. Answer C is incorrect as granulosa cell tumors will stain strongly for inhibin; however, they typically show minimal staining for reticulin. Answers A and B are incorrect because inhibin is typically negative or weakly expressed in these tumor types.

            Comment Here

            Reference: Inhibin
            Board review style question #2
            Inhibin protein expression is useful for identifying which of the following types of tumors?

            1. Adrenocortical tumors
            2. Liposarcomas
            3. Neurofibromas
            4. Schwannomas
            Board review style answer #2
            A. Adrenocortical tumors. Inhibin, as part of a staining panel, can be a valuable marker for differentiating adrenal cortical tumors from medullary tumors. Answers B, C and D are incorrect because inhibin staining is most often negative in soft tissue neoplasms like liposarcomas, schwannomas and neurofibromas and may only be useful as part of an antibody panel in very limited cases.

            Comment Here

            Reference: Inhibin

            INI1 / SMARCB1
            Definition / general
            • SMARCB1 (switch / sucrose non fermentable [SWI / SNF] related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily B member 1) is located on chromosome 22q11.2 and encodes a core subunit of the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) dependent SWI / SNF chromatin remodeling complex, which is actively involved in the regulation of gene expression
            Essential features
            • SMARCB1 is a core subunit of the SWI / SNF chromatin remodeling complex
            • SMARCB1 is considered a bona fide tumor suppressor
            • Germline SMARCB1 mutations are associated with rhabdoid tumor predisposition syndrome 1 and familial schwannomatosis
            • Loss of SMARCB1 expression is identified in a variety of rhabdoid and nonrhabdoid neoplasms of the CNS, soft tissue and parenchymal / visceral organs
            Terminology
            • SMARCB1 (SWI / SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily B member 1), INI1 (integrase interactor 1), BAF47, hSNF5
            Pathophysiology
            • Core subunit of the ATP dependent SWI / SNF chromatin remodeling complex involved in transcriptional activation and repression through chromatin remodeling
            • Bona fide tumor suppressor interacting with other cancer associated pathways (e.g., WNT signaling pathway and hedgehog signaling pathway) (Nat Med 2010;16:1429)
            • Initially discovered as a protein that binds HIV integrase (Science 1994;266:2002)
            Clinical features
            Interpretation
            • Nuclear stain
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            • Currently unknown
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Andreas von Deimling, M.D. and Thomas Mentzel, M.D.

            Atypical teratoid / rhabdoid tumor

            Epithelioid sarcoma, proximal type

            Positive staining - normal
            • SMARCB1 is ubiquitously expressed in the nuclei of all normal human cells
            Positive staining - disease
            • Most tumors show nuclear expression of SMARCB1
            • Synovial sarcoma may show reduced expression of SMARCB1 (Mod Pathol 2010;23:981)
            Negative staining
            Molecular / cytogenetics description
            • Malignant rhabdoid tumors (MRT) of kidney and soft tissue as well as CNS atypical teratoid / rhabdoid tumor (AT / RT): point and frameshift mutations, deletions or translocations involving SMARCB1 and monosomy 22 (Pediatr Blood Cancer 2011;56:7)
            • Epithelioid sarcoma: homozygous deletion of SMARCB1 can be demonstrated by FISH in most (90%) cases (Genes Chromosomes Cancer 2014;53:475)
            • Medullary renal carcinoma: translocations and heterozygous deletion of SMARCB1 in most cases (Eur Urol 2016;69:1055)
            • SMARCB1 deficient sinonasal carcinoma / adenocarcinoma: homozygous deletion of SMARCB1 can be demonstrated by FISH in most (68%) cases; heterozygous deletion or truncating mutation identified in a subset of cases (Hum Pathol 2020;104:105)
            • Poorly differentiated chordoma: homozygous deletion of SMARCB1 can be demonstrated by FISH in most (90%) cases (Acta Neuropathol 2016;132:149, Genes Chromosomes Cancer 2018;57:89)
            • Myoepithelial carcinoma of soft tissue: homozygous deletion of SMARCB1 can be demonstrated by FISH in a subset of cases (Genes Chromosomes Cancer 2014;53:475)
            • Epithelioid benign and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors: nonsense, frameshift and splice site mutations as well as deletions in SMARCB1 (Am J Surg Pathol 2019;43:835)
            • Dedifferentiated / undifferentiated endometrial and ovarian adenocarcinoma: nonsense and frameshift mutations in SMARCB1 can be identified in a subset of cases (Mod Pathol 2016;29:1586)
            Board review style question #1
            Which of the following neoplasms is associated with loss of SMARCB1 expression?

            1. Basal cell carcinoma
            2. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
            3. Leiomyosarcoma
            4. Malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney
            5. Merkel cell carcinoma
            Board review style answer #1
            D. Malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney

            Comment Here

            Reference: INI1 / SMARCB1
            Board review style question #2

            Which of the following is typically lost in CNS atypical teratoid / rhabdoid tumors (AT / RT)?

            1. BAP1
            2. CDKN2A
            3. NF1
            4. PTEN
            5. SMARCB1
            Board review style answer #2
            E. SMARCB1

            Comment Here

            Reference: INI1 / SMARCB1

            INSM1
            Definition / general
            • Insulinoma associated protein 1
            • Previously abbreviated as IA1
            Essential features
            • Nuclear marker of neuroendocrine differentiation with equivalent or better sensitivity and specificity compared to synaptophysin, chromogranin and CD56
            • Expressed in a broad spectrum of neuroendocrine tumors (including small cell carcinoma, large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma and well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor / carcinoid tumor of various sites, paraganglioma / pheochromocytoma, Merkel cell carcinoma, olfactory neuroblastoma and medullary thyroid carcinoma)
            • Also expressed in normal adult neuroendocrine tissues (adrenal medulla, pineal gland, pituitary gland, gastrointestinal enterochromaffin cells, pancreatic islet cells, thyroid C cells) and developing neurons
            Pathophysiology
            Clinical features
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            • High expression of INSM1 is associated with increased progression free survival and chemosensitivity in small cell lung carcinoma (Oncotarget 2017;8:73745)
            • Higher expression in midgut gastrointestinal neuroendocrine carcinomas with metastases compared to those not yet metastasized (Am J Clin Pathol 2015;144:579)
            Interpretation
            • Nuclear stain
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Lisa M. Rooper, M.D.
            Small cell carcinoma (lung).

            Small cell carcinoma (lung)

            Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma (lung).

            Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma (lung)

            Atypical carcinoid tumor (lung).

            Atypical carcinoid tumor (lung)

            Olfactory neuroblastoma.

            Olfactory neuroblastoma

            Pituitary adenoma.

            Pituitary adenoma


            Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor.

            Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor

            Paraganglioma (carotid body).

            Paraganglioma (carotid body)

            Middle ear adenoma.

            Middle ear adenoma

            Thyroid C cell hyperplasia.

            Thyroid C cell hyperplasia

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - tumors
            Negative staining - normal
            Negative staining - tumors
            • Adrenal gland: adrenal cortical adenoma (0%) (Am J Clin Pathol 2015;144:579)
            • Brain: ganglioglioma (7%), ependymoma (5%), pilocytic astrocytoma (0%) (J Neuropathol Exp Neurol 2018;77:374)
            • Gastrointestinal tract: colonic adenocarcinoma (0%) (Am J Clin Pathol 2015;144:579)
            • Head and neck: squamous cell carcinoma (2%), mucoepidermoid carcinoma (3%), adenoid cystic carcinoma (0%), polymorphous adenocarcinoma (0%), secretory carcinoma (0%), pleomorphic adenoma (0%), HPV related multiphenotypic carcinoma (0%), NUT carcinoma (0%), sinonasal undifferentiated carcinoma (0%), mucosal melanoma (0%) (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:665)
            • Hematolymphoid: small lymphocytic lymphoma (0%) (J Cutan Pathol 2018;45:129)
            • Lung: adenocarcinoma (3%), squamous cell carcinoma (4%) (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:1561)
            • Pancreas: ductal adenocarcinoma (0%), acinar cell carcinoma (0%), solid pseudopapillary neoplasm (0%) (Med Mol Morphol 2018;51:32)
            • Prostate: adenocarcinoma (9%) (Lab Invest 2017;97:262A)
            • Skin: melanoma (0%) (Am J Clin Pathol 2015;144:579)
            • Soft tissue: chondrosarcoma (0%), chordoma (10%), myxofibrosarcoma (0%), myxoid liposarcoma (0%), intramuscular mxyoma (0%), low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma (0%), myoepithelioma (5%), angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma (0%), dedifferentiated liposarcoma (0%), CIC rearranged sarcoma (0%), synovial sarcoma (0%) (Mod Pathol 2018;31:744)
            • Thyroid / parathyroid: papillary carcinoma (0%), follicular carcinoma (0%), follicular adenoma (0%), parathyroid carcinoma (0%), parathyroid adenoma (0%) (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:665)
            Board review style question #1
            Which of the following tumors should be negative for INSM1?

            1. Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma
            2. Middle ear adenoma
            3. Parathyroid adenoma
            4. Small cell carcinoma of the uterine cervix
            5. Well differentiated pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, grade 1
            Board review style answer #1
            C. Parathyroid adenoma. Although parathyroid neoplasms frequently stain with the common neuroendocrine stain chromogranin, they are consistently negative for INSM1.

            Comment Here

            Reference: INSM1

            Iron
            Definition / general
            • Also called hemosiderin (storage iron granules)
            • Perls method (Prussian blue stain): hydrochloric acid releases the protein bound to ferric iron, then potassium ferrocyanide binds with ferric iron to form ferric ferrocyanide, an insoluble blue compound (Wikipedia)
            • Hemosiderin may be present in areas of old hemorrhage or be deposited in tissues with iron overload
            • Hemosiderosis: stored iron does not interfere with organ function vs. hemochromatosis: iron overload associated with organ failure
            Hale colloidal iron
            • Kidney tumors: stain must have pH between 1.5 and 2.0
            • Clear cell and papillary renal carcinoma have focal, coarse, drop-like staining
            • Note: hemosiderin in any tumors will also stain positive
            Uses by pathologists
            • Hale colloidal iron is helpful in distinguishing chromophobe renal cell carcinoma (intensely positive in large percentage of cells with reticular staining) from oncocytoma (usually negative; if positive - fewer cells with less intensity and dustlike staining)
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:

            Hemosiderin, liver, iron stain

            SIDS


            Islet 1 (Isl1) (pending)
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            [Pending]

            Jones methenamine silver
            Definition / general
            • Jones methenamine silver (JMS) is a histochemical stain that highlights carbohydrates that can be oxidized to aldehydes
            Essential features
            • Delineates basement membranes and connective tissue components
            • Routinely used in renal pathology to demonstrate abnormalities of the glomerular basement membrane
            • Basement membranes and oxidizable carbohydrates are stained black - argyrophilic
            • For optimal results, tissue sections should be thin, about 2 μm (Am J Med Technol 1976;42:220)
            Terminology
            • Jones methenamine silver, Jones silver stain
            • Argyrophilia: silver positive, that is black staining with Jones methenamine silver or other silver stains, like periodic acid silver methamine stain (PAMS), Grocott-Gomori methenamine silver (GMS), Grimelius (with Bouin fixative), modification of the Pascual method (J Histotechnol 1979;2:102)
            • Argyrophobia: silver negative, does not stain black with Jones methenamine silver or other silver stains, like periodic acid silver methamine stain (PAMS), Grocott-Gomori methenamine silver (GMS), Grimelius (with Bouin fixative), modification of the Pascual method (J Histotechnol 1979;2:102)
            Pathophysiology
            • Aldehydes formed by oxidation of carbohydrates reduce a silver solution, causing the silver ions to bind to the carbohydrate and be visualized
            Interpretation
            • Black staining is positive
            Uses by pathologists
            Microscopic (histologic) description
            • Black staining is positive
            • Negative staining, unstained areas / deposits have pink-gray hue and are not black
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Arzu Sağlam, M.D. and Nicole K. Andeen, M.D.

            Examination of renal architecture

            Glomerular adhesion to Bowman capsule

            Protein resorption droplets

            Spikes in membranous nephropathy

            Duplication of glomerular basement membrane

            Tubulitis and peritubullary capillaritis


            Segmental sclerosis

            Extracapillary proliferation

            Rupture of Bowman capsule

            Fibrin

            Extracapillary proliferation and fibrin

            Argyrophobic immune complexes


            Argyrophobic amyloid deposits

            Interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy

            Arteriolosclerosis

            Collapse of the glomerular tuft and prominence of the overlying epithelial cells, Jones stain

            Positive staining - normal and disease
            • Highlights details of the glomerular basement membrane
            • Helps delineate the glomerular tuft within glomeruli with extracapillary proliferation and therefore enables better appreciation of the presence of extracapillary proliferation
            • Helps delineate mesangial areas of glomeruli which are argyrophilic - presence / absence of expansion
            • Highlights basement membrane of tubuli: rupture, thickening and defects
              • Also useful in demonstrating tubulitis in cases of T cell mediated renal rejection by highlighting the stromal epithelial interface
            • Highlights basement membrane of Bowman capsule: rupture, thickening
            • Highlights elastic lamina of vessels: disruption, duplication, fragmentation
            • Protein resorption droplets within podocytes and within tubular epithelial cell cytoplasm stain black
            • Renin granules within hyperplastic juxtaglomerular apparatus stain black
            • Highlights areas of scarring: areas of sclerosis stain black - sclerotic segments of glomeruli, globally sclerosed glomeruli and interstitial fibrosis
            • Hyphae and spores of fungi stain black
            • Nodules in diabetes and idiopathic nodular glomerulosclerosis are weak positive
            Negative staining - disease
            • Identification of certain deposits due their nonargyrophilia or argyrophobia (negative staining)
            • Amyloid deposits: appear gray
            • Deposits in monoclonal immunoglobulin deposition disease and other diseases with paraprotein deposition
            • Fibronectin deposits in fibronectin glomerulopathy (are silver negative)
            • Hyaline droplets: appear pink / pinkish red
            • Fibrin: appears pink-red
            • Immune complexes along the glomerular basement membrane: appear pink / pinkish red
            • Decreased staining of glomerular basement membrane in dense deposit disease due to negative intramembranous deposits (Kidney Int 1975;7:204)
            Sample pathology report
            • Exemplary sentences for describing findings with the JMS stain:
              • JMS stain reveals presence of vacuoles and spikes along the thickened glomerular capillary basement membrane
              • The deposited material is argyrophobic with the JMS stain
              • The nodular mesangial widening shows weak argyrophilia with the JMS stain
            Additional references
            Board review style question #1
            Which of the below is positive (argyrophilic) with the Jones methenamine silver stain?

            1. Amyloid
            2. Fibrin
            3. Hyaline deposits
            4. Intramembranous deposits of dense deposit disease
            5. Sclerosis
            Board review style answer #1
            E. Sclerosis

            Comment Here

            Reference: Jones methenamine silver
            Board review style question #2

            A patient with a diagnosis of familial Mediterranean fever undergoes a renal biopsy. Light microscopy reveals acellular eosinophilic nodular expansions within the mesangium that are negative (argyrophobic) with the Jones methenamine silver stain. Presence of which of the following most likely explains this finding?

            1. Amyloid deposition
            2. Area of segmental sclerosis
            3. Dense deposit disease
            4. Diabetic nodular glomerulosclerosis
            5. Hyalinosis
            Board review style answer #2
            A. Amyloid deposition

            Comment Here

            Reference: Jones methenamine silver

            Kappa & lambda light chains
            Kappa light chains
            • Type of immunoglobulin light chain
            • Kappa/lamba ratio is usually 2:1
            • Restricted expression of either kappa or lambda suggests monoclonality and a neoplastic process
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Leica Microsystems, Biosystems Division and AFIP

            Myeloma of marrow with ISH staining

            Hodgkin lymphoma


            Ki67
            Definition / general
            • Marker of cell proliferation first described in 1983 (Int J Cancer 1983;31:13)
            • Labile, nonhistone nuclear protein expressed in G1, S, G2 and M phases of cell cycle, then rapidly catabolized at end of M phase and not detectable in G0 and early G1 cells (J Cell Physiol 2000;182:311)
            Essential features
            • Marker of cell proliferation
            • Nuclear stain; cytoplasmic staining is disregarded
            • Used to help differentiate between benign versus malignant and increasingly used to grade various tumors (e.g. neuroendocrine tumors, pituitary tumor, schwannoma, meningioma, sarcoma, etc.) or dysplasia (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, anal intraepithelial neoplasia, dysplasia arising in Barrett, etc.)
            • Used to determine prognosis of breast cancer, bladder cancer, prostate cancer and chordoma
            Terminology
            • MIB1 (MIB1 is the IgG1 antibody against Ki67 for formalin fixed, paraffin embedded tissue)
            Pathophysiology
            • MIB1 is a monoclonal antibody raised against a recombinant part of the Ki67 antigen
            • Both MIB1 and polyclonal anti-Ki67 antibody recognize the Ki67 antigen in fixed material
            Clinical features
            • In general, increased in most malignant and inflammatory conditions but degree may differ
            • Used to grade various tumors, distinguish between differential diagnosis and predict prognosis
            Interpretation
            • Nuclear staining
            • Percentage of nuclei with positive staining in tumor cells is scored
            • For dysplasia, thickness of epithelium / location of cells showing positive Ki67 staining is graded
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            • High Ki67 proliferative index used as an adverse prognostic marker for breast cancer, bladder cancer, prostate cancer, chordoma
            Microscopic (histologic) description
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Monika Roychowdhury, M.D., Kaveh Naemi, D.O., Cases #238, #237, #202, #194, AFIP images and Leica Microsystems
            Invasive ductal carcinoma breast

            Invasive ductal carcinoma breast

            Invasive ductal carcinoma (Ki67)

            Invasive ductal carcinoma (Ki67)

            Cervix low grade squamous dysplasia Cervix low grade squamous dysplasia

            Cervix low grade squamous dysplasia

            Cervix high grade squamous dysplasia Cervix high grade squamous dysplasia

            Cervix high grade squamous dysplasia


            Lung typical carcinoid Lung typical carcinoid

            Lung typical carcinoid

            Lung small cell carcinoma Lung small cell carcinoma

            Lung small cell carcinoma

            Stomach well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor Stomach well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor

            Stomach well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor


            Brain diffuse large B cell lymphoma Brain diffuse large B cell lymphoma

            Brain diffuse large B cell lymphoma

            Lymph node, Burkitt lymphoma

            Lymph node, Burkitt lymphoma

            Cervix, adenocarcinoma in situ, endocervix

            Cervix, adenocarcinoma in situ, endocervix

            Urethra, clear cell adenocarcinoma Urethra, clear cell adenocarcinoma

            Urethra, clear cell adenocarcinoma


            Lymph node, normal Lymph node, normal

            Lymph node, normal

            Positive staining - normal
            • Most tissues have baseline positive staining 0 - 1% as a very low proliferative index
            Positive staining - disease
            • Cervical / anal dysplasia (mild dysplasia: lower 33% of epithelium shows increased Ki67 staining; moderate dysplasia: 66% of epithelium shows increased Ki67 staining; severe dysplasia / CIS: full thickness of epithelium shows increased Ki67 staining)
            • Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumors (low grade: < 3%; intermediate grade: 3 - 20%; high grade: > 20%)
            • Lung neuroendocrine tumors (typical carcinoid: up to 5%; atypical carcinoid: up to 20 - 25%; large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma: 40 - 80%; small cell lung carcinoma: 50 - 100%) (Transl Lung Cancer Res 2017;6:513)
            • Meningioma: Ki67 (not a diagnostic criterion but is usually > 4% and goes up to 20% depending on grade - I, II or III)
            • Astrocytoma (astrocytoma: < 4%; anaplastic astrocytoma: 5 - 10%; glioblastoma: 15 - 20%) (Pathol Oncol Res 2006;12:143)
            • Bladder cancer prognosis (PLoS One 2016;11:e0158891)
            • Breast cancer prognosis, higher percentage associated with worse prognosis (cutoffs < 10%, 10 - 25%, > 25%) (Eur J Breast Health 2019;15:256)
            Sample pathology report
            • Stomach, resection:
              • Well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor, 1.5 cm, surgical margins negative (see synoptic report)
              • Ki67 labeling index < 3%
            • Lung, right upper lobe, biopsy:
              • High grade neuroendocrine carcinoma, small cell carcinoma
              • Ki67 proliferative index > 90%
            Board review style question #1
            A 54 year old woman recently received the diagnosis of invasive ductal carcinoma for a right breast mass. Which of the prognostic markers below, if more than 30%, suggests aggressive behavior of the tumor?

            1. ER
            2. Ki67
            3. PR
            4. p63
            Board review style answer #1
            B. Ki67

            Comment Here

            Reference: Ki67

            KIT
            Definition / general
            • KIT is the gene encoding a transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptor, involved in both the MAP kinase and AKT pathways, which are intimately involved with cell proliferation and survival (J Clin Oncol 2013;31:3176, Int J Biol Sci 2013;9:435)
            • KIT activation occurs after binding of stem cell factor (SCF), a hematopoietic cytokine
            • Binding of SCF leads to dimerization of 2 KIT receptors, leading to downstream signal transduction
            • KIT is necessary for the normal development of melanocytes
            • KIT mutations occur in melanoma subtypes (see table below)
            Diagrams / tables

            Images hosted on other servers:

            KIT dimerization

            MAP kinase and AKT pathways

            KIT mutations in melanoma subtypes

            Mutations
            • KIT mutations are found in only 3% of melanomas overall
            • A disproportionate amount of KIT aberrations are identified in melanoma arising from chronically sun damaged skin, acral and mucosal sites (23% overall)
            • KIT mutations are rarely found in melanoma arising on nonchronically sun damaged skin (those melanomas containing frequent BRAF mutations) (J Clin Oncol 2013;31:3176)
            • Types of KIT mutations include: K642E*, L576P*, D816H, V559A, A829P, intronic deletion, R634W, Y553N and N566D (* two most common mutations)
            • KIT mutations are nearly always mutually exclusive with NRAS or BRAF
            Associated histological findings
            • In general, the 3 types of melanomas enriched with KIT mutations (acral, mucosal and those with chronic sun damage) typically show a lentiginous growth pattern with single melanocytes distributed along the basal epidermis (J Invest Dermatol 2010;130:20)
            Detection methods
            • KIT mutation detection is difficult because there is a wide range of possible, nonrecurring aberrations (J Clin Oncol 2013;31:3176)
            • Aberrations include: increased copy number, amplification or specific mutations
            • Specific mutations are only detectible through sequencing of relevant exons (9, 11, 13, 17 and 18) (Clin Cancer Res 2012;18:1195)
            • For melanoma, using CD117 as a marker for KIT overexpression is NOT reliable and should NOT be used
            • To date, there has been no significant discordance between primary and metastatic KIT melanomas
            Inhibitor therapy
            • KIT testing is recommended after a mucosal or acral melanoma has been determined to be BRAF- (Clin Cancer Res 2012;18:1195, J Clin Oncol 2013;31:3176)
            • Sequencing of exons 9, 11, 13, 17 and 18 is performed
            • Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor used to treat multiple neoplasms including: CML (Ph+), advanced GIST, ALL (Ph+), DFSP and others
            • Evidence from multiple phase II trials suggests that only certain KIT mutations, specifically those in exon 11 and exon 13, are responsive to inhibitor therapy, while others are not
            • Exon 11 contains the mutation L576P while exon 13 contains K642E; these are the 2 most commonly identified KIT mutations in melanoma
            • Ipilimumab, a monoclonal antibody which targets CTLA4, is another drug which shows some promise in melanomas known to be enriched with KIT mutations, and has been approved by the EU as a second line treatment of melanoma
            • Ipilimumab decreases inhibition of cytotoxic T cells and increases their ability to destroy cancer cells
            Mechanisms of resistance
            • Resistance mechanisms in melanoma have not been well documented as the evaluation of imatinib is only in phase II trials
            • Criteria defining resistance have not been established (J Clin Oncol 2012;30:e37, J Invest Dermatol 2010;130:20)
            • In GIST, up to 50% of patients treated with imatinib develop resistance
            • Resistance mechanisms include: tyrosine kinase switching, resistance in wild type KIT, amplification and overexpression, efflux of imatinib by cells and acquired secondary KIT mutations
            • Secondary mutations in KIT are the most common mechanisms by which GISTs acquire resistance, typically through interefering with the drug binding site or activating a different locus of the receptor (J Clin Oncol 2006;24:4764, J Invest Dermatol 2010;130:20)
            • Future studies and clinical trials will evaluate responses with KIT inhibitors
            Resistance therapies
            • Patients with GIST who demonstrate resistance on imatinib are either treated with dose escalation or an alternative tyrosine kinase inhibitor (J Invest Dermatol 2010;130:20)
            • Sunitinib is effective in KIT mutations, especially those with exon 9 mutations, V654A and T670I mutations (Clin Cancer Res 2006;12:2622)
            • Other KIT inhibitors used include nilotinib, dasatinib and sorafenib

            L1-CAM (pending)
            [Pending]

            Leder stain
            Definition / general
            • Type of enzyme histochemistry
            • Also called chloroacetate esterase
            • Chloroacetate esterase resists effects of formalin fixation and paraffin embedding
            Uses by pathologists
            • Identify mast cell disorders, myeloid disorders
            Positive staining - normal
            • Mast cells, myeloid cells

            LEF1
            Definition / general
            • Lymphoid enhancer binding factor 1 (LEF1) is a transcription factor for B and T cells and is involved in the Wnt / CTNNB1 pathway which regulates normal development of airway submucosal glands, mammary glands, teeth and adnexal structures (Nat Rev Immunol 2005;5:21, Development 1999;126:4441)
            Essential features
            • Not specific
            • Helpful when used as a panel
            • Positive staining favors:
              • Pleomorphic adenoma, basal cell adenoma or basal cell adenocarcinoma over adenoid cystic carcinoma
              • Chronic lymphocytic B cell leukemia / small lymphocytic lymphoma over other small B cell lymphomas
              • Cribriform morular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma over other papillary thyroid carcinoma variants
              • Solid pseudopapillary tumor over pancreatic neuroendocrine carcinoma or pancreatic adenocarcinoma
            Interpretation
            • Nuclear stain
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            Microscopic (histologic) description
            • Focal staining with peripheral accentuation possible in basal cell adenoma and pleomorphic adenoma (shown in figures below)
            • Positive staining in pleomorphic adenoma is not specific
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Alessandra C. Schmitt, M.D.
            Basal cell adenoma

            Basal cell adenoma

            LEF1 positive basal cell adenoma

            LEF1, basal cell adenoma

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - disease
            Negative staining
            Board review style question #1

            A 50 year old woman presented with an infiltrative left submandibular mass. LEF1 stain was performed and was negative. The tumor is best diagnosed as

            1. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
            2. Basal cell adenocarcinoma
            3. Basal cell adenoma
            4. Cellular pleomorphic adenoma
            Board review style answer #1
            A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

            Comment Here

            Reference: LEF1

            LFABP (pending)
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            [Pending]

            Lipochrome (lipofuscin) pigments
            Definition / general
            • Breakdown products within cells from oxidation of lipids and lipoproteins
            • Also called “wear and tear” pigments in heart, liver, CNS, adrenal cortex (zona reticularis), testis interstitium and seminal vesicle
            • Stains with Sudan black B, long Ziehl-Neelson acid fast, Schmorl methods
            • Lipochrome may have strong orange autofluorescence in formalin-fixed, unstained paraffin sections
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:

            Hepatocytes


            LMO2
            Definition / general
            • LIM-only protein 2
            • Germinal center B cell marker (HGAL may be superior)
            • Regulatory protein essential for hematopoietic development
              • Inappropriate overexpression in T cells contributes to T-cell leukemia
            Uses by pathologists
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image Missing Image

            Follicular lymphoma LMO2+

            Missing Image

            Nodal marginal zone lymphoma

            Missing Image

            Germinal center associated markers


            Missing Image

            Lymphatic vasculature

            Missing Image

            CNS vasculature

            Missing Image

            Benign vascular neoplasms

            Missing Image

            Malignant vascular neoplasms

            Missing Image

            Nonvascular malignancies

            Missing Image

            LMO2 reactivity


            Missing Image

            Follicular lymphoma

            Missing Image

            Nodular marginal zone lymphoma

            Missing Image

            Immunohistologic comparison

            Positive staining - normal
            • Endothelium and lymphatics, CD34+ blasts, hematopoietic precursors, various B cells (germinal center, mantle, splenic marginal zone)
            • Breast myoepithelium, prostatic basal cells, uterine secretory phase endometrial glands
            Positive staining - disease
            Negative staining
            • Peripheral T cell lymphoma (usually)
            • Vasculature is LMO2- in adult and fetal heart, brain of older adults, hepatic sinusoids, and hepatocellular carcinoma (Am J Clin Pathol 2009;131:264)

            Luxol fast blue
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            • Myelin stain
            • Based on strong affinity of copper phthalocyanin dye for phospholipids and choline bases of myelin

            Lysozyme
            Definition / general
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            AFIP images

            Orbit: myeloid sarcoma

            Thyroid gland: histiocytes stain



            Images hosted on other servers:

            Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (M4)

            Vagina: myeloid sarcoma

            Positive staining - normal
            • Nonspecific stain for histiocytes (granulomas), monocytes, neutrophils
            • May also stain some epithelial cells (pleomorphic adenoma)
            • Goblet cells and related lesions (goblet cell carcinoid)
            • Breast lactating lobules
            Positive staining - disease
            • Acinic cell carcinoma (breast, salivary gland, Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:1137)
            • Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (M4), acute monocytic leukemia (M5)
            • Adenocarcinoma (various sites)
            • Ampulla: Paneth cell carcinoma
            • CNS: chordoma
            • Eye: oncocytoma of conjunctiva
            • Histiocytic lesions: histiocytoma, histiocytic sarcoma, Rosai Dorfman disease
            • Langerhans cell histiocytosis
            • Mastocytosis
            • Myeloid sarcoma
            • Renal collecting duct / Bellini duct carcinoma
            • Salivary gland intercalated duct lesions (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:1322)
            • Skin: granuloma annulare, multicentric reticulohistiocytosis, synovial metaplasia, xanthogranuloma
            • Spleen: angiosarcoma and hemangioma (often, Mod Pathol 2000;13:978), littoral cell angioma
            Negative staining
            • Breast: histiocytoid variant of lobular carcinoma
            • Dendritic cells
            • Inflammatory pseudotumor
            • Interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma
            • Skin: necrobiosis lipoidica

            Mammaglobin
            Definition / general
            • Belongs to the family of small epithelial secretory proteins (secretoglobins) of the uteroglobin / Clara cell protein family
            Uses by pathologists
            Clinical features
            • While some expression is seen in normal breast, its expression is markedly increased in breast carcinoma (positive expression has been reported in 48 - 72.1% of mammary adenocarcinomas) and is directly correlated with a higher grade
            • Also, mammaglobin expression is said to be higher in lobular carcinomas than ductal carcinomas and in ER positive tumors
            Case reports
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image Missing Image

            Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

            Missing Image Missing Image

            Infiltrating mammary carcinoma


            Missing Image

            Normal breast glands

            Missing Image

            Various breast cancers

            Missing Image

            Endometrial carcinoma


            Mast cell tryptase (MCT) (pending)
            [Pending]

            MCPyV (CM2B4)
            Definition / general
            • CM2B4 is a monoclonal antibody that detects Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCPyV) large T antigen expression in Merkel cell carcinoma (MCC)
            Essential features
            Pathophysiology
            Interpretation
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Thai Yen Ly, M.D.
            MCPyV positive MCC (pure MCC) MCPyV positive MCC (pure MCC)

            MCPyV positive MCC (pure MCC)

            MCPyV positive MCC (pure MCC, lymph node metastasis) MCPyV positive MCC (pure MCC, lymph node metastasis)

            MCPyV positive MCC (pure MCC, lymph node metastasis)


            MCPyV negative MCC (combined MCC) MCPyV negative MCC (combined MCC) MCPyV negative MCC (combined MCC) MCPyV negative MCC (combined MCC)

            MCPyV negative MCC (combined MCC)

            Cytology images

            Contributed by Thai Yen Ly, M.D.
            MCPyV positive MCC (pure MCC, lymph node metastasis, cytologic preparation of FNA) MCPyV positive MCC (pure MCC)

            MCPyV positive MCC (pure MCC)

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - disease
            Negative staining
            Molecular / cytogenetics description
            • Genetic profiles for MCPyV positive and MCPyV negative MCCs are distinct
            • MCPyV negative MCCs harbor TP53 and RB1 gene mutations, UV signature mutations and overall higher mutational burden (Oncotarget 2016;7:3403, Cancer Res 2015;75:5228)
            Molecular / cytogenetics images

            Images hosted on other servers:

            CM2B4 antibody

            Board review style question #1

            Which of the following describes the oncogenic virus causally associated with the majority of Merkel cell carcinomas (shown above)?

            1. Herpesvirus with presence corresponding to cytoplasmic IHC expression
            2. Herpesvirus with presence corresponding to nuclear IHC expression
            3. Papillomavirus with presence corresponding to membranous IHC expression
            4. Papillomavirus with presence corresponding to nuclear IHC expression
            5. Polyomavirus with presence corresponding to dot-like paranuclear IHC expression
            6. Polyomavirus with presence corresponding to nuclear IHC expression
            Board review style answer #1
            F. Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCPyV) is a novel human polyomavirus causally associated with the majority of Merkel cell carcinomas (MCC) (up to ~80%). A nuclear pattern of CM2B4 immunoreactivity in MCC indicates MCPyV large T antigen expression (virus positivity).

            Comment Here

            Reference: MCPyV (CM2B4)

            MDM2
            Definition / general
            • Murine double minute 2
            • Located on 12q15
            • Encodes protein that inhibits p53
            • Amplified in various malignancies
            Essential features
            • MDM2 amplified on supernumerary ring or marker chromosomes in many tumors, leading to suppression of p53
            • Common in atypical lipomatous tumor / well differentiated liposarcoma and dedifferentiated liposarcoma; often used to distinguish these entities from mimickers
            • Distinguish low grade osteosarcoma and parosteal osteosarcoma (positive) from benign fibrous and fibro-osseous lesions (negative)
            • Commonly tested by FISH or IHC, also dual color chromogenic in situ hybridization (DISH / CISH); FISH widely accepted as gold standard
            Terminology
            • Murine double minute 2
            • Hdm2
            • E3 ubiquitin ligase MDM2
            • MDM2 proto-oncogene
            • p53 binding protein MDM2
            Pathophysiology
            Clinical features
            Interpretation
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Jennifer Yoest, M.D. (source: University of Michigan Virtual Slide Box)
            Dedifferentiated liposarcoma

            Dedifferentiated liposarcoma

            MDM2 IHC in dedifferentiated liposarcoma

            MDM2 IHC in dedifferentiated liposarcoma

            ALT/WDL

            ALT / WDL

            MDM2 IHC in ATL/WDL

            MDM2 IHC in ATL / WDL

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - disease
            Negative staining
            Molecular / cytogenetics description
            • FISH: true amplification indicated by increased number of MDM2 probe signals as compared with centromeric chromosome 12 probe (positive cutoff ratio set by lab); polysomy 12 (increased number of both MDM2 and centromeric chromosome 12 signals) seen in other sarcomas, especially with complex karyotype (Virchows Arch 2010;456:167, Cardiovasc Pathol 2019;43:107142)
            • Dual color chromogenic in situ hybridization (DISH or CISH): same interpretation as FISH with high concordance between the 2 methods; benefits include light microscopy (rather than fluorescent), ability to store slides, ability to evaluate morphology of counterstained tissues and lower cost and turnaround time (J Clin Lab Anal 2015;29:462, Cardiovasc Pathol 2019;43:107142)
            Molecular / cytogenetics images

            Contributed by Robin Elliott, M.D. and Kossivi Dantey, M.D.
            MDM2 dual color ISH

            MDM2 dual color ISH

            MDM2 FISH in dedifferentiated liposarcoma

            MDM2 FISH in dedifferentiated liposarcoma

            Board review style question #1
            MDM2 MDM2


            A 72 year old man is found to have a large retroperitoneal tumor. Histology and chromogenic in situ hybridization for MDM2 are shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?

            1. Dedifferentiated liposarcoma
            2. Leiomyosarcoma
            3. Myxoid liposarcoma
            4. Pleomorphic liposarcoma
            Board review style answer #1
            A. Dedifferentiated liposarcoma

            Comment Here

            Reference: MDM2

            MDR / CD243
            Definition / general
            • "Detoxifying agent" that pumps toxins / drugs out of cells
            • Also transports steroid hormones and transports substances across blood-brain barrier
            • Also mediates the ATP driven efflux of drugs from multidrug resistant cancer and HIV infected cells
            Terminology
            • P glycoprotein is product of MDR1 gene
            • Also called MDR1 gene (multidrug resistance to cancer), P glycoprotein 170 (molecular weight is 170K), ABCB1, P-binding cassette subfamily B member 1
            • Antibody C219 binds to both ATP binding regions of P-glycoprotein and inhibits its ATPase activity and drug binding capacity
            • Widely used as a tumor marker but cross reacts with HER2 / CerbB2 (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 1999;96:13679)
            • Antibody C494 detects an internal cellular epitope present only on the Mdr1 isoform of P-glycoprotein with strong plasma membrane staining patterns
              • It cross reacts with pyruvate carboxylase, an abundant mitochondrial enzyme (weak, homogeneous, cytoplasmic or granular patterns) but unlike C219, it does not cross react with Mdr3
            • Antibody JSB1 appears to have similar behavior as C494, as it cross reacts with pyruvate carboxlyase (J Histochem Cytochem 1995;43:1187)
            Pathophysiology
            Clinical features
            Uses by pathologists
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:

            Normal tissue:
            Missing Image

            Lung, fig 1A

            Missing Image

            Retinal pigment epithelium



            Carcinoma:
            Missing Image

            Bladder

            Missing Image Missing Image

            Breast

            Missing Image Missing Image

            Hepatocellular carcinoma, globular intracytoplasmic stain


            Missing Image

            Renal cell carcinoma

            Missing Image Missing Image

            Retinoblastoma, figs 1, 2

            Missing Image

            Immunofluorescence

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - disease

            MDR3 (pending)
            [Pending]

            MEF2B
            Definition / general
            • MEF2B (myocyte specific enhancer factor 2B) is located on chromosome 19p13.11 and encodes a calcium regulated gene member of the MADS / MEF2 family of DNA binding proteins actively involved in regulation of gene expression
            Essential features
            • MEF2B (myocyte specific enhancer factor 2B) is a member of the MADS / MEF2 family of DNA binding proteins
            • MEF2B lies in close relation to BCL6 in germinal center (GC) development and can act as an oncogene in lymphomagenesis
            • MEF2B staining reliably distinguishes nodular lymphocyte predominant B cell lymphoma / NLPHL (MEF2B+) from classic Hodgkin lymphoma (MEF2B-)
            Terminology
            • MEF2B (myocyte specific enhancer factor 2B)
            Pathophysiology
            • Member of the MADS / MEF2 family of DNA binding proteins
            • Involved in smooth muscle myosin heavy chain (SMMHC) gene regulation (Am J Respir Crit Care Med 1998;158:S100)
            • Highly expressed in germinal center B cells (Cancer Cell 2018;34:453, Nat Rev Immunol 2015;15:137)
              • MEF2B expression precedes the upregulation of BCL6 expression
              • Involved with AP2α and BCL6 proteins in the formation of the BCL6 gene transcriptional complex
            • Frequently mutated in diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL) and follicular lymphoma (FL)
              • MEF2B somatic mutations deregulate BCL6 transcriptional activity and may contribute to DLBCL lymphomagenesis (Nat Immunol 2013;14:1084)
              • Role in histone acetylation in cooperation with CREBBP and EP300
            Interpretation
            • Nuclear expression
            Uses by pathologists
            • High sensitivity and specificity in differentiating nodular lymphocyte predominant B cell lymphoma / nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL; MEF2B+) from classic Hodgkin lymphoma (MEF2B-) (Hum Pathol 2017;68:47)
              • Helpful in highlighting lymphocyte predominate (LP) cells
            • Differentiates follicular lymphoma (MEF2B+) from marginal zone lymphoma (MEF2B-) (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:342)
              • Particularly useful in cases of follicular lymphoma with plasmacytic differentiation
              • Superior sensitivity and specificity compared with HGAL and LMO2
            • Helps classify difficult lymphomas as part of a pan-germinal center B cell marker panel
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Leonie Frauenfeld, M.D.
            Normal germinal center

            Normal germinal center

            Nodular lymphocyte predominant B cell lymphoma / NLPHL

            Nodular lymphocyte
            predominant
            B cell lymphoma
            / NLPHL

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - disease
            • Nodular lymphocyte predominant B cell lymphoma / NLPHL
            • Follicular lymphoma and variants
            • Burkitt lymphoma (Virchows Arch 2015;467:345)
            • Mantle cell lymphoma
            • Majority of DLBCL with germinal center differentiation, as well as a subset of non-GC DLBCLs
            Negative staining
            Sample pathology report
            • Lymph node, left cervical, excision:
              • Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (comment)
              • Comment: The lymph node architecture is replaced by a vaguely nodular expansion, consisting mostly of small lymphocytes with scant cytoplasm and sparse large cells with multilobular nuclei with small nucleoli, morphologically consistent with LP cells. Immunohistochemistry shows the large cells are positive for CD45, CD20, CD79a and BCL6, while also showing strong expression of OCT2 and MEF2B.
            Board review style question #1

            The image above shows MEF2B positivity in lymphocyte predominant (LP) cells of nodular lymphocyte predominant B cell lymphoma. Which of the following is true about MEF2B expression?

            1. Always negative in aggressive lymphomas, such as diffuse large B cell lymphoma
            2. Helpful to highlight follicular helper T cells in the germinal center
            3. Lost in all B cell lymphomas with plasmacytic differentiation
            4. Reliably distinguishes between nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma and classic Hodgkin lymphoma
            5. Typically stains the cell membrane of germinal center B cells
            Board review style answer #1
            D. Reliably distinguishes between nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL) and classic Hodgkin lymphoma. MEF2B has high sensitivity and specificity in differentiating nodular lymphocyte predominant B cell lymphoma / NLPHL (MEF2B+) from classic Hodgkin lymphoma (MEF2B-). Answer A is incorrect because MEF2B is positive in the majority of diffuse large B cell lymphomas (DLBCL) with germinal center (GC) differentiation, as well as a subset of non-GC DLBCLs. Answers B and E are incorrect because MEF2B typically stains the nucleus of GC B cells but not follicular T helper cells. Answer C is incorrect because MEF2B has superior sensitivity and specificity compared with other GC markers (HGAL and LMO2) in detecting GC origin, even in cases with marked plasmacytic differentiation.

            Comment Here

            Reference: MEF2B
            Board review style question #2
            Which of the following lymphomas is typically negative for MEF2B?

            1. Classic Hodgkin lymphoma
            2. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
            3. Follicular lymphoma
            4. Follicular lymphoma with plasmacytic differentiation
            5. Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL)
            Board review style answer #2
            A. Classic Hodgkin lymphoma. MEF2B has high sensitivity and specificity in differentiating nodular lymphocyte predominant B cell lymphoma / NLPHL (MEF2B+) from classic Hodgkin lymphoma (MEF2B-). The other answers are incorrect because MEF2B detects germinal center (GC) origin and is positive in follicular lymphoma (even in cases with plasmacytic differentiation) and in the majority of diffuse large B cell lymphomas (DLBCL) with GC differentiation, as well as a subset of non-GC DLBCLs.

            Comment Here

            Reference: MEF2B

            MelanA / MART1
            Definition / general
            • Melanocyte specific cytoplasmic protein involved in the formation of stage II melanosomes
            • MelanA was discovered as an antigen recognized by tumor infiltrating cytotoxic T cells from a melanoma patient, hence the name Melanoma Antigen (J Exp Med 1994;180:35)
            • Same gene was independently identified by a different research group who named it MART1 (Melanoma Antigen Recognized by T cells 1) (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 1994;91:3515); MelanA and MART1 are synonyms
            • Two antibodies are commercially available: A103 and M2-7C10
              • A103: mouse monoclonal antibody against MelanA recombinant protein (Proc Natl Acad Sci USA 1996;93:5915, US patent 5,674,749)
                • In addition to melanocytes, A103 also stains adrenal cortical cells and steroid producing cells in testis and ovary
                • This is due to antibody cross reactivity to an unknown molecule in these cells; these cells do not produce MelanA / MART1 mRNA or protein (Am J Surg Pathol 1998;22:595)
              • M2-7C10: mouse monoclonal antibody clone produced against MART1 protein
                • This antibody stains only melanocytes among normal tissues; negative for adrenal cortical cells and steroid producing cells in testis or ovary (J Immunother 1997;20:60)
            Essential features
            • Melanocyte lineage specific marker, more sensitive than HMB45 in the diagnosis of metastatic melanoma
            • Cytoplasmic protein
            • Positive in most primary melanomas but desmoplastic melanoma can be negative
            • Also positive in nonmelanocytic tumors with melanosomes, including angiomyolipoma, PEComa, lymphangioleiomyomatosis
            • Depending on antibody, positive in adrenal cortical tumors and sex cord stromal tumors
            Pathophysiology
            • Melanosome specific protein
            • Plays a vital role in the expression, stability, trafficking and processing of Pmel17, which is critical to the formation of stage II melanosomes (J Biol Chem 2005;280:14006)
            Interpretation
            • Cytoplasmic staining
            • Staining in any percentage of tumor cells is interpreted as positive
            Uses by pathologists
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Yao-Tseng Chen, M.D., Ph.D.

            Lentiginous lesion, A103 versus HMB45

            Primary melanoma, A103 versus HMB45

            Metastatic melanoma, A103 versus HMB45

            Angiomyolipoma of the liver, A103



            Contributed by Semir Vranić, M.D., Ph.D., Kristine Cornejo, M.D., Case #32 and Case #109
            Missing Image

            Small bowel, metastatic melanoma

            Missing Image

            Testis, Leydig cell tumor

            Missing Image

            Kidney, atypical epithelioid angiomyolipoma

            Missing Image

            Uterus, melanoma



            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image

            Bladder PEComa, HMB45+, MelanA+

            Missing Image

            Skin, dermal nevus

            Missing Image

            Skin, melanoma, fibrohistiocytic proliferation


            Missing Image Missing Image

            Skin, melanoma, sentinel lymph nodes with "stealth" metastases

            Missing Image

            Small bowel, metastatic melanoma

            Missing Image

            Stomach, metastatic melanoma, MelanA

            Positive staining - normal
            • Melanocytes in skin, retina - both A103 and M2-7C10 clones
            • Adrenal cortex, testis (Leydig cells and occasional Sertoli cells), ovary (granulosa / theca cells, hilus and stromal cells) - clone A103 only
            Negative staining - disease
            • All tumors not listed above, including all carcinomas, lymphomas, etc.
            Board review style question #1
            Which of the following lesions will stain positively for MelanA antibody (clone A103) but does not express MelanA mRNA or protein?

            1. Adrenal cortical adenoma
            2. Angiomyolipoma
            3. Benign melanocytic nevus
            4. Lymphangiomyomatosis
            5. PEComa
            Board review style answer #1
            A. Adrenal cortical adenoma. A103 stains adrenal cortical cells and steroid producing cells in testis and ovary due to antibody cross reactivity to an unknown molecule in these cells; these cells do not produce MelanA / MART1 mRNA or protein.

            Comment Here

            Reference: MelanA / MART1
            Board review style question #2
            Which of the following statements is false about gp100 (HMB45 antibody) and MelanA (A103 antibody)?

            1. Both are likely to be positive in angiomyolipoma
            2. Both are markers for melanocyte differentiation
            3. HMB45 is more sensitive than MelanA (A103) in detecting metastatic melanoma in sentinel lymph nodes
            4. Neither can be used to distinguish melanomas from benign nevi
            5. Only MelanA (A103 antibody) is positive in adrenal cortical adenoma
            Board review style answer #2
            C. HMB45 is more sensitive than MelanA (A103) in detecting metastatic melanoma in sentinel lymph nodes is false. MelanA (A103) is more sensitive than HMB45 (gp100) in detecting metastatic melanoma in sentinel lymph nodes.

            Comment Here

            Reference: MelanA / MART1

            Microphthalmia associated transcription factor (MITF)
            Definition / general
            • Microphthalmia associated transcription factor (MITF), also known as melanocyte inducing transcription factor (GeneCards), is a regulator of gene expression essential for melanocyte survival, development and proliferation; it also has relevance in melanoma biology and nonmelanocyte cellular functions (Genes Dev 2019;33:983)
            • MITF labels most melanocytic proliferations but is not specific for them
            Essential features
            • Transcription factor expressed in melanocytes and a variety of other cell types
            • Essential for the survival, development and function of melanocytes
            • Nuclear stain, positive in most melanocytic proliferations, with the notable exception of desmoplastic melanoma
            • Positive in perivascular epithelioid cell neoplasms
            • Nonspecific, with pitfalls including certain soft tissue tumors as well as reactive cells in excision scars
            Terminology
            • Homolog of mouse microphthalmia
            • MI
            • Melanocyte inducing transcription factor (renamed by HUGO Gene Nomenclature Committee in 2017) (HGNC: Symbol Report for MITF [Accessed 8 April 2021])
            • Microphthalmia associated transcription factor (original gene name)
            • Class E basic helix - loop - helix protein 32 (BHLHe32)
            • Waardenburg syndrome, type 2A (WS2, WS2A)
            • CMM8
            • COMMAD
            Pathophysiology
            • Encodes a transcription factor of the basic domain helix - loop - helix leucine zipper (bHLH-LZ) class that binds DNA as dimers
            • Located on chromosome 3p14.1
            • A member of the MiT subfamily of factors that also includes TFEB, TFE3 and TFEC, with which it can form heterodimers (Genes Dev 1994;8:2770)
            • Required for the proper development of several cell lineages, including osteoclasts, melanocytes, retinal pigment epithelial cells, mast cells and natural killer cells (Bone 2004;34:689)
            • Hundreds of downstream targets involved in lineage specific functions (i.e. tyrosinase in melanocytes, TRAP in osteoclasts) and a diverse range of additional nonlineage specific functions, including regulation of proliferation, DNA damage repair, metabolism, lysosome biogenesis and autophagy (Genes Dev 2019;33:983)
            • Regulates function of pancreatic beta cells and may play a role in glucose homeostasis (Diabetes 2013;62:2834)
            Clinical features
            Interpretation
            • Nuclear stain
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            • Loss of expression in melanomas is associated with decreased survival and increased risk of occult lymph node metastasis (Melanoma Res 2015;25:496)
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Ata Moshiri, M.D., M.P.H.
            Neurocristic hamartoma

            Neurocristic hamartoma

            Neurocristic hamartoma MelanA

            Neurocristic hamartoma MelanA

            Neurocristic hamartoma SOX10

            Neurocristic hamartoma SOX10

            Neurocristic hamartoma MITF scanning Neurocristic hamartoma MITF scanning Neurocristic hamartoma MITF scanning

            Neurocristic hamartoma MITF scanning


            Neurocristic hamartoma CD34

            Neurocristic hamartoma CD34

            Desmoplastic melanoma H&E Desmoplastic melanoma H&E

            Desmoplastic melanoma H&E

            Desmoplastic melanoma S100

            Desmoplastic melanoma S100

            Desmoplastic melanoma MITF

            Desmoplastic melanoma MITF

            Desmoplastic melanoma P16

            Desmoplastic melanoma P16


            Epithelioid angiomyolipoma H&E

            Epithelioid angiomyolipoma H&E

            Epithelioid angiomyolipoma MITF

            Epithelioid angiomyolipoma MITF

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - disease
            Negative staining
            Sample pathology report
            • Skin, left chest, punch biopsy:
              • Mastocytosis (see comment)
              • Comment: The dermal mononuclear proliferation stains positively with tryptase, CD117, and MITF, compatible with mast cell lineage.
            Board review style question #1
            Which of the following is the best situation to use the MITF immunohistochemical stain?

            1. Margin assessment in an excision of a biopsy proven desmoplastic melanoma
            2. To differentiate melanocytes from epithelioid histiocytes and multinucleated giant cells
            3. To support a diagnosis of Xp11 translocated renal cell carcinoma with TFE3 gene fusion
            4. Use in addition to smooth muscle actin and HMB45 to support a diagnosis of angiomyolipoma
            5. Use as a marker for poorly differentiated melanoma in a pleomorphic spindle cell neoplasm of the skin
            Board review style answer #1
            D. MITF, in combination with HMB45 and SMA would support an angiomyolipoma, which is a type of perivascular endothelial cell tumor (PEComa). Answer A is incorrect because desmoplastic melanomas are usually negative for MITF. Answer B is incorrect because histiocytes, particularly multinucleated giant cells, can be positive for MITF. Answer C is incorrect because although TFE3 is a transcription factor related to MITF and these tumors are referred to as MiT family translocation renal cell carcinomas, most are negative for MITF by immunohistochemistry. Answer E is incorrect because MITF is nonspecific for the differential diagnosis of melanoma and can be positive in pleomorphic spindle cell lesions of the skin, including undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma, atypical fibroxanthoma and sarcomatoid carcinoma.

            Comment Here

            Reference: Microphthalmia associated transcription factor (MITF)

            MLH1
            Definition / general
              • Mismatch repair (MMR) protein
              • Deficiency results in microsatellite instability (MSI)
              • Germline mutations result in autosomal dominant hereditary Lynch syndrome
            Essential features
            • Mismatch repair protein whose deficiency results in high microsatellite instability (MSI high)
            • Causes of deficiency include germline and somatic MLH1 mutations and somatic and constitutional epigenetic silencing through MLH1 promoter hypermethylation
            • Germline MLH1 mutations result in the autosomal dominant hereditary Lynch syndrome, which predisposes to colorectal cancer and several other noncolorectal neoplasms, such as endometrial cancer (Mod Pathol 2019;32:1)
            • Immunohistochemistry for the MMR proteins MLH1, PMS2, MSH2 and MSH6 is used for:
              • Identification of MMR deficient, MSI high neoplasms
              • Screening for Lynch syndrome
            Terminology
            Pathophysiology
            Diagrams / tables

            Images hosted on other servers:
            Missing Image

            MMR and Lynch syndrome screening algorithm

            Missing Image

            Colorectal carcinoma: MMR status

            Clinical features
            • MLH1 deficiency results in microsatellite instability (MSI), characterized by accumulation of numerous replication errors within short nucleotide repeat sequences (i.e. microsatellites)
            • MLH1 deficiency in cancer has 4 possible causes:
              • Somatic MLH1 promoter hypermethylation
              • Constitutional MLH1 promoter hypermethylation
              • Germline MLH1 mutation
              • Somatic MLH1 mutation
            • Somatic MLH1 promoter hypermethylation is the cause of MLH1 deficiency in 10 - 15% of all colorectal and endometrial carcinomas; colorectal carcinomas fitting this description often also have BRAF V600E mutations (J Med Genet 2021 Jan 15 [Epub ahead of print])
            • Constitutional MLH1 promoter hypermethylation is a rare cause (< 1%) of Lynch syndrome (Genes Chromosomes Cancer 2009;48:737)
            • In case of a heterozygous germline MLH1 mutation, a second hit can inactivate the remaining intact allele in a cell, resulting in deficient DNA mismatch repair and high microsatellite instability (J Mol Diagn 2004;6:308)
            • Biallelic germline mutations in 1 of the 4 mismatch repair genes give rise to the constitutional mismatch repair deficiency syndrome (CMMRD), a rare but aggressive cancer predisposition syndrome with cancers in multiple organs, often presenting in childhood; phenotypic overlap with neurofibromatosis 1 is common (J Med Genet 2021 Feb 23 [Epub ahead of print], Genet Med 2020;22:2081, Clin Genet 2020;97:296)
            • Somatic MLH1 mutation can occur either clonally or subclonally in a carcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:909)
            Interpretation
            • Retained staining (i.e. MLH1 proficiency) is defined as diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity within neoplastic cells
            • Retained staining in neoplastic cells requires a similar or higher intensity than the nuclear immunoreactivity in normal epithelium, lymphocytes, fibroblasts and endothelium, which serve as internal control (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2015;23:1)
            • Aberrant loss of staining (i.e. MLH1 deficiency) is defined as either:
              • Complete absence of nuclear immunoreactivity within neoplastic cells, in the presence of a positive internal control
              • PMS2 expression is almost always lost as well
              • Punctate, speckled, dot-like, nucleolar or granular heterogeneous nuclear MLH1 immunoreactivity within neoplastic cells, in the presence of a positive internal control (Histopathology 2019;74:795, Histopathology 2018;73:703)
              • Punctate or dot-like staining pattern is most often observed with the MLH1 M1 clone
            • MMR panel should generally use MLH1, MSH2, MSH6 and PMS2
              • 2 stain immunohistochemical screening (i.e. just PMS2 and MSH6) for Lynch syndrome may fail to detect MMR deficiency in rare cases and is not recommended (Mod Pathol 2018;31:1891)
            • Rarely, germline MLH1 missense mutation results in loss of function with retained MLH1 expression
              • If no germline PMS2 mutation is found in a carcinoma with isolated PMS2 loss, a germline MLH1 mutation should be excluded (Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:e35)
            • MLH1 immunohistochemistry is fixation dependent; poor fixation results in false negative staining
              • MLH1 immunohistochemistry is preferentially performed on biopsies instead of resection specimens
            Uses by pathologists
            Prognostic factors
            • Patients with a colorectal carcinoma with combined deficiency of MLH1 and PMS2, in the absence of somatic BRAF mutations and MLH1 promoter hypermethylation, should be referred for germline mutation testing (Mod Pathol 2019;32:1)
            • MSI high neoplasms likely respond well to immune checkpoint inhibitors (Br J Cancer 2019;121:809, J Clin Oncol 2020;38:214, J Clin Oncol 2019;37:2786)
            • MMR deficient endometrial cancers have:
              • Better prognosis than copy number high / p53 abnormal endometrial cancers
              • Similar prognosis to copy number low / p53 wild type endometrial cancers
              • Worse prognosis than POLE mutant endometrial cancers (Nature 2013;497:67)
            Microscopic (histologic) description
            • Normal finding: nuclear stain in at least some but generally most / all tumor cells, in addition to nonneoplastic background cells
            • Any other pattern could represent abnormality and should be further assessed (see Interpretation)
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Contributed by Mieke R. Van Bockstal, M.D., Ph.D. and Shatavisha Dasgupta, M.D., Ph.D.
            MLH1 deficient endometrioid carcinoma

            MLH1 deficient endometrioid carcinoma

            MLH1 deficient gastric carcinoma

            MLH1 deficient gastric carcinoma

            Moderately differentiated gastric adenocarcinoma

            Moderately differentiated gastric adenocarcinoma

            MLH1 proficient gastric adenocarcinoma

            MLH1 proficient gastric adenocarcinoma

            PMS2 deficient gastric carcinoma PMS2 deficient gastric carcinoma (paired interpretation)

            PMS2 deficient gastric carcinoma (paired interpretation)


            MLH1 proficient colon carcinoma MLH1 proficient colon carcinoma

            MLH1 proficient colon carcinoma

            Carcinosarcoma of the endometrium

            Carcinosarcoma of the endometrium

            MLH1 proficient endometrial carcinomsarcoma

            MLH1 proficient endometrial carcinomsarcoma

            Fixation artifact

            Fixation artifact


            MLH1 deficient endometrioid carcinoma MLH1 deficient endometrioid carcinoma MLH1 deficient endometrioid carcinoma

            MLH1 deficient endometrioid carcinoma

            Virtual slides

            Images hosted on other servers:
            MLH1 deficient endometrioid carcinoma

            MLH1 deficient endometrioid carcinoma

            Positive staining - normal
            Positive staining - disease
            • "Positive" result generally indicates aberrant loss of staining (see Interpretation), so report should be carefully worded to avoid miscommunication
            Negative staining
            • "Negative" result generally indicates retention of normal staining (see Interpretation), so report should be carefully worded to avoid miscommunication
            Sample pathology report

            MMR immunohistochemistry result Recommended sample report
            Normal expression of all 4 MMR proteins MLH1, PMS2, MSH2 and MSH6 Background nonneoplastic tissue / internal control shows intact nuclear expression of MLH1, PMS2, MSH2 and MSH6.
            The tumor shows normal nuclear expression of MLH1, PMS2, MSH2 and MSH6. There is no immunohistochemical evidence of a mismatch repair deficiency or Lynch syndrome. However, referral for genetic counseling should be considered if there is a strong family / clinical history suggestive of Lynch and related syndromes, despite this immunohistochemical result.
            Abnormal result; combined MLH1 and PMS2 loss with expression of MSH2 and MSH6 Background nonneoplastic tissue / internal control shows intact nuclear expression of MLH1, PMS2, MSH2 and MSH6.
            The tumor cells show loss of expression of MLH1 and PMS2, with normal nuclear expression of MSH2 and MSH6. This immunohistochemical profile suggests a mismatch repair deficiency, which requires MLH1 promoter hypermethylation testing.
            • If MLH1 promoter hypermethylation is not detected, the patient should be referred for germline genetic testing for Lynch syndrome.
            • If MLH1 promoter hypermethylation is detected, germline genetic testing is not required.
            Abnormal result; isolated PMS2 loss with expression of MLH1, MSH2 and MSH6 Background nonneoplastic tissue / internal control shows intact nuclear expression of MLH1, PMS2, MSH2 and MSH6.
            The tumor cells show loss of expression of PMS2, with normal nuclear expression of MLH1, MSH2 and MSH6. This immunohistochemical profile suggests a mismatch repair deficiency. The patient should be referred for germline genetic testing for Lynch syndrome.
            Board review style question #1

            Which of the following is true about this MLH1 immunohistochemical stain, performed on a well differentiated endometrioid carcinoma of the ovary?

            1. Immunohistochemical stain for PMS2 should be performed to exclude PMS2 deficiency
            2. Mismatch repair protein MLH1 is deficient
            3. This immunoreactivity pattern is likely due to MLH1 promoter hypermethylation
            4. This patient likely has Lynch syndrome and should be referred for germline mutation testing
            Board review style answer #1
            A. Immunohistochemical stain for PMS2 should be performed to exclude PMS2 deficiency

            Comment Here

            Reference: MLH1
            Board review style question #2
            Which of the following is true about mismatch repair immunohistochemistry?

            1. A patient with an MLH1 deficient, PMS2 deficient colon carcinoma harboring a BRAF mutation should be referred to genetics to exclude an underlying germline MLH1 mutation
            2. Colorectal carcinomas with isolated PMS2 deficiency likely present with MLH1 promoter hypermethylation
            3. Immunohistochemistry for mismatch repair proteins should be performed on each carcinosarcoma of the endometrium to allow molecular classification
            4. Microsatellite instable endometrioid carcinomas of the endometrium generally have a worse prognosis than MMR proficient, p53 mutant endometrioid carcinomas of the endometrium
            Board review style answer #2
            C. Immunohistochemistry for mismatch repair proteins should be performed on each carcinosarcoma of the endometrium to allow molecular classification

            Comment Here

            Reference: MLH1

            MLH3 (pending)
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            [Pending]

            Movat pentachrome (pending)
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general
            (pending)

            MSH1
            Table of Contents
            Definition / general
            Definition / general

            MSH2
            Definition / general
            • Protein is 104.7 kDa, 943 amino acids, located at chromosome 2p21
            • Formed of 16 exons, mRNA is 3145 base pairs
            Essential features
            • One of the main genes of the MisMatch Repair family (MMR)
              • The four key genes identified to date are MutL Homologue 1 (MLH1), MutS Homologue 2 (MSH2), MutS Homologue 6 (MSH6) and PostMeiotic Segregation increased 2 (PMS2, homologous to the E. coli MMR genes)
              • Optimally functioning MMR is important for cancer avoidance and to maintain genomic stability by correcting single base mismatch and insertion deletion loops which results from DNA replication, genetic recombination or chemical or physical damage
              • The MSH2 and MSH6 proteins bind, forming a heterodimeric complex (mutSα) which identifies mismatched bases and initiates DNA repair
                • Mismatch binding results in an ATP dependent conformational change, with subsequent recruitment of mutLα, MLH1 and PMS2 heterodimers
                • Then DNA repair proteins are recruited to complete the process
              • MMR dysfunction causes microsatellite instability, which is characteristic feature of Lynch syndrome
                • Microsatellites are short tandem repeats (2-5 DNA bases) scattered mainly in noncoding DNA regions
                • Microsatellite instability (MSI) is defined as changes in length due to insertions or deletions of repeating units in a microsatellite; it is caused by defective MMR, and classified as MSI-H if more than 30-40% of investigated loci show MSI or MSI-L if less
            Uses by pathologists
              MSH2 and disease
            • Lynch syndrome, hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC)
              • Autosomal dominant
              • Early age of onset
              • Familial predisposition
              • Colorectal carcinoma, gynecological and urological malignancies
              • Molecular definition is based on germline mutation in one of the 4 major genes forming MMR system, 40% is caused by MSH2
              • Diagnosis by
            • Muir-Torre syndrome
              • Autosomal dominant
              • Sebaceous neoplasms and visceral malignancies
              • Mainly caused by MSH2 mutation
            • MMR defect and sporadic colorectal cancer
              • 10 and 15% of sporadic colon cancers; this MSI phenotype is associated with proximal primary tumor location, high grade, mucinous pathology, early stage, females, smoking and older age at onset
              • Most are thought to arise from sessile serrated adenomas or polyps
              • The majority are caused by MLH1 methylation and inactivation
            Clinical features
            Case reports
            Treatment
            • Baicalein is a new molecule that is found to specifically shrinks MutSa-deficint xenografts tumor and inhibits growth of colon tumors in colon specific MSH2 knockout mice (Cancer Res 2016 Jun 4 [Epub ahead of print])
            Microscopic (histologic) images

            Images hosted on other servers:

            Examples of MLH1,
            MSH2, MSH6 and PMS2
            immunohistochemistry

            Immunohistochemistry & special stains
            • Staining localization
              • Nuclear

            • MSH2 staining
              • IHC is a simple way to detect protein expression
              • Defective MMR will show loss of expression of the protein

            MSH6
            Definition / general
            • The MSH6 gene on chromosome 2 is part of the DNA mismatch repair system
            • It encodes a component of the MutS family of proteins that are involved in DNA mismatch repair, and heterodimerizes with MSH2 to form the MutS alpha complex, which serves as a bidirectional molecular switch for the mismatch repair machinery
            Essential features
            • Mutations in MSH6 are associated with increased risk of colorectal cancer, hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, Lynch syndrome and endometrial cancer
            • MSH6 expression can be reduced by chemotherapy and radiation (Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:1798)
            Terminology
            • DNA mismatch repair protein Msh6, HNPCC5, HSAP, MutS homolog 6 (E. coli), G / T binding protein
            Epidemiology
            Sites
            • Ubiquitous nuclear expression in normal tissues
            Pathophysiology
            • Genetic alterations in MSH6 contribute to DNA mismatch repair deficiency that leads to microsatellite instability and increased risk of cancer
            • MSH6 protein expression is unstable in absence of MSH2
            • Loss of expression of MSH2 due to mutations usually results in the loss of expression of MSH6 (Adv Anat Pathol 2009;16:405; Exp Rev Mol Diagnostics 2016;16:591)
            Etiology
            • Germline or sporadic mutations in MHSH6 lead to microsatellite instability
            Diagnosis
            • Screening: immunohistochemical (IHC) stain; loss of nuclear staining suggests microsatellite instability
              • Negative staining of MSH6 is usually due to mutations in MSH2 and should therefore raise suspicion for germline mutations (Cancer Treat Rev 2016;51:19)
              • Missense and point mutations that lead to nonfunctional proteins can result in false negatives on IHC
            • Confirmatory: molecular studies (PCR for microsatellite instability)
              • High (MSI-H): at least 2 of 5 unstable markers or greater than or equal to 30% of unstable markers
              • Low (MSI-L): one of five unstable markers or less than 30% of unstable markers
            Prognostic factors
            Case reports
            Treatment
            Microscopic (histologic) description
            • Normal staining pattern: nuclear
            • Cytoplasmic staining is abnormal and should not be misinterpreted as normal staining
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Epitomics
              Missing Image

              Colon, normal histology epithelium

              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • National Cancer Institute recommendations: 5 microsatellite markers (BAT25, BAT26, N2S123, N5S346 and D17S250) for sequencing (Cancer Res 1998;58:5248) (additional markers may be used, however, there is no consensus on which markers to use)
              • Sanger sequencing for germline mutations
              • Multiplex ligation dependent probe amplification for large copy number variant detection
              • Next generation sequencing may also be useful

              MUC2-MUC6
              Table of Contents
              MUC2 | MUC3 | MUC4 | MUC5AC | MUC6
              MUC2
              • Epithelial mucin expressed in intestinal goblet cells and airway epithelium; gene is at 11p15.5
              • Relatively specific for predicting colorectal origin for Paget disease (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1469)
              • Gel forming MUC2 mucin may act as barrier to prevent infiltration of malignant cells in breast mucinous / colloid carcinoma
              • Positive staining: intestinal and airway epithelium; mucinous carcinoma of colon, breast, pancreas, ovary and stomach
              • Negative staining: stomach, breast ductal and lobular carcinomas
              MUC3
              • Upregulated by steroid hormones in vitro
              • Positive staining: invasive breast carcinoma, gastric carcinoma (associated with poor prognosis)
              MUC4
              • Transmembrane or membrane bound mucin that provides a protective layer of mucus
              • Normally acts as barrier to apical surface of epithelial cells, playing a protective and regulatory role
              • Positive staining - normal: tracheobronchial mucosa, colon, stomach, cervix and lung; normal salivary glands
              • Positive staining - disease: pancreatic, colonic, pulmonary and gastric carcinoma; sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:1538, Am J Surg Pathol 2012;36:1444)
              MUC5AC
              • Also known as MUC5 (GeneCards)
              • Protects epithelium
              • Positive staining - normal: stomach (foveolar epithelium of body and antrum), tracheobronchial mucosa, endometrium (mucinous metaplasia, eosinophilic change / metaplasia (Mod Pathol 2005;18:1243), surface syncytial change, ciliated change in 52%)
              • Positive staining - disease: extramammary Paget disease but not mammary Paget disease or normal breast tissue (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1469); mucinous carcinoma of ovary, diffuse type gastric carcinoma (83%)
              • Negative staining: normal breast tissue
              MUC6
              • Produces protective glycoprotein coat for gut epithelia
              • Positive staining - normal: stomach (pyloric glands), gallbladder, colon and endocervix
              • Positive staining - disease: invasive ductal carcinoma of breast, gastric carcinomas
              • Negative staining: normal breast tissue

              Mucins
              Definition / general
              • Also called mucopolysaccharides; major glycoprotein components of mucus under normal circumstances
              • Large, highly glycosylated proteins with repeat tandem domains rich in serine and threonine sites for O-glycosylation
              • Also contain glyco-conjugates (mucoproteins, glycoproteins, glycosaminoglycans, glycolipids) with high content of sialic acid (N-acyl derivative of neuraminic acid) or sulfated polysaccharide
              • Neuraminic acid is a 9 carbon amino sugar derived from mannosamine and pyruvate
              • Mucin stains highlight carbohydrate portion of glycoproteins, not the protein component
              • Best pan mucin combination may be PAS and Alcian blue
              • MUC:
                • Epithelial mucins, share a common characteristic of an elevated number of sequences repeated in tandem, that are different for each MUC
              • Two main families of MUC genes:
                • Gel forming / secreted mucins at locus 11p15 (MUC2, MUC5AC, MUC5B, MUC6)
                • Membrane bound mucins at locus 7q22, 3q and 1q21 (MUC1, MUC3A, MUC3B, MUC4, MUC12, MUC13, MUC17)
              Terminology
              • Mucin types include acid mucins and neutral mucins
              • Acid mucins:
                • Acid-simple non-sulfated:
                  • Contain sialic acid
                  • Found in epithelium (gallbladder [benign, adenocarcinoma], intestinal metaplasia in stomach)
                  • Positive for PAS, Alcian blue at pH 2.5, colloidal iron, and metachromatic dyes
                  • They resist hyaluronidase digestion
                • Acid-simple mesenchymal:
                  • Contain hyaluronic acid and digest with hyaluronic acid
                  • Found in tissue stroma and sarcomas
                  • Positive for Alcian blue at pH 2.5, colloidal iron, and metachromatic dyes
                  • Negative for PAS
                • Acid-complex sulfated:
                  • Found in adenocarcinomas
                  • Usually positive for PAS, Alcian blue at pH 1, colloidal iron, mucicarmine, and metachromatic stains
                  • They resist hyaluronidase digestion
                • Acid-complex connective tissue:
                  • Found in tissue stroma, cartilage, and bone
                  • Includes chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate
                  • Positive for Alcian blue at pH 0.5
                  • Negative for PAS
              • Neutral mucins:
                • GI tract, prostate
                • Stain with PAS only (negative for Alcian blue, colloidal iron, mucicarmine, or metachromatic dyes)
                • Note that thyroglobulin and other neutral glycoproteins are also PAS positive
              Uses by pathologists
              • Mucin stains:
                • Alcian blue:
                  • Stains acid-simple non-sulfated and acid-simple mesenchymal mucins at pH 2.5, acid-complex sulfated mucins at pH 1.0 and acid-complex connective tissue mucins at pH 0.5
                  • Does NOT stain neutral mucins
                • Colloidal iron:
                  • Stains acid-simple non-sulfated, acid-simple mesenchymal, acid-complex sulfated mucins
                  • Does NOT stain neutral mucins or acid-complex connective tissue mucins
                  • Theory: acid mucopolysaccharides attract iron particles stabilized in ammonia and glycerin
                  • Requires formalin fixation
                  • False positives include phospholipids and free nucleic acids
                  • More specific if hyaluronidase pre-digestion
                  • For chromophobe carcinomas, have diffuse strong staining with reticular pattern
                • Mucicarmine:
                  • Very specific for epithelial mucins, including adenocarcinomas
                  • Although insensitive
                  • Atain contains carmine (red coloring material) and aluminum chloride
                • PAS (periodic acid-Schiff):
                  • Stains glycogen as well as mucins, but tissue can be pre-digested with diastase to remove glycogen
                  • Stains neutral and acid-simple non-sulfated and acid-complex sulfated mucins
                  • Does NOT stain acid-simple mesenchymal mucins and acid-complex connective tissue mucins
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

              PAS staining of thyroid

              Mucicarmine staining

              Additional references

              Multigene products

              MUM1 / IRF4
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • MUM1 / IRF4 is a nuclear marker that is normally expressed in activated B and T cells, plasma cells and melanocytes
              • Involved in the differentiation of B cells and T cells
              • Marker is expressed in lymphoid and some nonlymphoid malignancies including classic Hodgkin lymphoma, diffuse large B cell lymphoma (nongerminal center B cell-like subtype), multiple myeloma and malignant melanoma
              • Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) for 6p25 (IRF4 / DUSP22) gene rearrangement can be used to diagnose different entities
              Terminology
              Pathophysiology
              • MUM1 was originally found to be involved in the t(6;14)(p25;q32) translocation of multiple myeloma, which causes the juxtaposition of the MUM1 gene, mapping at 6p25, to the IgH locus on 14q32 (Leukemia 2000;14:563)
              • MUM1+ cells are mainly located in the light zone of the germinal center but the highly proliferating, follicle colonizing B blasts (centroblasts) of the dark zone fail to express the protein; thus, it is unlikely that the MUM1 protein is involved in the process of clonal expansion known to occur in the dark zone of the germinal center (Blood 2000;95:2084)
              • MUM1 expression may denote the final step of intragerminal center B cell differentiation (i.e., the stage known as centrocyte, as well as subsequent steps of B cell maturation toward plasma cells) (Leukemia 2000;14:563)
              • Loss of MUM1 function results in the absence of activated lymphoid cells and Ig secreting plasma cells (Science 1997;275:540, Leukemia 2000;14:563)
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain
              Uses by pathologists
              • MUM1 is one of the markers used in Hans algorithm (requires immunostains CD10, BCL6 and MUM1); it is used in subclassification of diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL) into germinal center B cell-like subtype and nongerminal center B cell-like subtype (Blood 2004;103:275, Med J Malaysia 2020;75:98, Cancer Cytopathol 2016;124:135)
              • May help differentiate classic Hodgkin lymphoma (cHL) (MUM1 positive) from nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (MUM1 negative) (Rom J Morphol Embryol 2011;52:69)
              • Helps differentiate the double hit lymphomas (MUM1 positive > 45%) from Burkitt and diffuse large B cell lymphoma (usually MUM1 negative if germinal center phenotype) (Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:327)
              • To differentiate angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma (AITL) with Hodgkin / Reed-Sternberg (HRS)-like cells from classic Hodgkin lymphoma (Int J Clin Exp Pathol 2015;8:11372):
                • In AITL, MUM1 is expressed not only in HRS-like cells but also in the neoplastic T cells around the HRS-like cells, forming a rosette pattern (Int J Clin Exp Pathol 2015;8:11372)
              • FISH for IRF4 favors cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma versus other cutaneous T cell lymphoproliferative disorders (Mod Pathol 2011;24:596)
              • MUM1 expression differentiates tumors in the PEComa family from clear cell sarcoma and melanoma (Int J Surg Pathol 2012;20:29)
              • Can be used to differentiate primary effusion lymphoma among other lymphomatous effusions (Br J Haematol 2000;111:247)
              Prognostic factors
              • In diffuse large B cell lymphomas, MUM1 identifies cases of the nongerminal center B cell-like subtype and has been linked to poor survival (Leukemia 2008;22:441)
              • MUM1 mRNA expression has been found to be an independent risk factor for poor survival in myeloma (Leukemia 2008;22:441)
                • High expression of MUM1 was in addition to β2 microglobulin, the only myeloma risk factors analyzed in the study that were found to be independently associated with overall survival
                • Combined score between these 2 parameters allowed a strong discrimination between high and low risk groups
              • Lack of MUM1 expression was found to be associated with worse outcome in classic Hodgkin lymphoma (Haematologica 2007;92:1343)
              • IRF4 / MUM1 expression was associated with poor survival outcomes in peripheral T cell lymphoma (PTCL) (J Cancer 2017;8:1018)
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Percentage of nuclei with positive staining in tumor cells is scored to subclassify diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL) into germinal center B cell-like subtype and nongerminal center B cell-like subtype
                • > 30% - nongerminal center B cell-like subtype if CD10 is negative and BCL6 is positive
                • < 30% - germinal center B cell-like subtype if CD10 is negative and BCL6 is positive
              • Reference: Blood 2004;103:275
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Fatima Iqbal, M.D. and Kirill A. Lyapichev, M.D.

              Mantle cell lymphoma

              MUM1 in mantle cell lymphoma

              Plasmablastic lymphoma

              MUM1 in plasmablastic lymphoma

              Plasmacytoma

              MUM1 in plasmacytoma


              Multiple myeloma

              MUM1 in multiple myeloma

              DLBCL with high content of histiocytes and T cells

              MUM1 in DLBCL

              Primary mediastinal large B cell lymphoma

              MUM1 in primary mediastinal large B cell lymphoma


              Classic Hodgkin lymphoma

              MUM1 in classic Hodgkin lymphoma

              Burkitt lymphoma

              MUM1 in Burkitt lymphoma

              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • In the proper context, the presence of the 6p25 gene rearrangement supports a diagnosis of large B cell lymphoma with IRF4 rearrangement or ALK negative anaplastic large cell lymphoma with IRF4 / DUSP22 rearrangement (Blood 2014;124:1473, Blood 2011;118:139)
              • FISH detection of IG-IRF4 fusion detects lymphomas associated with younger patient age and favorable outcome (Blood 2011;118:139)
              • t(6;14)(p25;q32), causing MUM1 / IRF4-IgH, present in 20% of myeloma (Leukemia 1999;13:1812)
              • Recurrent translocations involving the IRF4 oncogene locus were identified in peripheral T cell lymphomas (Leukemia 2009;23:574)
              • FISH for IRF4 favors cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma versus other cutaneous T cell lymphoproliferative disorders (Mod Pathol 2011;24:596)
              Molecular / cytogenetics images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              IRF4 / MUM1 FISH abnormalities

              Sample pathology report
              • Lymph node, left groin, excision:
                • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma, nongerminal center B cell-like immunophenotype
                • CD10 negative in malignant cells < 30%
                • BCL6 positive in malignant lymphoid cells > 30%
                • MUM1 positive in malignant lymphoid cells > 30%
              Board review style question #1

              The above figure shows a MUM1 immunostain result. What is needed to confirm it as positive in diffuse large B cell lymphoma, nongerminal center B cell-like immunophenotype?

              1. Positive nuclear and cytoplasmic staining pattern
              2. Positive nuclear staining in > 30% malignant lymphoid cells
              3. Positive nuclear staining in > 50% malignant lymphoid cells
              4. Positive nuclear staining pattern
              Board review style answer #1
              B. Positive nuclear staining in > 30% malignant lymphoid cells. According to Han's algorithm, more than 30% malignant lymphoid cells (nuclear staining) is required to call it positive in diffuse large B cell lymphoma, nongerminal center B cell-like immunophenotype (Blood 2004;103:275).

              Comment Here

              Reference: MUM1 / IRF4
              Board review style question #2
              Which of the following immunophenotypic findings is consistent with nongerminal center B cell-like immunophenotype of diffuse large B cell lymphoma (non-GCB, DLBCL)?

              1. CD10-, BCL6+, MUM1-
              2. CD10+, BCL6-, MUM1-
              3. CD10-, BCL6+, MUM1+
              4. CD10+, BCL6+, MUM1-
              Board review style answer #2
              C. CD10-, BCL6+, MUM1+. According to Hans algorithm, if CD10- (< 30% expression), BCL6+ (> 30% expression) and MUM1+ (> 30% expression), it represents nongerminal center B cell-like subtype of diffuse large B cell lymphoma (Blood 2004;103:275).

              Comment Here

              Reference: MUM1 / IRF4

              MYB
              Definition / general
              • A proto-oncogene
              • The canonical member of the MYB family of transcription factor proteins
              • Important regulator of hematopoiesis
              • Significant contributing factor to induction of leukemia in humans (Leukemia 2013;27:269)
              Essential features
              • Essential for hematopoiesis and lymphoid development
              • Expressed in nuclei of proliferating epithelial, endothelial and hematopoietic progenitor cells (erythroid, myeloid, lymphoid); as these mature and differentiate, MYB transcription levels decrease dramatically (Mol Biol Evol 2008;25:2189)
              • Has hundreds of transcriptional targets, including genes involved in development, cell survival, proliferation and homeostasis (Nat Rev Cancer 2008;8:523)
              • Oncogenic mutations in MYB alter the spectrum of its transcriptional targets
              Terminology
              • Also referred to as C - Myb, Cmyb, V - Myb avian myeloblastosis viral oncogene homolog, Efg
              Pathophysiology
              • MYB family proteins have three domains:
                • Highly conserved N terminal DNA binding domain, which specifically recognizes the consensus sequence 5’-YAAC[GT]G-3’, where Y is any pYrimidine
                • Transcriptional activation domain
                • A less conserved C terminal domain mostly involved in transcriptional silencing
                  • Contains a leucine zipper - like motif that regulates MYB activity
                  • Disruption enhances the protein activity (Genes Dev 1996;10:1858)
              • MYB knockout mice die in utero from severe anemia resulting from impaired hepatic hematopoiesis (Cell 1991;65:677)
              • One study showed only 10 – 15% expression of MYB is required to allow 60% survival of mice for several months (EMBO J 2003;22:4478)
              Clinical features
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Various images

              Positive staining - normal
              • Colon, rectum, hematopoietic stem cells
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative stains
              • Adipose tissue and skin

              MYC
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general | N-Myc
              Definition / general
              • Proto-oncogene at 8q24.1 produces short lived nuclear phosphoprotein
              • Overexpressed by t(8;14)(q24;q32.3), t(8;22);(q24;11) and t(2;8);(p11-12;q24), which translocate c-myc gene next to immunoglobulin genes in Burkitt’s lymphoma
              • Gene expressed in virtually all eukaryotic cells; expression usually tightly controlled
              • Immediate early growth response gene; rapidly induced when quiescent cells receive a signal to divide; required for cells to enter S phase
              • By itself, binds DNA poorly; forms stable sequence specific DNA binding heterodimers with max; myc-max recognizes E-box sequence CACGTG and activates transcription of nearby growth promoting genes
              • Has leucine zipper motif: leucine residues that project from every other turn of the alpha helix (every 7th amino acid is leucine), which interdigitates with another leucine zipper
              • In humans, deletion causes embryonic death
              • t(8;14) also frequent in AIDS-related lymphomas, diffuse large-cell lymphomas, posttransplant lymphoproliferative disease, B-ALL (leukemic counterpart of Burkitt's lymphoma)
              • t(8;14)(q24;q11) present in 10-15% T-ALL
              • Breast cancer: amplified in 20-30% of cases; associated with HER2 amplification and poor outcome (Hum Pathol 2005;36:634)
              • Burkitt’s lymphoma: 90% have translocation of c-myc or variants; translocation causes continuous stimulation by adjacent enhancer element of immunoglobulin gene or mutations in myc gene regulatory sequences, that leads to increased constitutive levels; continuous growth stimulation may lead to polyclonal pre-B proliferations, then clonal proliferations, usually ALL-L3
              • Lung-small cell carcinoma: amplified
              • Neuroblastoma: amplified
              N-Myc
              • Also called MYCN, gene at 2p24
              • Amplified gene forms double minutes and homogenously staining regions, and produces excessive N-myc protein
              • Neuroblastoma:
                • Amplification (> 10 copies by Southern blot or FISH) associated with poor prognosis and 1p36.3 deletions

              Myeloperoxidase (MPO)
              Definition / general
              • Myeloid marker that stains neutrophils strongly, other granulocytes variably
              • Staining is either via immunohistochemistry (IHC), enzyme cytochemistry or flow cytometry (see Interpretation for details) (Br J Haematol 2021;193:922)
              Essential features
              • Myeloid marker that stains neutrophils strongly, other granulocytes variably
              • Myeloid marker useful for initial screening of primary marrow disorders and acute myeloid leukemia (AML) subtyping
              Terminology
              Pathophysiology
              Clinical features
              • Detected in > 80% of AML blasts
              • Isolated MPO positivity is associated with unfavorable prognostic factors in B cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (B ALL) in adults, including lower overall survival (Asian Pac J Cancer Prev 2021;22:2143)
              • Isolated MPO expression can be detected, most commonly by IHC but also by flow cytometry, contributing to misdiagnosis in B ALL in adults (Asian Pac J Cancer Prev 2021;22:2143)
              • In extensive, longstanding ulcerative colitis, MPO expression is associated with ulcerative colitis - colorectal cancer (Inflamm Bowel Dis 2012;18:275)
              Interpretation
              • IHC: most sensitive technique in discrepant cases (Indian J Hematol Blood Transfus 2018;34:233)
              • Enzyme cytochemistry: sensitive and specific for myeloid leukemias and myeloid (granulocytic) sarcoma
                • Useful to distinguish acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) and myelomonocytic / monocytic leukemia
                • Useful to diagnose mixed phenotype acute leukemias (Am J Hematol 2016;91:856)
              • Flow cytometry: useful for diagnosis and classification of acute leukemias and for diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome in peripheral blood (Blood 2018;132:5194, Br J Haematol 2021;193:922, Haematologica 2019;104:2382)
              • Diffuse granular staining pattern of MPO in neutrophil cytoplasm is due to staining of primary granules
              Uses by pathologists
              • For primary marrow disorder initial screening, along with CD34, CD61, CD71 and CD117
              • For AML subtyping
              • To distinguish chronic myelomonocytic leukemia from acute myeloid leukemia with monocytic differentiation as part of a comprehensive panel (Histopathology 2012;60:933)
                • Note: Sudan Black B can be used as a substitute in patients with myeloperoxidase deficiency
              • For enzyme cytochemistry, fresh smears are preferred; if not possible, store unstained slides away from light
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Diffuse granular staining pattern of MPO is present in neutrophils and other myeloid cells due to staining of primary granules
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Carolina Martinez Ciarpaglini, M.D., Ph.D. (Case #429), Yen-Chun Liu, M.D., Ph.D., Angel Fernandez-Flores, M.D., Ph.D. (Case #151), K.V. Vinu Balraam, M.D. and S. Venkatesan, M.D. (Case #463) and AFIP
              Myelocytes and promyelocytes in extramedullary hematopoiesis Myelocytes and promyelocytes in extramedullary hematopoiesis

              Myelocytes and promyelocytes in extramedullary hematopoiesis (EMH)

              Normal bone trabeculae

              Normal bone trabeculae

              AML M0 is MPO negative

              AML M0 is MPO negative

              AML M1

              AML M1


              AML M2

              AML M2

              Myeloid sarcoma: myeloblasts are MPO+

              Myeloid sarcoma: myeloblasts are MPO+

              Leukemia cutis

              Leukemia cutis

              CML: MPO negative

              CML: MPO negative

              Positive staining - normal
              Negative staining - normal
              Electron microscopy description
              Sample pathology report
              • Bone marrow, biopsy:
                • Acute myeloid leukemia with mutated NPM1 (see comment)
                • Comment: The bone marrow is massively infiltrated by blasts with a myelomonocytic appearance. By immunohistochemistry, they express cytoplasmic NPM1 and coexpress myeloperoxidase and macrophage restricted CD68 but CD34 is negative.
              Board review style question #1

              Which of the following entities are typically myeloperoxidase positive by immunocytochemistry or enzyme cytochemistry?

              1. Acute erythroid leukemia (AML M6)
              2. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
              3. AML with minimal differentiation (FAB AML M0)
              4. AML without maturation (FAB AML M1)
              Board review style answer #1
              D. AML without maturation (FAB AML M1). In AML without maturation (FAB AML M1), the myeloblasts are positive for myeloperoxidase. Answers A, B and C are incorrect because these entities are typically negative for myeloperoxidase, although acute lymphoblastic leukemia can show isolated myeloperoxidase positivity.

              Comment Here

              Reference: Myeloperoxidase
              Board review style question #2
              Which normal cells are typically strongly myeloperoxidase positive by immunocytochemistry or enzyme cytochemistry?

              1. Basophils
              2. Lymphocytes
              3. Megakaryocytes
              4. Neutrophils
              Board review style answer #2
              D. Neutrophils. Myeloperoxidase strongly stains the primary granules in neutrophils. Answers A, B and C are incorrect because myeloperoxidase does not strongly stain basophils (immature forms are MPO+), lymphocytes (some subsets are weakly positive) or megakaryocytes.

              Comment Here

              Reference: Myeloperoxidase

              Myogenin / myoglobin
              Table of Contents
              Myogenin | Myoglobin
              Myogenin
              • Myogenic transcriptional regulatory protein expressed early in skeletal muscle differentiation
              • Sensitive and specific for rhabdomyosarcoma
              • Focal nuclear staining in desmoid tumors, infantile myofibromatosis, synovial sarcoma, infantile fibrosarcoma, entrapped atrophic or regenerative skeletal muscle (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1150)
              • Positive staining: normal fetal muscle;
              • Negative staining: normal adult muscle
              Myoglobin
              • Oxygen binding protein
              • Positive staining: striated muscle (cardiac, skeletal); rhabdomyosarcoma, other tumors with skeletal muscle differentiation

              NADH
              Definition / general
              • Nicotinadmide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) is a coenzyme that facilitates substrate reducing reactions associated with glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation and fermentation
              • NADH-TR stain protocol utilizes enzymatic activity to release hydrogen from NADH, producing a purple-blue formazan pigment that marks the reaction site
              Essential features
              • NADH enzyme histochemical stain reveals myofibrillar architecture, mitochondria and target fibers; it helps differentiate type I (oxidative) and type II (nonoxidative) fibers
              • This technique demonstrates patterns of myofiber injury that are characteristic of congenital and mitochondrial myopathies and specific muscular dystrophies
              • This stain protocol requires the use of snap frozen muscle biopsies
              Terminology
              • Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide tetrazolium reductase (NADH-TR)
              • Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide diaphorase activity
              Interpretation
              • Mitochondria within sarcoplasmic network of striated muscle
              Uses by pathologists
              • Reveals architectural changes in the muscle, e.g., central cores, whorled, lobulated and moth eaten fibers; these changes assist in categorizing patterns of myofibril injury (J Histotechnol 2008;31:101, ScienceDirect: Tetrazolium Reductase [Accessed 2 February 2022])
              • NADH diaphorase activity, in combination with myosin ATPase activity at pH 9.4, allows fibers to be classified into 3 categories:
                1. Slow twitch high oxidative (ST)
                2. Fast twitch high oxidative (FTH)
                3. Fast twitch low oxidative (FT)
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Speckled pattern within myofibers (J Histotechnol 2008;31:101)
              • Intensity is proportional to number of mitochondria and NADH activity
                • Type I oxidative fibers (dark, dense purple appearance)
                • Type II nonoxidative fibers (light, scattered purple speckles)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Chunyu Cai, M.D., Ph.D.

              Normal NADH

              Myopathy with lobulated fibers

              Central core myopathy

              Multiminicore myopathy

              Nemaline rod myopathy

              Target fibers


              Myopathy with tubular aggregates

              Necklace fibers

              Ragged blue fibers

              Dermatomyositis perifascicular atrophy

              Myofibrillar myopathy

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1

              In which type of myopathy is this characteristic pattern of injury typically seen by NADH-TR histochemistry?

              1. Central core disease (type I fibers with central cores)
              2. Debranching enzyme deficiency (ring fibers)
              3. Dermatomyositis (perifasicular atrophy)
              4. Mitochondrial myopathy (ragged blue fibers)
              5. Tubular aggregate myopathy (tubular aggregates)
              Board review style answer #1
              D. Mitochondrial myopathy (ragged blue fibers)

              Comment Here

              Reference: NADH

              Napsin A
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • Usually positive (cytoplasmic) in lung adenocarcinomas and clear cell carcinomas of the gynecologic tract while negative in the primary differentials of these entities
              • Clear cell carcinomas often have focal or rare staining (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:989, Hum Pathol 2015;46:957)
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              • Aids in histotype classification of primary lung tumors
              • Aids in histotype classification of gynecologic tumors when clear cell carcinoma is in the differential
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Nick Baniak, M.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
              Lung resection, adenocarcinoma

              Lung resection, adenocarcinoma

              Lung resection, adenocarcinoma

              Lung resection, adenocarcinoma staining

              Lung resection, adenocarcinoma

              Lung biopsy, adenocarcinoma

              Lung biopsy, adenocarcinoma staining

              Lung biopsy, adenocarcinoma staining


              Ovarian clear cell carcinoma

              Ovarian clear cell carcinoma

              Ovarian clear cell carcinoma staining

              Ovarian clear cell carcinoma staining

              External on slide control kidney

              External on slide control kidney

              External on slide control lung

              External on slide control lung

              Lung adenocarcinoma

              Lung adenocarcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Sample pathology report
              • Right ovary and fallopian tube, salpingo-oophorectomy:
                • Ovarian clear cell carcinoma
                • Fallopian tube, negative for tumor
                • Immunohistochemistry performed shows the following staining profile in the lesional cells:
                  • Positive: Napsin A, AMACR
                  • Negative: ER
                  • Wild type staining: p53
              Board review style question #1

              A 64 year old woman presented with an ovarian mass shown in the Napsin A stained image above. What diagnosis does this staining reaction support?

              1. Clear cell carcinoma
              2. Endometrioid carcinoma
              3. High grade serous carcinoma
              4. Mucinous carcinoma
              Board review style answer #1
              A. Clear cell carcinoma

              Comment Here

              Reference: Napsin A

              NB84 (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              NCCT (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              NeuN
              Definition / general
              • Nuclear protein (neuronal nuclear antigen) widely expressed in mature postmitotic neurons and used as a biomarker for neurons (Wikipedia)
              • Is the FOX3 gene product (J Neurosci Methods 2005;148:26)
              • Considered a marker of neuronal differentiation in brain tumors; present in all major subtypes except pilocytic astrocytoma
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              Section of cortex

              Missing Image

              Middle temporal gyral neocortex

              Missing Image

              Neuronal density changes

              Missing Image

              Changes in neuronal size

              Missing Image

              Neuropathological features

              Positive staining - normal
              • Mature postmitotic neurons
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining

              Neuron specific enolase (NSE)
              Definition / general
              • Cytoplasmic enzyme expressed by neuroendocrine cells and tumors, including poorly differentiated neuroendocrine tumors, which usually are negative for other neuroendocrine markers
              • Despite its name, is often not specific for neuroendocrine cells / tumors
              • Enolases are widely distributed glycolytic enzymes that catalyze the interconversion of 2-phosphoglycerate and phosphophenolpyruvate
              • NSE refers to the gamma-gamma and alpha-gamma isoenzymes preferentially found in neurons and neuroendocrine cells
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              Pheochromocytoma

              Positive staining - normal
              • Neurons, neuroendocrine cells
              Positive staining - disease
              • Neuroectodermal and neuroendocrine neoplasms
              • Melanomas

              NF1 / NF2
              Definition / general
              • NF1, neurofibromin 1, is a tumor suppressor gene found on chromosome 17q11.2 which negatively regulates RAS signaling
              • NF1 increases the intrinsic GTPase activity of the RAS enzyme which leads to inactivation
              • If an NF1 mutation causes subsequent inactivation, it leads to an increase in RAS activity (Cancer Discov 2013;3:260)
              • In melanocytes, the NF1 protein regulates differentiation and development (J Cell Sci 2008;121:167)
              Neurofibromatosis type 1
              • Heterogeneous mutations seen in neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), the most common autosomal dominant inherited disorder in humans (1 per 3000)
                • Disorder characterized by benign tumors of peripheral nerves, cafe au lait spots, retinal hamartomas
                • Also increased risk of malignancy, gastrointestinal stromal tumors (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:1170)
              NF2
              • Tumor suppressor protein at 22q11-13.1
              • Produces protein called merlin or schannomin
              • Deleted in soft tissue perineurioma
              • Both copies inactivated in up to 60% of sporadic meningiomas
              • Often no protein expression in schwannoma
              • May be involved in tumorigenesis of schwannoma and some meningiomas
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image Missing Image

              NF1 pathway

              Mutations
              • Many different types of NF1 mutations have been described including frameshift, missense, nonsense, splicing and deletion mutations
              • An inactivating mutation of the NF1 gene leads to RAS activation (Monogr Hum Genet 2008;16:63)
              Clinical features
              • While classically NF1 is associated with an increase in numerous neoplasms, both benign and malignant, NF1 is not associated with an increased risk of melanoma
              • There is, however, a well known strong association with pigmentation aberrations (cafe au lait spots, ephelides, etc.) in patients with NF1 germline mutations (Cancer Discov 2013;3:260)
              Detection methods
              • Comprehensive testing using RNA / cDNA core assay with copy number analysis is the preferred method, as it is more sensitive and specific (Monogr Hum Genet 2008;16:63)
              • DNA based sequence analysis is also used
              • Other techniques can be used if either a complex or rare mutation is present (total gene mutations, multiple deletions, multiple duplications) (UAB: Neurofibromatosis Type 1 [Accessed 23 April 2021])
              Inhibitor therapy
              Mechanisms of resistance
              • NF1 mutations in BRAF mutated melanocytes has been shown to decrease the response of these melanocytes to RAF inhibitor therapy (PLX4720, the precursor molecule of vemurafenib) (Cancer Discov 2013;3:260, Cancer Res 2014;74:2340)
              • One study demonstrated a response to MEK inhibition in melanocytes containing both BRAF and NF1 mutations (Cancer Res 2014;74:2340)

              NFP / neurofilament
              Definition / general
              • Major cytoskeletal element in nerve axons and dendrites
              • Consist of three distinct polypeptides, the neurofilament triplet
              • Metabolism appears to be disturbed in Alzheimer's disease, as indicated by the presence of neurofilament epitopes in the neurofibrillary tangles, and by severe reduction of gene expression for the light neurofilament subunit of the neurofilament triplet in brains of Alzheimer's patients
              Positive staining - normal
              • Neuronal cells
              Positive staining - disease
              • Central neurocytoma
              • Neuroblastoma
              • Medulloblastoma
              • Retinoblastoma
              • Merkel cell tumor of skin
              • Pancreatic endocrine neoplasms
              • Carcinoid tumors
              • Parathyroid tumors

              NGFR / p75 (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              NKX2.2 (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              (pending)

              NKX3.1
              Definition / general
              • NKX3.1 is a 234 amino acid transcription factor protein that is expressed in the prostate
              • Important in development of prostate epithelium and ducts
              • Expression is regulated in an androgen specific manner
              Essential features
              • NKX3.1 can generally be used as a diagnostic biomarker for prostate cancer and other metastatic lesions originating in the prostate
              • Reduction in NKX3.1 expression is commonly reported in human prostate carcinomas and prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN) due to allelic loss, promoter methylation and posttranscriptional silencing (Differentiation 2008;76:717)
              • The human NKX3.1 gene is located on chromosome 8p21, which undergoes loss of heterozygosity (LOH) with increasing frequency during the progression of prostate cancer
              Terminology
              • NK3 homeobox 1
              • Homeobox protein NK3 homolog A
              • NKX3.1
              • NKX3A
              • NK3 transcription factor related, locus 1 (Drosophila)
              • NK3 transcription factor related, locus 1
              • NK homeobox (Drosophila), family 3, A
              • NK3 transcription factor homolog A
              • NK homeobox, family 3, A
              • Homeobox protein NKX-3.1
              • BAPX2
              • NKX3
              • Reference: GeneCards: NKX3-1 Gene [Accessed 24 February 2021]
              Pathophysiology
              • NKX3.1 gene encodes a transcription factor of the homeobox family
              • During prostate development, NKX3.1 is expressed in an androgen dependent manner and regulates the formation of prostatic epithelium and ducts (Int J Stem Cells 2021;14:168)
              • While NKX3.1 is not a tumor suppressor gene per se, experimental and clinical evidence strongly associates it with the development and progression of prostate cancer:
                • Large genome wide association studies have identified NKX3.1 as a prostate cancer susceptibility gene (Nat Genet 2009;41:1116, Nat Genet 2010;42:751)
                • Deletion of 1 or both alleles of NKX3.1 in mice leads to the development of preinvasive lesions that resemble human PIN (Mol Cell Biol 2002;22:1495)
                • The human NKX3.1 gene is located on chromosome 8p21, which undergoes LOH in 40% of prostatic adenocarcinomas (Cancer Cell 2010;18:11)
                • The frequency at which NKX3.1 expression is reduced increases with progression from PIN to metastatic disease (Cancer Res 2000;60:6111)
                • LOH of NKX3.1 in prostate cancer patients is associated with increased genetic instability and increased likelihood of relapse following treatment (Clin Cancer Res 2012;18:308)
                • Loss of NKX3.1 sets the stage for accumulation of further oncogenic mutations in genes such as CDKN1B, TP53 and PTEN (Cell 2013;153:666)
                • In mice with targeted disruption of PTEN or CDKN1B, loss of one or both alleles of NKX3.1 results in aggressive prostate tumorigenesis (Cancer Res 2003;63:3886, Am J Pathol 2004;164:1607)
                • In mice, a lineage of castration resistant, NKX3.1 expressing cells are stem cells capable of initiating prostate cancer (Nature 2009;461:495)
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Debra Zynger, M.D.

              Prostate needle cores with prostatic adenocarcinoma

              Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma to bone



              Contributed by Grzegorz Gurda, M.D., Ph.D.

              Prostatic adenocarcinoma, Gleason 3 + 3, 90% staining

              Nodular hyperplasia (BPH)

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              • Prostatic adenocarcinoma (Prostate 2003;55:111, Am J Surg Pathol 2007;31:1246)
              • There is some controversy with respect to the expression of NKX3.1 in EWSR1-NFATc2 fusion positive sarcoma and mesenchymal chondrosarcoma:
                • 1 group demonstrated positive expression in both tumor types:
                  • EWSR1-NFATc2 sarcoma, 9/11 cases (82%); for mesenchymal chondrosarcoma, 12/12 cases (100%), using a rabbit polyclonal antibody (Athena) (Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:719)
                • The same group supported these findings in a separate study with further staining and RNA expression assays
                  • EWSR1-NFATc2 sarcoma, 3/3 cases (100%); for mesenchymal chondrosarcoma, 10/10 cases (100%), using a rabbit monoclonal antibody (clone EP356, Cell Marque) (Am J Surg Pathol 2021;45:578)
                • A separate group demonstrated positive expression in mesenchymal chondrosarcoma: 9/12 cases (75%), using a rabbit monoclonal antibody (clone EP356, Cell Marque) (Pathology 2021;S0031)
                • 2 other groups, however, were unable to reproduce these findings
                  • EWSR1-NFATc2 and FUS-NFATc2 sarcomas: 0/6 cases (0%), using a rabbit monoclonal antibody (clone EP356, Cell Marque) (Mod Pathol 2020;33:1930)
                  • Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma: 0/25 cases (0%), using both a rabbit polyclonal antibody (Athena) and a rabbit monoclonal antibody (clone EP356, Cell Marque) (Histopathology 2021;78:334)
                • The use of NKX3.1 staining in characterization of these tumor types should be applied with caution and ideally with excellent immunohistochemical controls
              • May be expressed in Skene gland derivative tumors of the female urethra, such as adenoid basal carcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:1513, Int J Gynecol Pathol 2021;40:400)
              • Reports of expression in salivary duct carcinoma:
                • Variable staining, 15/42 cases (35.7%), using a mouse monoclonal antibody (A02709, Boster Biological) (Pathobiology 2020;87:30)
                • Focal staining, 3/23 cases (13%), using a rabbit monoclonal antibody (EP356, Cell Marque) (Hum Pathol 2019;84:173)
              • Testicular Sertoli cell tumors (1/4, 25% of cases) (Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:61)
              • Sertoli component of ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors (1/12, 8% of cases) (Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:61)
              • May be seen in invasive lobular breast carcinoma (27%), metastatic lobular breast carcinoma (25%), invasive ductal breast carcinoma (2 - 9%) and metastatic ductal breast carcinoma (5%) (J Clin Pathol 2014;67:768, Prostate 2003;55:111)
              • Primary adenocarcinoma of the trachea of presumptively mucinous origin (Pathol Res Pract 2018;214:796)
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following would be expected to exhibit the weakest staining for NKX3.1?

              1. Bladder adenocarcinoma
              2. Normal prostatic epithelium
              3. Primary prostate adenocarcinoma
              4. Prostate carcinoma nodal metastasis
              5. Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN)
              Board review style answer #1
              A. Bladder adenocarcinoma. NKX3.1 staining is typically limited to prostate (benign and malignant) and some breast carcinomas.

              Comment Here

              Reference: NKX3.1

              Nonspecific esterase
              Definition / general
              • Enzyme histochemical stain that relies on endogenous esterase activity to hydrolyze exogenous alpha naphthyl acetate substrate, which yields naphthol, a reddish brown product visible under light microscopy
              Essential features
              • Routinely used in skeletal muscle biopsies to detect macrophages, myophagocytosis and denervated myofibers
              • Differentiates macrophages (positive) from lymphocytic inflammation (negative) in muscle biopsies
              • Also highlights neuromuscular junctions and myotendinous junctions in normal skeletal muscle
              • Used in hematopathology to differentiate the monocytic lineage (strongly positive) from the lymphoid and other myeloid lineage cell types (weak punctate or negative)
              Terminology
              • Other names: alpha naphthyl acetate, alpha naphthyl butyrate esterase
              • Note: the abbreviation NSE also refers to neuron specific enolase
              Interpretation
              • Cytoplasmic
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Staining pattern varies depending on structure highlighted
                • Macrophages: strong cytoplasmic (lysosomes)
                  • Macrophage associated with myophagocytosis are located within the sarcoplasm of myofibers
                  • Macrophages associated with inflammatory myositis are typically located outside myofibers in the perimysial or endomysial connective tissue (Curr Protoc Immunol 2001;Appendix 3)
                • Neuromuscular junction: strong, discrete, subsarcolemmal, clustered around intramuscular nerve (Histochem J 1998;30:7)
                • Denervated myofibers: weak diffuse sarcoplasmic (J Neurol Sci 1975;26:133)
                • Myotendinous junction: irregular linear (Neuromuscul Disord 1996;6:211)
                • Slightly darker in type I than in type II muscle fibers (J Anat 1988;157:79)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Chunyu "Hunter" Cai, M.D., Ph.D. and Genevieve M. Crane, M.D., Ph.D.

              Neuromuscular junction

              Myotendinous junction

              Myophagocytosis

              Rhabdomyolysis

              Denervated myofibers


              Inflammatory myositis

              Macrophagic myofasciitis

              Missing Image Missing Image

              NSE highlights blasts of monocytic origin

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining - disease
              Board review style question #1

              Which of the following correctly describes the finding in the pictured nonspecific esterase stained muscle?

              1. Denervation
              2. Myophagocytosis
              3. Myotendinous junction
              4. Neuromuscular junction
              5. Type II atrophy
              Board review style answer #1
              A. Denervation

              Comment Here

              Reference: Nonspecific esterase

              NPM1
              Definition / general
              • Nucleophosmin (NPM1) is located on chromosome 5q35.1 and encodes a multifunctional protein predominantly located in the nucleolus but with shuttling capability to the nucleus and cytoplasm
              • Mutations in NPM1 are associated with myeloid neoplasms, namely acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
              Essential features
              • Multifunctional protein participating in multiple cellular processes
              • NPM1 mutated AML is recognized as a genetically defined entity in the 2017 World Health Organization (WHO) classification of hematopoietic neoplasms
              • Aberrant cytoplasmic staining by immunohistochemistry (IHC) is a surrogate that strongly supports underlying NPM1 mutation
              • NPM1 is involved in the t(2;5)(p23;q35) NPM1::ALK translocation in anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL)
              Terminology
              • NPM1, nucleophosmin 1, nucleophosmin, nucleolar phosphoprotein B23, numatrin
              Pathophysiology
              • NPM1 is a multifunctional protein taking part in (Biochem Res Int 2011;2011:195209, Int J Mol Sci 2021;22:10040)
                • Ribosome biogenesis
                • Histone chaperoning
                • Centrosome duplication
                • DNA repair
                • Chromatin remodeling
                • RNA helix destabilizing activity
                • Regulation of alternative reading frame (ARF) p53 tumor suppressor pathway
                • Inhibition of caspase activated DNase
                • Prevents apoptosis when located in the nucleolus
              • NPM1 is predominantly located in the nucleolus but with shuttling capability to the nucleus and cytoplasm (Blood 2020;136:1707, Haematologica 2007;92:519)
              • NPM1 mutation is likely related to errors during DNA replication that are stimulated by improper activity of terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (Leuk Res 2020;99:106462)
              • Exon 12 alterations can cause a change in the position of nucleophosmin within the cell (Leukemia 2017;31:798)
                • More recently, novel non-exon 12 NPM1 mutations, such as exon 5 mutations, also reinforce nucleophosmin cytoplasmic relocation as critical for leukemogenesis (Blood 2021;138:2696)
              • NPM1 mutation stimulates elevated HOXA and HOXB gene expression (Cancer Cell 2018;34:499)
              • FLT3, DNMT3A and IDH1 / 2 genes are frequently mutated in conjunction with NPM1 (Am J Hematol 2019;94:913, J Hematol Oncol 2008;1:10)
              • NPM1 mutation in a context of clonal hematopoiesis of undetermined significance harboring a DNMT3A mutation can progress to a myeloproliferative neoplasm (Leukemia 2019;33:1635)
              • NPM1 can fuse with ALK in the t(2;5)(p23;q35) chromosome translocation in ALCL (Haematologica 2007;92:519)
              Clinical features
              • NPM1 mutations are frequently observed genetic abnormalities in AML, occurring in ~35% of all AML cases and in 50 - 60% of cases with normal karyotype (Blood 2020;136:1707, Leukemia 2022;36:2351, Blood Rev 2018;32:167)
              • NPM1 mutated AML is strongly associated with myelomonocytic and monocytic morphology (Blood 2007;109:874)
              • NPM1 mutations in AML are useful for measurable residual disease (MRD) monitoring due to frequency, stability at relapse and absence in subjects with clonal hematopoiesis (Int J Mol Sci 2018;19:3492, Blood 2021;138:2602)
              • NPM1 mutations correlate with age, showing higher incidence as age increases (Hematol Oncol 2009;27:171)
              • In pediatric AML cases, the frequency of NPM1 mutations (7.6%) is lower than observed in adult AML (25.4 - 41%)
                • In the pediatric group, NPM1 mutations independently predicted better outcomes, including cases with FLT3 / ITD mutations (Blood Cancer J 2020;10:1)
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              • Aberrant cytoplasmic staining by IHC can be used as a surrogate supporting NPM1 mutation
              • IHC is typically performed in AML with monocytic and myelomonocytic phenotype, as well as in myeloid sarcoma
              • NPM1 can be identified through FISH probes when detecting NPM1::ALK fusion / translocation in anaplastic large cell lymphoma (Cancers (Basel) 2021;13:144)
              Prognostic factors
              • In AML, mutated NPM1 in the context of normal karyotype and absence of FLT3 internal tandem duplication mutation has a more favorable prognosis (Dis Markers 2013;35:581)
              • Multilineage dysplasia has no prognostic impact in NPM1 mutated AML (Blood 2010;115:3776)
              • Prognostic biomarker in gastric cancer, in which NPM1 high expression groups are associated with a better overall survival rate (Neoplasma 2022;69:965)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Leonie Frauenfeld, M.D.
              NPM1 wild type AML

              NPM1 wild type AML

              NPM1 mutated AML NPM1 mutated AML

              NPM1 mutated AML

              Positive staining - normal
              • Normal tissues (ubiquitous nuclear expression)
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • NPM1 expression is heterogeneous in gastric tumors (BMC Gastroenterol 2014;14:9)
                • Downregulation may have a role in gastric carcinogenesis
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              Sample pathology report
              • Bone marrow, trephine biopsy:
                • NPM1 mutated acute myeloid leukemia (see comment)
                • Comment: Hypercellular bone marrow for age involved by acute myeloid leukemia. Increase of immature cells with myelomonocytic differentiation is seen. NPM1 immunohistochemistry shows aberrant nuclear and cytoplasmic positivity, supporting the notion of an underlying mutation ultimately confirmed by molecular analysis.
              Board review style question #1

              Which of the following myeloid cell staining patterns strongly supports an underlying NPM1 mutation?

              1. Golgi staining
              2. Loss of expression
              3. Membrane staining
              4. Nuclear and cytoplasmic staining
              5. Strictly nuclear staining
              Board review style answer #1
              D. Nuclear and cytoplasmic staining. NPM1 is predominantly located in the nucleolus but has shuttling capability to the nucleus and cytoplasm. Nuclear and aberrant cytoplasmic NPM1 expression in neoplastic cells supports an underlying NPM1 mutation. Answers A and C are incorrect because NPM1 mutation leads to enhanced cytoplasmic staining, not Golgi or membrane staining. Answer B is incorrect because NPM1 is still detectable even if mutated. Answer E is incorrect because strictly nuclear staining is considered normal.

              Comment Here

              Reference: NPM1
              Board review style question #2
              Which of the following morphologies is NPM1 mutated AML most frequently associated with?

              1. Erythroblastic
              2. Megakaryoblastic
              3. Monocytic and myelomonocytic
              4. Myeloid
              5. Undifferentiated
              Board review style answer #2
              C. Monocytic and myelomonocytic. NPM1 mutated AML is strongly associated with myelomonocytic and monocytic morphology (Blood 2007;109:874).

              Comment Here

              Reference: NPM1

              NR4A3
              Definition / general
              • Protein coding gene involved in various physiological processes, including cell proliferation, differentiation and metabolism (Nat Commun 2019;10:368)
              • Highly sensitive immunohistochemical marker for detecting acinic cell carcinoma of salivary gland (Head Neck Pathol 2021;15:425)
              Essential features
              • Enhancer hijacking leads to upregulation of NR4A3, which is the oncogenic driver event in acinic cell carcinoma of the salivary gland
              • NR4A3 positive immunohistochemistry is a sensitive and specific finding in acinic cell carcinoma of the salivary gland (J Oral Maxillofac Res 2021;12:e4)
              • Recurrent translocations of NR4A3 and EWSR1 result in a fusion gene, which is the defining feature of extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma of soft tissue (Nat Commun 2019;10:368)
              Terminology
              • NOR1 (neuron derived orphan receptor 1)
              Pathophysiology
              • Nuclear receptor subfamily 4, group A (NR4A) proteins are transcription factors that directly modulate gene expression or combine with other factors to repress transmission (Nat Commun 2019;10:368)
              • NR4A subfamily comprises 3 members: nerve growth factor induced gene B (NGFI B / Nur77 or NR4A1), nuclear receptor related protein 1 (Nurr1 or NR4A2) and neuron derived orphan receptor 1 (NOR1 or NR4A3) (Int J Mol Sci 2021;22:11371)
              • They are considered orphan receptors as no known ligand has been identified; instead, they appear to be regulated by other mechanisms, such as posttranslational modification and protein - protein interactions (Biochim Biophys Acta 2014;1843:2543)
              • NR4A3 plays a role in T cell development through regulating apoptosis (EMBO J 1997;16:1865)
              • Expression of NR4A3 in vascular endothelial and smooth muscle cells as well as macrophages and other inflammatory cells appear to play a role in cardiovascular remodeling (Int J Mol Sci 2021;22:11371, Cardiovasc Res 2005;65:609)
              Clinical features
              • Acinic cell carcinomas harbor recurrent and specific rearrangements [t(4;9)(q13;q31)] that bring active enhancer regions from the secretory calcium binding phosphoproteins (SCPP) gene cluster in close proximity to the transcription start site (TSS) of transcription factor NR4A3 at 9q31 (Nat Commun 2019;10:368)
              • This leads to upregulation of the NR4A3 gene
              • This process is known as enhancer hijacking: a chromosomal rearrangement results in the translocation of an active enhancer that alters the expression of a gene that is not their original target (Trends Mol Med 2021;27:1060)
              • NR4A3 immunohistochemistry has been found to be a sensitive marker for salivary gland acinic cell carcinoma (J Oral Maxillofac Res 2021;12:e4)
              • The defining oncogenic driver event in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma of soft tissue is a recurrent translocation [t(9;22)(q31;q12)] that creates a fusion gene comprised of NR4A3 and EWSR1 (Nat Commun 2019;10:368)
              • However, NR4A3 immunohistochemistry is not sensitive for the diagnosis of extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma and therefore is not clinically useful (Am J Surg Pathol 2019;43:1726)
              • Reason for a lack of NR4A3 positivity in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma has been proposed
                • It is noted that in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma, the gene rearrangements lead to the creation of fusion oncogenes and the expression of novel fusion onocoproteins, rather than upregulation of the NR4A3 gene through enhancer hijacking
                • Epitope identified by the H7 mouse monoclonal antibody used in the study may be expressed differently in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma associated fusion oncoproteins, hence the lack of staining in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2019;43:1726)
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear staining
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Strong and diffuse nuclear staining in acinic cell carcinoma of salivary gland
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Sapna Balgobind, M.B.B.Ch. and Veronica Cheung, M.Ch.D.
              Serous acinar differentiation

              Serous acinar differentiation

              Zymogen granules

              Zymogen granules

              Poorly differentiated acinic cell carcinoma

              Poorly differentiated acinic cell carcinoma

              NR4A3 positive nuclear staining

              NR4A3 positive nuclear staining

              NR4A3 immunohistochemical stain NR4A3 immunohistochemical stain

              NR4A3 immunohistochemical stain

              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
              • Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT PCR)
                • EWSR1::NR4A3 fusion can be detected by RT PCR in the majority of extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma cases (Hum Pathol 2014;45:1084)
                • Smaller proportion of extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma cases show NR4A3 fused to other gene partners, including TAF15, TCF12 and TFG (Hum Pathol 2014;45:1084)
              Molecular / cytogenetics images

              Contributed by Sapna Balgobind, M.B.B.Ch. and Veronica Cheung, M.Ch.D.
              Rearrangement present

              Rearrangement present

              Sample pathology report
              • Salivary gland, resection:
                • Acinic cell carcinoma (see comment)
                • Comment: Sections from salivary gland show a tumor composed of cells with serous acinar differentiation and distinct zymogen granules. The tumor cells show diffuse strong positive nuclear staining for NR4A3 on immunohistochemistry.
              Board review style question #1

              What type of staining would be expected on NR4A3 immunohistochemistry in acinic cell carcinomas?

              1. Cytoplasmic staining
              2. Membranous staining
              3. No staining
              4. Nuclear and cytoplasmic staining
              5. Strong nuclear staining
              Board review style answer #1
              E. NR4A3 shows strong nuclear staining in acinic cell carcinomas. Answers A - D are incorrect because the other staining patterns listed are not compatible with what is seen in NR4A3 immunohistochemistry.

              Comment Here

              Reference: NR4A3
              Board review style question #2
              What is the mechanism by which NR4A3 is upregulated in acinic cell carcinomas in the salivary gland?

              1. Enhancer deletion
              2. Enhancer hijacking
              3. Enhancer methylation
              4. Enhancer misregulation
              5. Enhancer mutation
              Board review style answer #2
              B. Enhancer hijacking. The chromosomal rearrangement t(4;9)(q13;q31) results in the translocation of the active enhancer, which leads to upregulation of the target gene. Answers A and C - E are incorrect because the other mechanisms of action listed are not the cause of NR4A3 upregulation in acinic cell carcinomas.

              Comment Here

              Reference: NR4A3

              NUTM1
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • Diagnosis of NUT carcinoma and other NUT rearranged neoplasms is predicated on immunohistochemical demonstration of nuclear NUT staining (or molecular confirmation of NUTM1 rearrangement)
              • NUT is expressed in a subset of germ cell tumors (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:984)
              • Normal overexpression of this biomarker is limited to testicular and ovarian germ cells (Cancer Res 2003;63:304, Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:984)
              Pathophysiology
              • Function of the NUT protein may relate to promoting histone H4 hyperacetylation during spermatogenesis (Cell Rep 2018;24:3477)
              • NUT carcinoma is characterized by the fusion of NUTM1 with another gene (e.g., BRD4, BRD3 or NSD3, among others); these proteins bind acetylated chromatin
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Brendan C. Dickson, M.D., M.Sc.
              Abrupt keratinization

              Abrupt keratinization

              Necrosis

              Necrosis

              Morphologically undifferentiated

              Morphologically undifferentiated

              Diffuse p63 expression with even / uniform pattern

              Diffuse p63 expression with even / uniform pattern

              Diffuse NUT with speckled pattern

              Diffuse NUT with speckled pattern

              AE1 / AE3

              AE1 / AE3

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Normal:
                • Breast
                • Large intestine
                • Liver (minority of cases may contain cytoplasmic and nuclear blush)
                • Lung
                • Prostate
                • Thymus
                • Tonsil (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:984)
              • Disease:
                • Adenocarcinoma, NOS
                • Ewing sarcoma
                • Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
                • Neuroblastoma
                • Renal cell carcinoma
                • Rhabdomyosarcoma
                • Rhabdoid tumor
                • Serous carcinoma
                • Sinonasal undifferentiated carcinoma
                • Small cell carcinoma
                • Squamous cell carcinoma, NOS
                • Urothelial carcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:984)
              Sample pathology report
              • Immunohistochemical analysis of NUTM1 expression (clone, dilution, automated staining platform*):
                • The tissue staining pattern is positive nuclear / negative.*
                • Positive and negative controls stain appropriately.
              • * Details to be specified / confirmed upon reporting stain
              Board review style question #1

              A mediastinal mass is biopsied and shows a morphologically undifferentiated carcinoma. Which of the following staining patterns would be most consistent with classification as NUT carcinoma?

              1. Cytoplasmic expression in < 90% of cells with a speckled pattern
              2. Cytoplasmic expression in < 90% of cells with an even / uniform pattern
              3. Nuclear expression in > 90% of cells with a speckled pattern
              4. Nuclear expression in > 90% of cells with an even / uniform pattern
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Nuclear expression in > 90% of cells with a speckled pattern. In NUT carcinoma, most tumor cells are positive for this biomarker, which is expressed in the nucleus with a speckled distribution. In contrast, germ cell tumors often have only focal tumor staining, which is expressed in the nucleus with an even / uniform distribution.

              Comment Here

              Reference: NUTM1

              OCT 3/4
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • Marker of germ cells, not expressed in somatic tissues
              • Strong diffuse nuclear expression seen in seminoma (dysgerminoma) and embryonal carcinoma components of germ cell neoplasia, including metastatic disease
              • Can be expressed focally in advanced epithelial and lymphatic malignancy
              Terminology
              Pathophysiology
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear staining, typically intense and diffuse
              • Cytoplasmic only staining in non germ cell derived tumors
              Uses by pathologists
              • Marker for primary and metastatic germ cell derived tumors of the testis and ovary and extragonadal sites
              • Highly sensitive and specific for primary intracranial germinomas (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:368)
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Monika Ulamec, M.D., Ph.D., Debra Zynger, M.D. and Epitomics
              Missing Image

              Normal seminiferous ducts

              Missing Image

              In situ germ cell neoplasia

              Missing Image

              Seminoma

              Missing Image

              Embryonal carcinoma


              Seminoma: H&E

              Seminoma:
              OCT 3/4

              GCNIS:
              OCT 3/4

              Missing Image

              Seminoma:
              OCT 3/4

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1
                Which of the following testicular germ cell tumors consistently stain with OCT 3/4?

              1. Choriocarcinoma
              2. Embryonal carcinoma
              3. Immature teratoma
              4. Mature teratoma
              5. Yolk sac tumor
              Board review style answer #1
              B. Embryonal carcinoma

              Comment Here

              Reference: OCT 3/4

              OCT2
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • B cell restricted transcription factor
              • Encoded by the gene POU2F2
              • Binds to an octamer DNA motif 5'-ATGCAAAT-3'
              • Essential for B cell maturation and immunoglobulin production
              Terminology
              • Octamer binding protein 2 (OCT2)
              Pathophysiology
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Electromobility shift and supershift analysis (OCT2)

              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              • OCT2 immunostaining demonstrates nuclear expression
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Positive cells should demonstrate a moderate to strong nuclear staining pattern
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Sawsan Ismail, M.D. and John Yahya I. Elshimali, M.D.
              Diffuse large B cell lymphoma Diffuse large B cell lymphoma Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

              Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

              Marginal zone lymphoma Marginal zone lymphoma

              Marginal zone lymphoma


              Lymphoblastic lymphoma Lymphoblastic lymphoma

              Lymphoblastic lymphoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              Molecular / cytogenetics images

              Contributed by John Yahya I. Elshimali, M.D.
              Structure of OCT2 transcription factor

              Structure of OCT2 transcription factor

              Sample pathology report
              • Axillary lymph node, excisional biopsy:
                • Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (see comment)
                • Comment: The biopsy shows total replacement of the nodal architecture by expansive, vague nodules of small lymphocytes with sparse, relatively large tumor cells (LP cells) with multilobulated or round nucleus, a thin nuclear membrane, finely granular chromatin and variable small nucleoli (popcorn cells); the background shows numerous small B lymphocytes, epithelioid histiocytes and CD21+ follicular dendritic cells. The LP cells are immunoreactive for CD45 (LCA), CD20, CD19, BCL6, OCT2 (clone EP115), BOB.1 and PU.1 and are negative for CD3, CD15 and CD30. The morphologic and immunophenotypic findings are in support of the diagnosis.
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following statements regarding OCT2 is true?

              1. Decreased expression is associated with poor prognosis in multiple myeloma
              2. OCT2 demonstrates positive nuclear expression in nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
              3. OCT2 is used in the differential diagnosis of breast cancer
              4. OCT2.2 is the major isoform and is encoded by variant 3
              Board review style answer #1
              B. OCT2 demonstrates positive nuclear expression in nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma. Increased expression is associated with poor prognosis in multiple myeloma. OCT2.1 is the major isoform and is encoded by variant 2. OCT2 is used in the differential diagnosis of Hodgkin lymphomas.

              Comment Here

              Reference: OCT2

              Oil red O
              Definition / general
              • Oil red O is a fat soluble, hydrophobic diazo dye that stains neutral fat, fatty acids and triglycerides (Histochemistry 1992;97:493)
                • Maximum absorption at 518 nm; appears red under light microscopy
              • Unlike Sudan black, oil red O stains poorly for complex phospholipids and glycolipids that have polar groups, meaning it does not stain myelin / peripheral nerve or biological membranes
              • In order to highlight fat droplets, oil red O staining needs to be performed on fresh or frozen tissue; paraffin embedding or alcohol based fixation removes most neutral lipids
              Essential features
              Terminology
              • IUPAC name: 1-(2,5-dimethyl-4-(2,5-dimethylphenyl) phenyldiazenyl) azonapthalen-2-ol
              • Chemical formula: C26H24N4O
              Interpretation
              • Red cytoplasmic / sarcoplasmic stain in muscle biopsy
              • In fat emboli, red staining fat globules in the lumen of capillaries
              Uses by pathologists
              Frozen section images

              Contributed by Robert E. Schmidt, M.D., Ph.D.
              Fat embolism brain

              Fat embolism brain

              Fat embolism kidney

              Fat embolism kidney

              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Chunyu "Hunter" Cai, M.D., Ph.D.
              Normal muscle

              Normal muscle

              Carnitine deficiency

              Carnitine deficiency

              MADD

              MADD

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Sample pathology report
              • Right quadriceps, biopsy:
                • Lipid storage myopathy (see comment)
                • Comment: The morphologic features of this biopsy are those of a lipid storage myopathy and include conspicuous vacuolar change, staining of the vacuoles in the oil red O stain and excess sarcoplasmic lipid vacuoles by ultrastructural examination. The cause of the lipid accumulation is not apparent in this biopsy. The differential diagnosis of adult onset lipid storage myopathy include primary and secondary carnitine deficiency, as well as a number of rarer entities including multiple acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, lipin 1 deficiency, neutral lipid storage disease with ichthyosis and neutral lipid storage disease with myopathy. Serum carnitine and acylcarnitine analyses, as well as urine organic acid analysis may be of additional diagnostic value. Cardiomyopathy and fatty liver disease should be ruled out by appropriate clinical means.
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following special stains can be used to highlight both lipid droplets and myelin in muscle biopsies?

              1. Gomori trichrome
              2. Oil red O
              3. Sudan black
              4. Verhoeff van Gieson (VVG) stain
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Sudan black. Gomori trichrome can stain myelin red but does not stain lipid. Oil red O stains lipid red but does not stain myelin. VVG stains elastin and myelin but not lipid.

              Comment Here

              Reference: Oil red O

              OLD Myeloperoxidase
              Definition / general
              • Staining is either immunohistochemistry (IHC) or enzyme cytochemistry - enzyme cytochemistry is most sensitive and specific stain for myeloid leukemias and granulocytic sarcoma
              • Stains neutrophils strongly (diffuse granular pattern), other granulocytes variably
              Positive staining - normal
              • Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes (variable), AML-M1, M2, microgranular M3
              • Granulocytic sarcoma
              Negative staining
              • Lymphocytes, ALL

              Olig2
              Definition / general
              Clinical features
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              Pediatric glioblastoma

              Missing Image

              Pediatric ependymoma

              Missing Image

              Pediatric glioma, KI-67

              Missing Image

              Pilocytic astrocytomas

              Positive staining - disease
              • Adult gliomas: diffuse (nearly all)
              • Glioblastoma variants:
                • Giant cell (67%)
                • Gliosarcoma (93% in glial component, 14% in sarcomatous component)
                • Granular cell (100%)
                • Small cell (98%), with oligodendroglial component (100%), with PNET-like foci (74%, staining in PNET-like foci) (Mod Pathol 2013;26:315)
                Pediatric gliomas: pilocytic astrocytoma, diffuse-type astrocytic tumors (WHO grades II-IV) (J Neurooncol 2011;104:423)
              • Glioneuronal tumors: dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor, papillary glioneuronal tumor, rosette-forming glioneuronal tumor of fourth ventricle (Neuropathology 2013;33:246)
              • Oligodendroglioma
              Negative staining

              OSCAR cytokeratin
              Definition / general
              • Also called CK Oscar or Oscar Keratin
              • Interpretation: cytoplasmic staining
              Uses by pathologists
              • Broad spectrum keratin; distinguishes carcinomas from non-epithelial malignancies
              Positive staining - normal
              • Epithelium of bile ducts, bladder (urothelium), breast ducts, bronchi, colorectum, duodenum, endometrium, ileum, ovary, pancreas, prostate, stomach and thyroid
              • Also hepatocytes, pituitary acini and pneumocytes
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Brain, endothelium, lymphocyte, muscle and nerves
              • GIST, lymphoma, melanoma, sarcoma and schwannoma

              OTP (orthopedia) (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              p120 catenin
              Definition / general
              • p120 catenin (along with α, β and γ catenins) connects the transmembrane protein E-cadherin to the actin cytoskeleton in the cell cytoplasm (Histopathology 2016;68:57)
              Essential features
              Pathophysiology
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Debra Zynger, M.D.

              Atypical lobular hyperplasia

              Lobular carcinoma in situ


              Invasive lobular carcinoma

              Invasive ductal carcinoma



              Images hosted on other servers:

              E-cadherin, p120 catenin
              and their cocktail in
              ductal carcinoma in situ

              E-cadherin, p120 catenin
              and their cocktail in
              lobular carcinoma in situ

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - tumors
              Negative staining - normal
              • p120 catenin is generally not completely negative
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Not detected by FISH, PCR or any other molecular methods
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following immunoprofiles is most consistent with invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast?

              1. GATA3-, CK7-, E-cadherin-, p120 catenin diffuse cytoplasmic
              2. GATA3+, CK7+, E-cadherin+, p120 catenin strong membranous
              3. GATA3+, CK7+, E-cadherin-, p120 catenin strong membranous
              4. GATA3+, CK7+, E-cadherin+, p120 catenin diffuse cytoplasmic
              Board review style answer #1
              B. GATA3+, CK7+, E-cadherin+, p120 catenin strong membranous. E-cadherin positivity and strong membranous p120 catenin staining are consistent with ductal carcinoma. Diffuse cytoplasmic p120 catenin staining and absence of E-cadherin would be consistent with lobular carcinoma.

              Comment Here

              Reference: p120 catenin
              Board review style question #2
              A p120 immunostain of a breast proliferation is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?



              1. Atypical ductal hyperplasia
              2. Atypical lobular hyperplasia
              3. Invasive ductal carcinoma
              4. Invasive lobular carcinoma
              Board review style answer #2
              B. Atypical lobular hyperplasia

              Comment Here

              Reference: p120 catenin

              p16
              Definition / general
              • Tumor suppressor protein encoded by CDKN2A gene (9p21.3)
              • Prevents progression into S phase of cell cycle
                • Inhibits cyclin D dependent protein kinases (CDK4 and CDK6) therefore maintaining Rb in its hypophosphorylated state which prevents its dissociation from E2F transcription factor
              • Protein expression often increased in aging cells, which eventually drives cell death and apoptosis (Exp Cell Res 1997;237:7)
              • Protein function is silenced or lost in many non HPV related tumors by epigenetic or genetic abnormalities, including promoter CpG methylation or less commonly by mutations
                • Examples include breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, head and neck carcinoma related to smoking and melanoma
              Essential features
              • Expression can be detected by immunohistochemistry
                • Negative IHC in tumors with loss of p16 protein function / expression
                • Immunohistochemical positivity commonly considered a surrogate marker for oncogenic HPV infection
                • Positivity also seen in lesions with inactivation of Rb due to HPV independent mechanisms, such as Rb gene alterations or other mechanisms of Rb pathway dysregulation
                  • Includes liposarcoma, gastric adenocarcinoma, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma, pulmonary adenocarcinoma, neuroendocrine carcinoma and a subset of uterine carcinoma
              • Most commonly studied and used in the evaluation of anogenital lesions (cervical, vulvar, vaginal, anal, penile)
              • Also useful in the evaluation of head and neck carcinoma (specifically oropharyngeal carcinoma - tonsils, base of tongue)
              • Increasingly used in the evaluation of different gynecologic tract tumors: p16 overexpression is more frequently seen in high grade endometrial and ovarian carcinoma (serous, clear cell, high grade endometrioid) compared to low grade tumors (Adv Anat Pathol 2009;16:267, Int J Gynecol Pathol 2009;28:179)
              • More frequently overexpressed in uterine leiomyosarcoma, in comparison to STUMP, leiomyoma and inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor (Int J Clin Exp Pathol 2015;8:2795, Histopathol 2017;70:1138)
              • Limited value in the workup of unknown primaries, as the protein is expressed in a variety of tumors from a variety of sites (Hum Pathol 2012;43:327)
              Terminology
              • p16 protein, also known as multiple tumor suppressor 1 (MTS1) or cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor 2A; also known as p16 INK4a
              Interpretation
              • Positive staining is defined as "block" staining: strong nuclear and cytoplasmic expression in a continuous segment of cells (at least 10 - 20 cells); in squamous epithelium, block positivity needs to involve basal and parabasal layers
              • Positive staining (overexpression) correlates with oncogenic HPV infection and HPV independent mechanisms as outlined above
                • In addition, complete absence of staining is also abnormal, since it has been correlated with CDKN2A gene silencing mutations (Histopathol 2017;70:1138)
              • Cytoplasmic only staining, diffuse blush / weak intensity staining and other focal / patchy patterns should be considered negative (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2012;136:1266)
              Uses by pathologists
              • In the evaluation of HPV associated anogenital lesions
              • Marker for detecting transcriptionally active HPV in oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:1088)
              • Differentiation of endocervical from endometrial carcinoma (Int J Gynecol Pathol 2003;22:231)
                • Positive result favors primary endocervical adenocarcinoma
              • Morphological subtyping of different gynecologic tumors
                • Positive result is more common in high grade carcinoma
              • The Lower Anogenital Squamous Terminology Standardization Project for HPV associated Lesions made these recommendations for p16 use:
                • If the differential diagnosis is between precancer (–IN 2 or –IN 3) and either a mimic of precancer or a low grade / non HPV associated lesion; strong and diffuse block positive p16 results support a categorization of precancerous disease
                • If there is a professional disagreement in histologic interpretation, when the differential diagnosis includes a precancerous lesion (–IN 2 or –IN 3)
                • As an adjunct to morphologic assessment for biopsy specimens interpreted as ≤–IN 1 that are at high risk for missed high-grade disease, which is defined as a prior cytologic interpretation of HSIL, ASC-H, ASC-US/HPV-16 +, or AGC (NOS)
                • p16 use is NOT recommended as a routine adjunct to histologic assessment of biopsy specimens with morphologic interpretations of negative, –IN 1 and –IN 3 (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2012;136:1266)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

              CIN 3 p16

              HSIL p16

              AIS p16

              High grade cervical
              glandular intraepithelial
              neoplasia



              Images hosted on other servers:

              Diffuse strong staining in oropharyngeal carcinoma

              Positive staining - malignant
              • HPV related anogenital precursors (such as cervical SIL, Mod Pathol 2005;18:267), AIS, usual VIN, VAIN, undifferentiated PeIN)
              • Squamous cell carcinoma (anogenital, oropharyngeal, some esophageal, some bladder)
              • Endocervical adenocarcinoma
              • Uterine serous carcinoma
              • High grade serous carcinoma of Müllerian origin in general
              • Some malignant mixed Müllerian tumors and undifferentiated carcinoma (Int J Gynecol Pathol 2012;31:57)
              Positive staining - not malignant
              Board review style question #1
              According to the LAST Project working group recommendations, p16 immunohistochemistry is recommended in all of the following clinical scenarios involving anogenital squamous lesions, EXCEPT:

              1. Routinely in the evaluation of biopsies with interpretations of negative, CIN I or CIN III
              2. When a biopsy interpretation is < CIN I in the setting of a prior HSIL Pap smear
              3. When a diagnosis of CIN II is entertained by H&E morphologic interpretation
              4. When the H&E morphologic differential is between a precancerous (CIN II or CIN III) lesion and a mimic of a precancerous lesion (ex. immature squamous metaplasia, atrophy)
              5. When there is professional disagreement in histologic interpretation (when the differential diagnosis includes CIN I or III)
              Board review style answer #1
              A. p16 immunohistochemistry is not recommended as a routine adjunct assessment when the biopsy interpretation is negative, CIN I or CIN III. Strong and diffuse block staining for p16 supports a categorization of precancerous disease. Any identified p16 positive area must meet H&E morphologic criteria for a high grade lesion to reinterpreted as such. (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2012;136:1266)

              Comment Here

              Reference: p16

              p21
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              • Gene at 6p21.2
              • Negative cell cycle regulator in G2-M phase and G1-S phase
              • Regulated transcriptionally by p53
              • Also called p21 WAF1/CIP1

              p27
              Definition / general
              • Cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor leading to cell cycle arrest in G1 phase
              • Member of Cip/Kip family of proteins
              • Loss or reduced expression is associated with poor outcome in carcinoma of breast, prostate, GI tract and lung
            • Also called p27 kip1
            • Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain

              p40
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • Nuclear marker with expression in squamous, urothelial, myoepithelial / basal cell differentiation
              • More specific for squamous cell differentiation than p63 in lung carcinoma (Mod Pathol 2012;25:405)
              • Recommended for subtyping non small cell carcinoma (J Thorac Oncol 2019;14:377)
              Terminology
              Clinical features
              • Mutations cause ectrodactyly ectodermal dysplasia cleft syndrome, ankyloblepharon ectodermal dysplasia clefting syndrome, nonsyndromic split hand / split foot malformation (J Cell Sci 2011;124:2200)
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain
              Uses by pathologists
              • Usually positive in squamous, urothelial and myoepithelial / basal cell differentiation
              • Part of recommended panel for subtyping non small cell lung carcinoma (J Thorac Oncol 2019;14:377)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Jaya Ruth Asirvatham, M.B.B.S. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

              Squamous mucosa

              Squamous cell carcinoma, tonsil

              Basaloid neoplasm

              Lung squamous cell carcinoma

              Lung squamous cell carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Sample pathology report
              • Cervix, biopsy:
                • Invasive squamous cell carcinoma, poorly differentiated
                • Ancillary studies: The malignant cells are diffusely positive for cytokeratin 5/6, p40 and p16 and are negative for cytokeratin 7, supporting the diagnosis.
              Board review style question #1

              A 55 year old male construction worker with a 20 pack year smoking history and no prior diagnosis of malignancy, presents with a lung mass, which is biopsied. The biopsy demonstrates a poorly differentiated malignant neoplasm. An immunohistochemical panel comprising CK7, CK20, CK5/6, TTF1, p40, napsin, calrentin and BerEP4 is performed.

              Which profile supports the diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma?

              1. CK7+, TTF1+, napsin+, other stains negative
              2. CK5/6+, p40+ in more than 50% of cells, strong, other stains negative
              3. CK7+, CK5/6+, TTF1+, p40+ in less than 50% of cells strong, other stains negative
              4. CK5/6+, calretinin+, others negative
              5. CK20+, others negative
              Board review style answer #1
              B. CK5/6+, p40+ in more than 50% of cells, strong, other stains negative. Strong p40 staining in greater than 50% of cells is expected in squamous cell carcinoma. Profile A is seen in lung adenocarcinoma. Profile C is supportive of lung adenosquamous carcinoma. Profile D is consistent with mesothelioma. Metastatic colorectal carcinoma is a possibility with profile E. A diagnosis of primary squamous cell carcinoma of the lung needs to be made in the appropriate clinical context, as metastatic squamous cell carcinoma or direct extension from a thymic carcinoma may have the same profile. PAX8 and CD117 are often positive in thymic carcinomas and will be negative in primary lung squamous cell carcinoma.

              Comment Here

              Reference: p40

              p53
              Definition / general
              • Tumor suppressor gene at 17p13, 53 kDa
              • Mutations are among most commonly detected genetic abnormalities in human neoplasia; however, presence of TP53 mutation is usually not, by itself, specific enough for a diagnosis for malignancy and its absence does not rule out malignancy
              Essential features
              • Strong nuclear positivity or complete absence by immunohistochemistry has a strong correlation with the presence of a mutation
              • Low to intermediate expression suggests a nonmutated gene
              Pathophysiology
              Clinical features
              • Li Fraumeni syndrome: hereditary TP53 mutation causes multiple tumors (J Natl Cancer Inst 1969;43:1365)
              • According to several review publications, incidences of different tumor types are different for women and men (Nat Rev Clin Oncol 2014;11:260, Eur J Hum Genet 2020;28:1379, Cold Spring Harb Perspect Med 2017;7:a026187)
                • Women: almost 100% develop TP53 mutation associated cancer with a risk of 49% by the age of 30
                • Men: 79% develop TP53 mutation associated cancer with a risk of 21% by the age of 30
              • Distribution: breast 28%, soft tissues 14%, brain 13%, adrenocortical 11%, bones 8%, hematological 4%, colorectal 3%, other 19% (gastric, melanoma, lung, pancreas, ovary, bladder, prostate)
              • For children, the spectrum of cancers includes mostly brain tumors as choroid plexus carcinoma, glioma, medulloblastoma and rhabdomyosarcoma (Nat Rev Clin Oncol 2014;11:260)
              Interpretation
              • Wildtype (normal) - scattered nuclear staining, mid epithelial (basal sparing)
              • Aberrant (mutational type) → 80% strong and diffuse nuclear staining, complete absence of nuclear staining in all cells, moderate to strong cytoplasmic staining (Int J Gynecol Pathol 2021;40:32)
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Low to intermediate inhomogeneous nuclear expression in up to 50% of wildtype (WT) cases
              • Cutoff values vary in publications, some suggest > 5%, > 10% or > 50% strong positive nuclear stain as positive
              • Cutoff value of > 10% in glioblastoma has low predictive value (Oncotarget 2019;10:6204)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Till Braunschweig, M.D.
              Barrett esophagus, high grade intraepithelial neoplasia Barrett esophagus, high grade intraepithelial neoplasia

              Barrett esophagus, high grade intraepithelial neoplasia, p53+

              High grade intraepithelial neoplasia High grade intraepithelial neoplasia

              Barrett esophagus, high grade intraepithelial neoplasia, p53 absent

              High grade intraepithelial neoplasia High grade intraepithelial neoplasia

              Stomach mucosa, high grade intraepithelial neoplasia, p53+


              High grade intraepithelial neoplasia High grade intraepithelial neoplasia

              Tubular adenoma of the duodenum, high grade intraepithelial neoplasia, p53+

              Adenocarcinoma infiltrates Adenocarcinoma infiltrates

              Adenocarcinoma in core biopsy of the pancreas, p53+

              Intraepithelial carcinoma Intraepithelial carcinoma

              Fallopian tube, intraepithelial carcinoma, p53 overexpressed


              Serous carcinoma high grade Serous carcinoma high grade

              Serous ovarian carcinoma, high grade, p53 overexpressed

              Serous carcinoma low grade Serous carcinoma low grade

              Serous ovarian carcinoma, low grade, p53 wildtype

              Carcinoma in situ Carcinoma in situ

              Urothelial carcinoma in situ, p53 absent

              Wildtype (normal) staining - normal tissues
              • Virtually all normal tissues should show wildtype p53 expression
              Wildtype (normal) staining - disease
              Aberrant (mutational type) staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              Sample pathology report
              • Right ovary, oophorectomy:
                • High grade serous carcinoma (see comment)
                • Comment: Immunohistochemistry for p53 shows strong nuclear positivity in over 80% of tumor cells, consistent with aberrant (mutational type) expression. Controls show appropriate reactivity.
              Board review style question #1

              Immunohistochemistry of p53 can serve as a distinct marker for the confirmation of high grade neoplastic changes of different tissues. What kind of staining pattern is most common?

              1. Circumferential membranous staining
              2. Cytoplasmic and nuclear staining
              3. Partial membranous staining
              4. Strong cytoplasmic staining
              5. Strong nuclear staining
              Board review style answer #1
              E. Strong nuclear staining

              Comment Here

              Reference: p53

              p57 kip2
              Definition / general
              • p57 is a cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor protein, the product of the paternally imprinted, maternally expressed gene CDKN1C (p57KIP2) located on chromosome 11p15.5
              • p57 immunohistochemical stain can be used to separate a complete hydatidiform mole from partial hydatidiform mole and nonmolar gestations
              Essential features
              • Normal p57 expression (strong nuclear staining in villous cytotrophoblasts, intermediate trophoblasts and villous stromal cells) is seen in all gestations that contain maternal genetic material
              • p57 expression is lost in complete hydatidiform mole, while it is retained in partial hydatidiform moles and nonmolar specimens
              • p57 immunohistochemistry cannot distinguish between a partial hydatidiform mole and nonmolar gestations
              • Short tandem repeat (STR) genotyping can precisely classify gestations with normal / positive p57 expression and morphologic suspicion for a hydatidiform mole
              Terminology
              • CDKN1C
              • p57kip2
              Pathophysiology
              • p57 is a cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor protein, the product of the paternally imprinted, maternally expressed gene CDKN1C (p57KIP2) located on chromosome 11p15.5 (Lab Invest 1998;78:269)
              • Maternal genetic material and intact genomic imprinting is essential for p57 protein expression
              • Gestations containing maternal genetic material (including maternal copy of chromosome 11) - nonmolar hydropic abortions, chromosomal trisomies, digynic triploidy and partial hydatidiform moles - have normal retained p57 expression in villous cytotrophoblasts and villous stromal cells, while staining is uniformly absent in syncytiotrophoblasts (Hum Pathol 2002;33:1188, Annu Rev Pathol 2017;12:449, Arch Pathol Lab Med 2017;141:1052)
              • Complete hydatidiform moles (CHM), including very early complete moles, lack maternal genetic contribution, therefore p57 expression is typically absent in the above cell types (Semin Diagn Pathol 2014;31:223)
                • Small subset of complete hydatidiform moles (~0.6 - 2.6% of all hydatidiform moles) are familial biparental complete moles (FBCHM) and contain both maternal and paternal genomes
                • They are caused by mutations in maternal effect genes NALP7 / NLRP7 (chromosome 19q13.4) or KHDC3L (chromosome 6q13) that lead to disruption of genomic imprinting; hence, they also show lack of p57 expression (Nat Genet 2006;38:300, Hum Reprod 2015;30:159, Hum Mol Genet 1999;8:667)
              • Differential p57 expression is useful in the diagnostic distinction between complete mole and its mimics (i.e., partial moles and nonmolar hydropic abortions) (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:805)
              • p57 immunohistochemistry does not differentiate between partial hydatidiform moles and nonmolar gestations that mimic a partial mole morphologicaly (biparental diploid nonmolar hydropic abortions, digynic triploid gestations and chromosomal trisomies) since they contain a maternal chromosomal complement (Hum Pathol 2005;36:180)
              • Rare mosaic androgenetic / biparental gestations and twin (complete mole and nonmolar) gestations may demonstrate discordant p57 staining patterns, inconsistent with the morphology (Am J Surg Pathol 2021 Jun 2 [Accessed 2 November 2021], Int J Gynecol Pathol 2013;32:199, Semin Diagn Pathol 2014;31:223)
              Interpretation
              • p57 is a nuclear stain
              • Normal p57 expression (strong nuclear staining in villous cytotrophoblasts and villous stromal cells) is seen in all gestations containing maternal genetic material
              • Syncytiotrophoblastic cells are always negative for p57, regardless of the type of gestation
              • Maternal decidua and intervillous intermediate trophoblast islands are always positive for p57, regardless of the type of gestation and can serve as internal positive control
              • Evaluation of p57 expression should focus on 2 cell types, villous cytotrophoblasts and villous stromal cells, that show differential p57 expression (i.e., absence of staining in complete hydatidiform moles)
              • Limited p57 staining (less than 10% of villous cytotrophoblast and villous stromal cells) can be seen in complete hydatidiform moles (Mod Pathol 2021;34:961)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Diagnostic work up of suspected molar gestations: p57 immunostain can differentiate between a complete hydatidiform mole and its morphologic mimics (Annu Rev Pathol 2017;12:449)
              Prognostic factors
              • Complete hydatidiform moles have a 20 - 25% risk of progression into persistent / invasive mole and 3 - 5% risk of gestational choriocarcinoma (Lancet 2010;376:717, BJOG 2003;110:22)
              • Risk of persistent / invasive mole and choriocarcinoma following a partial molar gestation is 4 - 5% and < 0.5%, respectively (Lancet 2010;376:717, BJOG 2003;110:22)
              • Nonmolar gestations with morphologic features mimicking hydatidiform moles do not have an associated increased risk of persistent gestational trophoblastic disease or gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Natalia Buza, M.D. and Heba Abdelal, M.D.
              p57 in complete hydatidiform mole

              p57 in complete hydatidiform mole

              p57 in partial hydatidiform mole

              p57 in partial hydatidiform mole

               p57 expression in nonmolar gestation

              p57 expression in nonmolar gestation

              p57 in complete hydatidiform mole

              p57 in complete hydatidiform mole

              Virtual slides

              Images hosted on other servers:
              p57 expression in partial mole

              p57 expression in partial mole

              Positive staining - normal
              • Normal biparental nonmolar gestations (Semin Diagn Pathol 2014;31:223)
                • Normal p57 expression (strong nuclear staining in villous cytotrophoblasts and villous stromal cells) is seen in all gestations containing maternal genetic material
                • Maternal decidua and intervillous intermediate trophoblast islands are always positive for p57, regardless of the type of gestation and can serve as internal positive control
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Complete hydatidiform mole, including familial biparental complete hydatidiform mole
                • Negative or limited p57 staining (less than 10% of villous cytotrophoblast and villous stromal cells)
              • Rare gestations other than complete hydatidiform mole may also be associated with loss of p57 expression (Am J Surg Pathol 2021 Jun 2 [Accessed 2 November 2021])
              Discordant staining
              • p57 expression pattern is discordant when the villous cytotrophoblasts are p57 positive and villous stromal cells are p57 negative or vice versa
              • Possible underlying pathomechanisms include:
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Although it is not directly linked to p57 / CDKN1C, short tandem repeat (STR) genotyping can be used for precise classification of molar gestations by identifying the parental genetic contributions to their genomes (Mod Pathol 2021;34:1658, Mod Pathol 2021;34:961)
              • STR genotyping can separate between p57 positive partial hydatidiform mole and p57 positive nonmolar gestations with abnormal villous morphology (Int J Gynecol Pathol 2013;32:307)
              Sample pathology report
              • Uterine contents:
                • Complete hydatidiform mole (see comment)
                • Comment: The chorionic villi are markedly enlarged and hydropic with cistern formation. Circumferential trophoblast hyperplasia and intermediate trophoblast atypia are also identified. p57 immunostain is negative in villous cytotrophoblasts and villous stromal cells, supporting the diagnosis.
              • Uterine contents:
                • Mildly hydropic, irregular chorionic villi, consistent with partial hydatidiform mole (see comment)
                • Gestational endometrium
                • No fetal parts identified
                • Comment: The chorionic villi are mildly hydropic and irregularly shaped with surface invaginations and trophoblastic pseudoinclusions. p57 immunostain shows retained expression in cytotrophoblast and villous stromal cells. Molecular genotyping results are consistent with a dispermic (heterozygous) partial hydatidiform mole (see separate addendum report).
              Board review style question #1

              A 32 year old woman presents with spontaneous abortion at 9 weeks estimated gestational age. Gross examination shows chorionic villous tissue with mild hydrops and there are no fetal parts identified. p57 immunostain is performed; what is your interpretation of this staining pattern?

              1. Loss of p57 expression, consistent with complete hydatidiform mole
              2. Retained p57 expression, likely chromosomal trisomy
              3. Retained p57 expression, likely nonmolar hydropic abortion
              4. Retained p57 expression, likely partial hydatidiform mole
              Board review style answer #1
              A. Loss of p57 expression, consistent with complete hydatidiform mole

              Comment Here

              Reference: p57kip2

              p62 (pending)
              [Pending]

              p63
              Definition / general
              • Transcription factor that is a member of the p53 gene family
              • Master regulator of epidermal keratinocyte proliferation and embryonic epidermal growth
              Essential features
              Terminology
              Pathophysiology
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Structure of p63 molecule

              Structure of p63 molecule

              Clinical features
              • Investigate the primary origin of malignant tumors
              • In most cases, p63 can help exclude the diagnosis of invasive adenocarcinomas in the prostate and breast; however, there are exceptions
              Interpretation
              • Mainly nuclear
              • Could demonstrate cytoplasmic expression in Z bands in skeletal muscle cells (Mod Pathol 2011;24:1320)
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Nuclear marker for myoepithelial cells in benign tumors and noninvasive malignancies
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by John Yahya I. Elshimali, M.D., Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.,
              Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D., Hind Nassar, M.D. and Cases #117, 191 and 209

              Prostatic glands

              Myoepithelial cells staining positive for p63


              Prostatic adenocarcinoma

              Endometrial adenocarcinoma


              Mammary glands and ducts

              Myoepithelial cells

              Elongated tubular structures with chondroid fibrous stroma


              Solid cell nests

              p63+ in many follicles

              Correlates with a loss of TTF1

              Missing Image

              Adenoid cystic carcinoma, solid

              Missing Image Missing Image

              Seromucinous hamartoma p63-, no myoepithelial cells, positive internal control


              Missing Image

              Nephrogenic adenoma (p63- / AMACR+)

              Missing Image Missing Image

              Adenocarcinoma (upper, p63- / AMACR+) and benign (lower, p63+ / AMACR-)

              Missing Image

              Intraductal papilloma with DCIS immunoprofile

              Intraductal papilloma with DCIS, p63

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Encoded by the gene TP63 located on 3q27-29
              • Multidomain protein with more than 6 isoforms
              • Isoforms are generated through alternative splicing at the 3 site
              • Tetramer that has a DNA binding domain (DBD), an N terminal transcactivation domain (TA), a tetramerization domain (TD) and a transcription inhibitory domain following C terminal sterile alpha motif (SAM) (Mol Cell Biol 2002;22:8601, Mol Cell 1998;2:305)
              Molecular / cytogenetics images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Characterization of p63 isoform specific antibodies

              Characterization of p63 isoform specific antibodies

              Sample pathology report
              • Prostate, core needle biopsy, measuring 2 x 1 x 1 cm and tan-brown in color:
                • Benign prostatic hyperplasia (see comment)
                • Comment: Microscopic examination of the biopsy revealed the proliferation of prostatic glands lined by epithelial cells with no signs of atypia in the lining of epithelial cells. Immunohistochemistry demonstrated a strong nuclear expression of p63 in the basal cells of the hyperplastic glands. These features correlate with benign prostatic hyperplasia.    
              Board review style question #1

              Which of the statements below regarding p63 is true?

              1. Has only 3 isoforms
              2. Loss of p63 expression correlates with poor prognosis in urothelial carcinoma
              3. p63 is absent in squamous epithelial cells
              4. p63 is a marker for smooth muscle cells
              Board review style answer #1
              B. Loss of p63 expression correlates with poor prognosis in urothelial carcinoma. Answer A is incorrect because p63 has more than 6 isoforms. Answer C is incorrect because p63 is a marker for squamous epithelial cells. Answer D is incorrect because p63 is a marker for basal epithelial cells.

              Comment Here

              Reference: p63

              Pan-TRK (EPR17341) [NTRK]
              Definition / general
              • Family of receptor tyrosine kinases (NTRK1/2/3 genes with encode Trk-A, Trk-B, Trk-C protein kinases)
              • Pan-TRK antibody recognizes C terminal domain of Trk-A, Trk-B and Trk-C (also available are Trk-A and Trk-C antibodies)
              • 2 clones, EPR17341 and A7H6R, with concordance in NTRK rearranged tumors
              • Neurotrophin signaling through these receptor kinases activate cellular pathways involved in cellular proliferation and survival, particularly within the embryonic nervous system (Annu Rev Biochem 2003;72:609, Annu Rev Neurosci 2001;24:677)
              • Within embryonal development, regulate neuronal differentiation, axonal growth, dendritic growth and pruning and membrane trafficking, among other functions (Annu Rev Biochem 2003;72:609, Annu Rev Neurosci 2001;24:677)
              • In adults, involved in synaptic strength and plasticity (Annu Rev Biochem 2003;72:609, Annu Rev Neurosci 2001;24:677)
              Essential features
              • Pan-TRK antibody recognizing C terminal domain of the Trk-A, Trk-B and Trk-C proteins encoded by the NTRK1/2/3 genes
              • Can help identify tumors harboring NTRK1/2/3 fusions
              • Variable expression pattern, depending on which NTRK gene is involved
              • Variable sensitivity, depending on which NTRK gene is involved with lower sensitivity in NTRK3 gene fusions
              Pathophysiology
              • NTRK gene fusions (NTRK1/2/3) to a variety of gene partners are oncogenic drivers in several tumor types
              • Recognition of NTRK fusion tumors is important with the advent of targeted Trk inhibitors
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Proposed testing algorithm

              Clinical features
              • Tumors with NTRK fusions are eligible for the FDA approved targeted TRK inhibitors larotrectinib and entrectinib
              Interpretation
              • Tumors harboring NTRK1/2 fusions demonstrate cytoplasmic expression; rare perinuclear and nuclear membrane staining has been reported
              • Tumors harboring NTRK3 fusions demonstrate cytoplasmic or nuclear expression
              • Some authors consider positive staining to be if ≥ 1% of tumor cells show expression, particularly for nuclear expression in NTRK3 fusions which may show only sparse staining (Mod Pathol 2020;33:38)
              • Interpretation is best made in the context of morphology; false positive staining has rarely been reported in tumors in the absence of NTRK fusions, including BCOR rearranged sarcomas / primitive myxoid mesenchymal tumors of infancy (PMMTI), fibrous hamartoma of infancy (primitive mesenchymal component), neuroblastoma, oligodendroglioma, carcinomas with neuroendocrine differentiation, invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast and adenoid cystic carcinoma, among others; some of these tumors harbor structural rearrangements or amplifications in NTRK1-3 without gene fusions (Histopathology 2018;73:634, Mod Pathol 2020;33:38)
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              • Minimal prognostic information available; however, pan-Trk immunohistochemistry can be used as a screening tool and potential predictive marker
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Jessica L. Davis, M.D.

              Infantile fibrosarcoma

              Infantile fibrosarcoma spectrum of tumors

              Secretory carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) probes for NTRK genes (or ETV6 which frequently is the fusion partner to NTRK3) are commercially available
              • Some NGS assays (DNA or RNA) can detect / confirm NTRK fusions
              Molecular / cytogenetics images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              NTRK1 FISH

              Board review style question #1


              A 2 month old boy presents with a large intramuscular thigh mass with encasement of the femoral neurovascular bundle. Biopsy shows a spindle cell neoplasm with infiltrative borders into skeletal muscle and subcutaneous adipose tissue. By immunohistochemistry, the tumor shows patchy expression of SMA, rare CD34 and diffuse expression of pan-TRK. What is the most likely diagnosis?

              1. Cellular congenital mesoblastic nephroma
              2. Infantile fibrosarcoma
              3. Lipofibromatosis
              4. Myofibroma
              Board review style answer #1
              B. Infantile fibrosarcoma. Infantile fibrosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of infancy. The morphology can be variable but typically presents with primitive to spindle cells in a myxoid to collagenized stroma; the diagnosis can be confirmed with pan-TRK antibody staining. Tumors harbor an ETV6::NTRK3 fusion in ~70% of cases; however, recently other variant NTRK fusions have been described (Pediatr Dev Pathol 2018;21:68, Mod Pathol 2018;31:463).

              Comment Here

              Reference: Pan-TRK (EPR17341) [NTRK]
              Board review style question #2
                A 20 year old woman presents with a breast mass and a needle core biopsy is performed demonstrating morphology suggestive of secretory carcinoma. Which stain combination would be most consistent with secretory breast carcinoma?

              1. Pan-TRK+, S100+, MUC4+, ER-, GATA3+
              2. Pan-TRK+, S100-, MUC4+, ER+, GATA3+
              3. Pan-TRK-, S100-, MUC4+, ER+, GATA3+
              4. Pan-TRK+, S100+, MUC4+, ER+, GATA3+
              Board review style answer #2
              A. Pan-TRK+, S100+, MUC4+, ER-, GATA3+. Secretory carcinomas of the breast, salivary gland and skin are most commonly ETV6::NTRK3 driven tumors; rare ETV6 to other fusion partners have been described (Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:602). Pan-TRK staining is seen, often with nuclear expression (NTRK3 fusion tumors). Breast secretory carcinomas also express S100, SOX10, MUC4 and GATA3 but are triple negative (ER / PR / HER2-).

              Comment Here

              Reference: Pan-TRK (EPR17341) [NTRK]

              Parafibromin (CDC73)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              (pending)
              

              PAS (Periodic acid-Schiff)
              Definition / general
              • A special stain, not an immunostain
              Essential features
              • Substances with nearby glycol groups or their amino or alkylamino derivatives are oxidized by periodic acid to form dialdehydes, which combine with Schiff reagent to form an insoluble magenta compound
              • Stains basement membrane (normal and in tumors), glycogen, some mucins (see below) and mucopolysaccharides
              • PAS stains neutral and acid simple nonsulfated and acid complex sulfated mucins
              Terminology
              • PASD: PAS with predigestion with diastase
              Etiology
              • Substances with nearby glycol groups or their amino or alkylamino derivatives are oxidized by periodic acid to form dialdehydes, which combine with Schiff reagent to form an insoluble magenta compound
              • Used for formalin fixed tissue and enzyme cytochemistry; can be used for frozen sections with modifications (Eur J Gynaecol Oncol 1998;19:482, Am J Surg Pathol 1992;16:87)
              • Stains basement membrane (normal and in tumors), glycogen, some mucins (see below) and mucopolysaccharides
              • Routine stain in brain (with Luxol fast blue), cornea, kidney, liver (glycogen stains strongly for PAS without diastase) and skeletal muscle specimens for nontumor pathology
              • Some mucins (see below) are PASD (PAS with predigestion with diastase) positive (i.e., stain is present after diastase predigestion; also called diastase resistant); glycogen is PASD negative (also called diastase sensitive because diastase removes PAS staining)
              • PAS stains neutral and acid simple nonsulfated and acid complex sulfated mucins
              • PAS does not stain acid simple mesenchymal mucins and acid complex connective tissue mucins
              • Also stains various inclusions, bodies, granules and secretions composed of mucopolysaccharides or mucins
              Uses by pathologists
              • Breast cytology: PASD positive cells with internal structure and producing nuclear indentation, particularly in dissociated or atypical cells, correlate with malignant histology (J Clin Pathol 2001;54:146)
              • Microorganisms:
                • Stains polysaccharide laden fungal cell walls
                • PAS+ granule at anterior end of mature spores is diagnostic of microsporidia (BMC Clin Pathol 2006;6:6)
                • Stains Whipple disease: foamy macrophages containing PAS+ (PASD+) intracytoplasmic granules (Tropheryma whippelii bacteria)
                • PAS+ (PASD+) bacteria include Bacillus cereus, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Propionibacterium acnes, Klebsiella pneumoniae and Micrococcus luteus (Arch Dermatol 1991;127:543)
              • Hematopathology (Arch Pathol Lab Med 1991;115:346, Haematologica 2002;87:148):
                • Stains lymphoblasts in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
                • Most types of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) are negative for PAS but exceptions are pronormoblasts in pure erythroid leukemia, M5a, M6 (60%), M7
                • Stains Pautrier microabscesses in mycosis fungoides
              • Kidney:
                • Recommended for routine evaluation of medical renal biopsies due to basement membrane staining
                • Particularly helpful for distinguishing tubulitis (in allograft), diabetic Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules (PAS positive), amyloid (PAS negative) and atypical casts in light chain cast nephropathy (PAS negative)
              • Liver:
              • Lung: stains amorphous or granular globules in bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid in pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (J Clin Pathol 1997;50:981)
              • Muscle biopsies: routine stain to demonstrate glycogen
              • Pancreas: acinar cell carcinoma (PASD+)
              • Parotid glands: zymogen granules are PAS+
              • Prostate: Cowper glands are PASD+ (Am J Surg Pathol 1997;21:550)
              • Skin: eosinophilic globoid bodies (Kamino bodies) in Spitz nevus are PASD+
              • Esophagus:
              • Small intestine:
              • Testis: stains germ cell neoplasia in situ (GCNIS) and seminoma (PAS+, PASD negative) but not normal seminiferous tubules (Am J Surg Pathol 1994;18:947)
              • Tumors: adenocarcinoma of various sites (mucin is PASD+), alveolar soft parts sarcoma (PASD+ crystalline structures), apocrine carcinomas, basement membrane containing tumors (cylindroma, eccrine spiradenoma), clear cell tumors (stains glycogen), glycogen rich carcinomas, glycogen rich / balloon cell melanoma, granular cell tumor (cytoplasmic granules), hyaline globules in renal tumors, mucinous tumors, Paget disease of breast (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:823, Arch Pathol Lab Med 1998;122:353, Hum Pathol 1997;28:400)
              • Other: stains malakoplakia
              • Enzyme cytochemistry: coarse granular staining
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.

              Thyroid:

              Graves disease

              PASD staining
              of PTC with
              laryngeal invasion

              PAS staining of thyroid



              Contributed by Jonathan E. Zuckerman, M.D., Ph.D., Nicole K. Andeen, M.D. and cases #30 and #51

              Kidney:
              Arteriosclerosis

              Arteriosclerosis

              Cellular crescent

              Cellular crescent

              Collapsing glomerulopathy

              Collapsing glomerulopathy

              Crescent

              Crescent

              Endotheliitis

              Endotheliitis


              Necrotizing arteriolitis

              Necrotizing arteriolitis

              PAS- light chain casts

              PAS- light chain casts

              PAS+ thickened tubular basement membranes

              PAS+ thickened tubular basement membranes

              PAS+ arteriolar hyalinosis

              PAS+ arteriolar hyalinosis

              Tubulitis

              Tubulitis


              PAS negative amyloid in glomerulus

              PAS- amyloid in glomerulus

              PAS- casts of light chain cast nephropathy

              PAS+ nodular
              mesangial expansion
              in diabetic
              nephropathy

              Missing Image

              Nodular
              glomerulosclerosis

              Missing Image

              Tubulocystic carcinoma, kidney (tumor)

              Cytology images

              Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Patricia Tsang, M.D., M.B.A.

              Glycogen granules

              B lymphoblastic leukemia B lymphoblastic leukemia

              B lymphoblastic leukemia

              Positive staining - normal
              • Basement membrane, fungi, glycogen (removed after diastase or amylase predigestion), mucins (neutral and acid simple nonsulfated and acid complex sulfated types), surfactant
              Positive staining - disease
              • Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (75%, block staining), alpha-1-antitrypsin inclusions, alveolar soft part sarcoma (intracytoplasmic crystals), acute myeloid leukemia M5a, M6 (60%), M7, basement membrane containing tumors (cylindroma), clear cell tumors, malakoplakia, renal cell carcinoma (PAS+ glycogen removed with diastase), parasites, signet ring cell carcinoma of stomach, Whipple disease (J Histochem Cytochem 2006;54:615, Exp Mol Pathol 2014;96:274)
              Negative staining
              • Mucins (acid simple mesenchymal and acid complex connective tissue types)
              Sample pathology report
              • Left kidney, needle biopsy:
                • Changes consistent with diabetic nephropathy, including PAS+ afferent and efferent arteriolar hyalinosis
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following is typical of PAS staining?

              1. Stains acid simple mesenchymal mucins
              2. Stains basement membranes
              3. Stains glycogen after diastase or amylase predigestion
              4. Stains seminiferous tubules
              Board review style answer #1
              B. Stains basement membranes. PAS stains glycogen but not after diastase or amylase predigestion. It stains only some mucins - neutral and acid simple nonsulfated and acid complex sulfated types but not acid simple mesenchymal and acid complex connective tissue types. It does not typically stain normal seminiferous tubules.

              Comment Here

              Reference: PAS (Periodic acid-Schiff)
              Board review style question #2

              Which of the following statements about PAS staining in this patient with diabetes is true?

              1. Highlights amyloid in blood vessels
              2. Highlights atypical casts in light chain cast nephropathy
              3. Highlights Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
              4. Recommended for routine evaluation of medical renal biopsies due to nuclear staining
              Board review style answer #2
              C. Highlights Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules. PAS staining is particularly helpful for distinguishing tubulitis (in allograft), diabetic Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules (PAS positive), amyloid (PAS negative) and atypical casts in light chain cast nephropathy (PAS negative). It is a standard stain for medical renal biopsies but it is a membranous stain and not a nuclear stain.

              Comment Here

              Reference: PAS (Periodic acid-Schiff)

              PAS Hematoxylin (PASH) (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              (pending)

              PAX2
              Definition / general
              • Paired-box 2; nuclear transcription factor, structurally similar to PAX8 with virtually identical expression in nonneoplastic tissue
              • Essential in embryonic development of Müllerian organs and hindbrain
              • Suppressed through promoter methylation at later stages of embryonic development but is reactivated during carcinogenesis (J Cell Mol Med 2013;17:1048)
              Clinical features
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              Kidney, multicystic dysplasia

              Missing Image

              Kidney, hemangioblastoma

              Missing Image

              Skin, nevi, melanoma

              Missing Image

              Kidney, fetal

              Missing Image

              Fallopian tube

              Missing Image

              Ovary, high grade carcinomas


              Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

              Uterus, endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia

              Missing Image Missing Image

              Bladder / GU: nephrogenic adenoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Adenomatoid tumor
              • Bladder: clear cell adenocarcinoma (usually)
              • Kidney: angiomyolipoma with epithelial cysts and synovial sarcoma are negative but PAX2 and PAX8 often positive in epithelial cysts, likely due to entrapment and dilation of renal tubules (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1264)
              • Kidney: carcinoid
              • Kidney: Ewing / PNET, neuroblastoma, T ALL
              • Mesothelioma (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2012;20:272)
              • Testis: normal seminiferous tubules or interstitium; germ cell tumors, Leydig cell tumors, Sertoli cell tumors (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1473)
              • Uterus: usually (71%) loss of PAX2 staining

              PAX5
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • Nuclear marker expressed in most mature and immature B cell neoplasms
              • Especially useful when the B cell neoplasm does not express CD20 (such as in classic Hodgkin lymphoma, B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma or status post rituximab therapy)
              • Not expressed in plasma cells due to repression by BLIMP1
              • Variable expression in Merkel cell carcinoma, small cell carcinoma, rectal neuroendocrine tumors and acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22;q22)
              Terminology
              • Also known as B cell lineage specific activator protein (BSAP)
              Pathophysiology
              • Encoded by PAX5 at 9q13
              • Paired box transcription factors have a novel, highly conserved DNA binding motif and regulate early tissue development
              • Activates B cell specific genes and represses genes specific for other hematopoietic lineages (Oncogene 2012;31:966)
              • Regulates distinct target genes in early and late B cell development (EMBO J 2012;31:3130)
              • Activates expression of factors required for the BCR signaling pathway (Med Oncol 2015;32:360)
              • Critical regulator of human primordial germ cell development (Nat Cell Biol 2018;20:655)
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain
              Uses by pathologists
              • Identification of mature and immature B cell neoplasms
              • Determining B cell lineage in lymphomas that lack CD20 expression
              • Reference: Adv Anat Pathol 2007;14:323
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Austin Ellis, M.D. and Ling Zhang, M.D.

              Classic Hodgkin lymphoma

              Classic Hodgkin lymphoma (PAX5)

              Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

              Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (CD3)

              Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (CD20)

              Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (PAX5)


              Follicular lymphoma

              Follicular lymphoma (CD3)

              Follicular lymphoma (CD20)

              Follicular lymphoma (PAX5)

              Follicular lymphoma (CD10)

              Follicular lymphoma (BCL6)


              Follicular lymphoma (BCL2)

              Follicular lymphoma (CD21)

              Merkel cell carcinoma

              Merkel cell carcinoma (CD45)

              Merkel cell carcinoma (synaptophysin)

              Merkel cell carcinoma (PAX5)

              Virtual slides

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image Missing Image

              Classic Hodgkin lymphoma

              Missing Image Missing Image

              Follicular lymphoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Sample pathology report
              • Lymph node, needle core biopsy:
                • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma, germinal center B cell type (see comment)
                • Comment: The needle core biopsy demonstrates sheets of large atypical lymphoid cells. The neoplastic cells are positive for CD20, PAX5, CD10, BCL6 and BCL2 and negative for CD3, CD5, MUM1 and MYC. Ki67 is variable, on average 70%. CD21 is negative. FISH for high grade B cell lymphoma is pending and will be reported in an addendum.
              Board review style question #1

              A 27 year old man presents with fever, drenching night sweats and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. Excisional biopsy of the enlarged lymph node has architectural effacement by variable numbers of large cells with prominent nucleoli, mixed with inflammatory cells. The large cells are positive for CD30 and PAX5 and negative for CD3 and CD20. Which of the following is true regarding the large cells?

              1. PAX5 expression indicates that they are derived from B cells
              2. PAX5 expression indicates that they are plasma cells
              3. PAX5 expression supports a diagnosis of anaplastic large cell lymphoma
              4. PAX5 expression supports a diagnosis of seminoma
              Board review style answer #1
              A. PAX5 expression indicates that they are derived from B cells

              Comment Here

              Reference: PAX5

              PAX8
              Definition / general
              • 1 of 9 members of paired box gene (PAX) family of transcription factors that regulate organogenesis (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1473)
              • Involved in development of the central nervous system, eye, kidney, thyroid gland, organs derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct and organs derived from the Müllerian duct (Mod Pathol 2011;24:751)
              • Structurally similar to PAX5 and PAX2 (Adv Anat Pathol 2012;19:140)
              Essential features
              • Nuclear marker with expression in epithelial neoplasms of thyroid, thymic, ovarian, endometrial, endocervical, fallopian tube and renal origin
              • Variable expression in selected central nervous system tumors and sarcomas
              • Nuclear staining should be strong in intensity to be considered positive
              • Polyclonal and monoclonal antibodies against PAX8 exist
                • Polyclonal PAX8 antibodies are known to cross react with PAX5 (e.g. B cell lymphocytes, B cell lymphoma) and PAX6 (e.g. pancreatic islet cells, neuroendocrine tumors of select sites)
              Terminology
              • Paired box gene 8
              Pathophysiology
              • Gene is at 2p13 (NCBI: PAX8 [Accessed 26 October 2020])
              • PAX8 is comprised of an N terminal DNA binding domain, an octapeptide and a C terminal DNA binding domain (Biochem J 2004;377:553)
                • N terminal DNA binding domain is highly conserved among the PAX family of transcription factors
                • C terminal DNA binding domain is involved in transcriptional activation and repression activities
              • Polyclonal PAX8 antibodies are directed against the N terminus and, thus, are associated with cross reactivity with PAX2, PAX5 and PAX6 (Adv Anat Pathol 2012;19:140)
              • Monoclonal PAX8 antibodies are directed against the C terminus, which shares less homology amongst PAX proteins and, thus, is more specific for PAX8 (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2013;21:59)
              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain
              Uses by pathologists
              • Differentiate primary pulmonary carcinomas (PAX8-) from PAX8+ metastatic carcinomas (renal, Müllerian, thyroid) (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2019 Feb;27:140)
              • Differentiate renal collecting duct carcinoma (PAX8+ / p63-) from urothelial carcinoma of the upper urinary tract (PAX8- / p63+) (Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:965)
              • Differentiate anaplastic thyroid carcinoma (PAX8+) from other undifferentiated tumors of the head and neck (PAX8-) (Hum Pathol 2011;42:1873)
              • Differentiate hemangioblastoma (PAX8- / PAX2- / inhibin A+) from clear cell renal cell carcinoma (PAX8+ / PAX2+ / inhibin A-) metastatic to the CNS (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:262)
              • Differentiate endosalpingiosis / benign Müllerian inclusions (PAX8+) in lymph nodes from metastatic breast cancer (PAX8-) (Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:1211)
              • Differentiate clear cell adenocarcinoma of the lower urinary tract (PAX8+) from urothelial carcinoma, urothelial carcinoma variants and adenocarcinoma of the urinary bladder or prostate (PAX8-) (Am J Surg Pathol 2008;32:1380)
              • Differentiate prostatic mesonephric remnant hyperplasia (PAX8+) from prostatic adenocarcinoma (PAX8-) (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1054)
              • Differentiate primary thymic epithelial neoplasms (PAX8+) from other anterior mediastinal epithelial neoplasms (PAX8-) (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1305)
              • Differentiate invasive micropapillary carcinoma of ovarian origin (PAX8+) from other common metastatic invasive micropapillary carcinomas, including those of the bladder, lung, breast, salivary gland and gastrointestinal tract (all PAX8-) (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:1037)
              • Differentiate ovarian carcinomas (PAX8+) from metastatic mammary carcinomas (PAX8-) (Am J Surg Pathol 2008;32:1566)
              • Differentiate Müllerian tumors (PAX8+) from other CK7 positive carcinomas, including breast and upper gastrointestinal tract (PAX8-) (Am J Clin Pathol 2011;136:428)
              • Differentiate pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor (PAX8+ / LEF1-) from pancreatic solid pseudopapillary neoplasm (PAX8- / LEF1+) (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2020 Jan 31 [Epub ahead of print])
              • Differentiate ocular ciliary body epithelial and neuroepithelial tumors, including adenoma, adenocarcinoma and medulloepithelioma (PAX8+) from ocular melanocytic tumors (PAX8-) and retinal pigment epithelial neoplasms (PAX8-) (Ophthalmology 2020 Sep 28 [Epub ahead of print])
              • Differentiate thymic neuroendocrine carcinomas (PAX8+ / TTF1-) from pulmonary neuroendocrine carcinomas (PAX8- / TTF1+) (Mod Pathol 2013;26:1554)
              • Marker of nephrogenic adenoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2008;32:1380)
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Strong, diffuse nuclear staining is the expected pattern of positivity
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Kelsey E. McHugh, M.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
              Metastatic renal cell carcinoma Metastatic renal cell carcinoma

              Metastatic renal cell carcinoma

              Metastatic ovarian serous carcinoma Metastatic ovarian serous carcinoma

              Metastatic ovarian serous carcinoma


              PAX8: endometrial CA, clear cell RCC

              Endometrial adenocarcinoma, clear cell RCC

              Ovarian cancer

              Thyroid follicular cells

              Papillary thyroid carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1

              A biopsy of 1 of multiple liver lesions in a 64 year old woman reveals metastatic carcinoma of unknown primary. The lesion is found to be strongly and diffusely CK7 and PAX8 positive. Carcinomas from which of the following primary sites of origin are PAX8 negative, thus eliminating this body site from the differential diagnosis?

              1. Endometrium
              2. Lung
              3. Ovary
              4. Thyroid
              Board review style answer #1
              B. Lung

              Comment Here

              Reference: PAX8

              PCNA
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              • Proliferating Cell Nuclear Antigen
              • Also called cyclin
              • Nonhistone 36 kDa nuclear protein with a role in DNA synthesis, DNA repair, and cell cycle progression
              • Coordinates synthesis of both leading and lagging strands at the replication fork during DNA replication
              • Expression correlates with proliferation activity

              PDGFRA
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              • Platelet Derived Growth Factor, also called c-sis
              • Produced and secreted by megakaryocytes, activated vascular endothelial cells, macrophages, fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells
              • Composed of combinations of A and B isoforms (AA, AB, BB)
              • PDGF alpha receptor binds to all 3 isoforms; PDGF beta receptor binds only to BB with high affinity
              • Chondrosarcoma: high expression of PDGF alpha receptor associated with poorer overall survival (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1520)
              • Ovarian cancer: PDGF alpha receptor expression associated with shorter overall survival

              PDL1 22C3
              Definition / general
              • Programmed death ligand 1 (PDL1) is an immune checkpoint protein expressed on activated immune cells and tumor cells (Cancer Epidemiol Biomarkers Prev 2014;23:2965, Cancer Immunol Res 2014;2:361)
              • Coinhibitory factor that binds receptors programmed cell death 1 (PD1) and B7-1 on the surface of activated T cells to regulate the immune response and limit autoimmunity
              • Expression of PDL1 in cancer is an adaptive immune resistance mechanism to avoid T cell mediated anticancer immune response
              Essential features
              • PDL1 (22C3) is the FDA approved companion diagnostic to pembrolizumab in certain clinical scenarios for:
                • Non-small cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC)
                • Cervical squamous cell carcinoma and endocervical adenocarcinoma
                • Urothelial carcinoma
                • Head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC)
                • Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (ESCC)
                • Triple negative breast cancer (TNBC)
                • Note: indication for gastric / gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma was withdrawn on 9/2022
              • Scoring of PDL1 (22C3) is tumor site specific
              Terminology
              • Alternative names: PDCD1 ligand 1, PDCD1L1, cluster of differentiation 274 (CD274), B7 homolog 1 (B7-H1), pharmDX PD-L1 (22C3)
              Pathophysiology
              • PDL1 is an immune checkpoint protein that regulates the immune response to prevent excessive / chronic autoimmune inflammation
              • Normally expressed on activated immune cells (e.g., antigen presenting cells and B cells)
              • Expression induced in response to inflammation and high level cytokine expression (IFNγ)
              • Binds regulatory surface receptors PD1 and B7 on CD8+ T cells
              • Inhibits T cell activation and induces T cell exhaustion (Nat Rev Cancer 2012;12:252, Nat Med 2002;8:793)
              • Cancers can express PDL1 as an adaptive immune resistance mechanism to attenuate the host antitumor immune response
              • Selective blockade of the PD1 / PDL1 axis is used as a therapeutic strategy in the treatment of multiple cancers to prevent T cell inhibition and reactivate T cell mediated tumor cell killing
              Clinical features
              • PDL1 (22C3) is the companion diagnostic to pembrolizumab, a humanized monoclonal PD1 blocking antibody
              • FDA approval for pembrolizumab for non-small cell lung carcinoma based on results of KEYNOTE-010 and KEYNOTE-024 clinical trials (Lancet 2016;387:1540, N Engl J Med 2016;375:1823)
              • Pembrolizumab is indicated for the treatment of patients with metastatic non-small cell lung carcinoma whose tumors have high PDL1 expression (tumor proportion score ≥ 50%), with no EGFR or ALK genomic tumor aberrations and no prior systemic chemotherapy treatment for metastatic non-small cell lung carcinoma
              • Pembrolizumab is indicated for the treatment of patients with metastatic non-small cell lung carcinoma whose tumors express PDL1 (tumor proportion score ≥ 1%) with disease progression on or after platinum containing chemotherapy
                • Patients with EGFR or ALK genomic tumor aberrations should have disease progression of FDA approved therapy for these aberrations prior to receiving pembrolizumab
              • FDA approval for pembrolizumab for patients with previously treated advanced cervical cancer based on results of KEYNOTE-158 clinical trial (J Clin Oncol 2019;37:1470)
              • FDA approval for pembrolizumab for patients ineligible for cisplatin containing chemotherapy with locally advanced or metastatic urothelial carcinoma based on the KEYNOTE-052 clinical trial (Lancet Oncol 2017;18:1483)
              • FDA approval for pembrolizumab as first line treatment for patients with recurrent or metastatic head and neck squamous cell carcinoma based on the KEYNOTE-048 clinical trial (Lancet 2019;394:1915)
              • FDA approval for pembrolizumab for advanced / metastatic triple negative breast cancer based on results of KEYNOTE-355 clinical trial (J Clin Oncol 2020;38:1000)
              • FDA approval for pembrolizumab for recurrent locally advanced or metastatic esophageal squamous cell carcinoma based on KEYNOTE-181 clinical trial (J Clin Oncol 2020;38:4138)
              Tissue handling
              • PharmDX PDL1 (22C3) assay is an immunohistochemical assay using monoclonal mouse anti-PDL1 clone 22C3 that targets the extracellular domain of PDL1
              • Intended for use in the assessment of PDL1 protein in either tumor cells or tumor infiltrating immune cells in the formalin fixed, paraffin embedded tissues
              • Assay includes EnVision FLEX visualization system reagents, performed on an Autostainer Link 48
              • Tissue fixed in 10% neutral buffered formalin, feasibility studies were performed on tissues fixed for between 12 - 72 hours; tissues with fixation times of < 3 hours should not be used for PDL1 assessment
              • Not validated for decalcified specimens
              • Avoid performing on stored precut unstained slides that are older than 6 months
              • Testing must be performed according to standardized analytically validated protocols
              • References: Agilent: PD-L1 IHC 22C3 pharmDx Overview [Accessed 2 February 2023], Agilent: PD-L1 IHC 22C3 pharmDx Interpretation Manual - NSCLC [Accessed 2 March 2023]
              Interpretation
              • Minimum of 100 viable tumor cells must be present for evaluation
              • Scoring in necrotic areas should be avoided
              • Any degree of staining intensity (1+ to 3+) counts towards scoring
              • Scoring is tumor site dependent
              • Staining can be present in both immune cell (IC) and tumor cell (TC) components
              • Tumor cells
                • Only membrane staining should be evaluated
                • Partial or complete membrane staining is included
                • Cytoplasmic staining is not included
              • Immune cells
                • Membrane and cytoplasmic staining are often indistinguishable due to high N:C ratio
                • Therefore, both membrane and cytoplasmic staining of inflammatory cells are included
                • Only staining in lymphocytes and macrophages is counted
                • Staining in neutrophils, eosinophils and plasma cells is not counted
              • Recommended control tissue: benign human tonsil

              Non-small cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC)
              • Evaluated using a tumor proportion score (TPS)
                • TPS is the percentage of viable tumor cells showing partial or complete membrane staining (≥ 1+) relative to all viable tumor cells present in the sample
                • Specimen should be considered to have PDL1 expression if TPS ≥ 1% and high PDL1 expression if TPS ≥ 50%

                TPS = Number of PDL1 positive tumor cells × 100
                Total number of PDL1 positive + PDL1 negative tumor cells

              • Divided into 3 levels:
                • TPS < 1%: no PDL1 expression
                • TPS 1 - 49%: PDL1 expression
                • TPS ≥ 50%: high PDL1 expression

              Cervical carcinoma
              • Expression is determined by using combined positive score (CPS)
                • CPS is the number of PDL1 staining cells (tumor cells, lymphocytes, macrophages) divided by the total number of viable tumor cells, multiplied by 100
                • Specimen should be considered to have PDL1 expression if CPS is ≥ 1
                • Cells in the numerator include all viable invasive tumor cells and mononuclear immune cells directly associated with the response to the tumor (lymphocytes and macrophages within tumor nests and adjacent supporting stroma); adjacent mononuclear immune cells are defined as being within the same 20x field as the tumor

                CPS = Number of PDL1 staining cells (tumor cells, lymphocytes, macrophages) × 100
                Total number of viable tumor cells

              • CPS value can be > 100 but the maximum value reported is 100
              • Divided into 2 groups:
                • CPS < 1: no PDL1 expression
                • CPS ≥ 1: PDL1 expression

              Urothelial carcinoma
              • Expression is determined by using combined positive score (CPS)
                • CPS is the number of PDL1 staining cells (tumor cells, lymphocytes, macrophages) divided by the total number of viable tumor cells, multiplied by 100
                • Specimen should be considered to have PDL1 expression if CPS is ≥ 10
                • Cells in the numerator include all viable tumor cells (including high grade papillary carcinoma, carcinoma in situ, any lamina propria, muscularis or serosal invasion, metastatic carcinoma) and mononuclear immune cells directly associated with the response to the tumor (lymphocytes and macrophages within tumor nests and adjacent supporting stroma); adjacent mononuclear immune cells are defined as being within the same 20x field as the tumor
              • Divided into 2 groups:
                • CPS < 10
                • CPS ≥ 10

              Head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC)
              • Expression is determined by using combined positive score (CPS)
                • CPS is the number of PDL1 staining cells (tumor cells, lymphocytes, macrophages) divided by the total number of viable tumor cells, multiplied by 100
                • PDL1 expression (CPS ≥ 1) is used to inform patient eligibility for first line therapy with pembrolizumab
                • Cells in the numerator include all viable invasive tumor cells and mononuclear immune cells directly associated with the response to the tumor (lymphocytes and macrophages within tumor nests and adjacent supporting stroma); adjacent mononuclear immune cells are defined as being within the same 20x field as the tumor
              • Divided into 3 groups:
                • CPS < 1: no PDL1 expression
                • CPS ≥ 1: PDL1 expression
                • CPS ≥ 20: PDL1 expression*
              • *PDL1 expression level CPS ≥ 20 may be of interest to treating physicians but does not determine eligibility for first line therapy

              Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (ESCC)
              • Expression is determined by using combined positive score (CPS)
                • CPS is the number of PDL1 staining cells (tumor cells, lymphocytes, macrophages) divided by the total number of viable tumor cells, multiplied by 100
                • Specimen should be considered to have PDL1 expression if CPS is ≥ 10
                • Cells in the numerator include all viable invasive tumor cells and mononuclear immune cells directly associated with the response to the tumor (lymphocytes and macrophages within tumor nests and adjacent supporting stroma); adjacent mononuclear immune cells are defined as being within the same 20x field as the tumor
              • Divided into 2 groups:
                • CPS < 10: no PDL1 expression
                • CPS ≥ 10: PDL1 expression

              Triple negative breast cancer (TNBC)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Current companion diagnostic indications for PDL1 (22C3) include non-small cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC), cervical carcinoma (including cervical squamous cell carcinoma and endocervical adenocarcinoma), urothelial carcinoma, head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC), advanced / metastatic triple negative breast cancer (TNBC), esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (ESCC)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Gary Tozbikian, M.D.
              Cervix, invasive squamous cell carcinoma Cervix, invasive squamous cell carcinoma

              Cervix, invasive squamous cell carcinoma

              Bladder, invasive urothelial carcinoma with sarcomatoid differentiation Bladder, invasive urothelial carcinoma with sarcomatoid differentiation

              Bladder, invasive urothelial carcinoma with sarcomatoid differentiation

              Recurrent triple negative invasive breast cancer (NST) Recurrent triple negative invasive breast cancer (NST)

              Recurrent triple negative invasive breast cancer (NST)

              Positive staining - normal
              • Immune cells (nontumoral)
              • Tonsil (control tissue) in follicular macrophages (weak moderate) and reticulated crypt epithelial cells (strong)
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Tonsil (control tissue) in superficial squamous epithelium, fibroblasts and endothelium
              Sample pathology report
              • Liver, core needle biopsy:
                • Metastatic breast carcinoma involving liver (see comment)
                  • PDL1 (Ventana 22C3): Positive (CPS ≥ 10)
                • Comment: PDL1 IHC (clone 22C3, pharmDx) is an FDA approved companion diagnostic for selecting patients with triple negative breast cancer for pembrolizumab performed on a Dako Autostainer Link 48. Pembrolizumab (Keytruda) is indicated for the treatment of patients with unresectable locally advanced or metastatic triple negative, PDL1 positive breast cancer.
                • Tumor cells and mononuclear inflammatory cells (within tumor nests or adjacent supporting stroma) with partial or complete linear membrane staining if at least 1+ intensity are scored as positive. PDL1 expression in triple negative breast cancer is determined by using combined positive score (CPS), which is the number of PDL1 staining cells (tumor cells, lymphocytes, macrophages) divided by the total number of viable tumor cells, multiplied by 100. The combined positive score is estimated by manual quantification. Scoring is as follows: CPS < 10 negative, CPS ≥ 10 positive. The sample is adequate if ≥ 100 tumor cells are present. Certain tissue processing factors, such as decalcification, formalin fixation time outside an acceptable range (< 3 hours), prolonged time to fixation and use of tissue from blocks that are 6 months or older, can affect PDL1 staining / expression and results should be interpreted with caution in such instances. This assay is not validated for decalcified specimens.
                • All controls show appropriate reactivity. All immunohistochemistry, in situ hybridization and histochemical tests were developed by and are performed at the ___ Laboratory. All tests reported here, except those addressing HER2, ALK and PDL1 expression as predictive markers, have not been cleared by or approved by the U.S. FDA. The laboratory is regulated under CLIA as qualified to perform high complexity testing. The tests are used for clinical purposes. They should not be regarded as investigational or for research.
                • Reference: J Clin Oncol 2020;38:1000
              Board review style question #1

              A PDL1 (22C3) immunostain is shown above. Which of the following statements regarding PDL1 (22C3) is correct?

              1. PDL1 (22C3) is the FDA approved companion diagnostic assay for nivolumab
              2. In advanced / metastatic triple negative breast cancer, PDL1 (22C3) is determined by using combined positive score (CPS), with a positive score cutoff of CPS ≥ 1
              3. In non-small cell lung carcinoma, PDL1 (22C3) is determined by using combined positive score, with a positive score cutoff of CPS ≥ 10
              4. In advanced / metastatic urothelial carcinoma, PDL1 (22C3) is determined by using tumor proportion score (TPS), with a positive score cutoff of TPS ≥ 1%
              5. In non-small cell lung carcinoma, scoring of PDL1 (22C3) is only evaluated in the tumor cell component
              Board review style answer #1
              E. In non-small cell lung carcinoma, scoring of PDL1 (22C3) is only evaluated in the tumor cell component. PDL1 (22C3) is the FDA approved companion diagnostic assay for pembrolizumab. In triple negative breast cancer and urothelial carcinoma, 22C3 is scored using combined positive score, with a cutoff of CPS ≥ 10. In non-small cell lung carcinoma, 22C3 is scored using a tumor proportion score. Tumor proportion score is scored by evaluating the PDL1 expression in the tumor cell component only.

              Comment Here

              Reference: PDL1 22C3

              PDL1 SP142
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • PDL1 SP142 is an FDA approved companion diagnostic to atezolizumab for urothelial carcinoma and advanced nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
              • Scoring of PDL1 SP142 expression in urothelial carcinoma is evaluated in immune cell component using a proportion of tumor area scoring system; cutoffs are tumor site specific
              • Scoring of PDL1 SP142 expression in NSCLC is evaluated in both the tumor cell and immune cell component
              • SP142 not interchangeable with other PDL1 assays (e.g. 22C3, SP263)
              Terminology
              • Alternative names: PDCD1 ligand 1, PDCD1L1, cluster of differentiation 274 (CD274), B7 homolog 1 (B7-H1)
              Pathophysiology
              • PDL1 is an immune checkpoint protein that regulates the immune response to prevent excessive / chronic autoimmune inflammation
              • Normally expressed on activated immune cells (e.g. antigen presenting cells and B cells)
              • Expression induced in response to inflammation and high level cytokine expression (IFNγ)
              • Binds regulatory surface receptors PD1 and B7 on CD8+ T cells
              • Inhibits T cell activation and induces T cell exhaustion (Nat Rev Cancer 2012;12:252, Nat Med 2002;8:793)
              • Cancers can express PDL1 as an adaptive immune resistance mechanism to attenuate the host antitumor immune response
              • Selective blockade of the PD1 / PDL1 axis is used as a therapeutic strategy in the treatment of multiple cancers to prevent T cell inhibition and reactivate T cell mediated tumor cell killing
              Clinical features
              Uses by pathologists
              • Current companion diagnostic indications for VENTANA PDL1 SP142 include urothelial carcinoma
              • PDL1 SP142 assay has FDA regulatory status as a companion diagnostic for advanced squamous and nonsquamous nonsmall cell lung cancer (NSCLC) without EGFR or ALK mutations with high PDL1 expression
              Tissue handling
              • VENTANA PDL1 SP142 assay is a qualitative immunohistochemical assay using rabbit monoclonal anti-PDL1 clone SP142 that targets the intracellular domain of PDL1
              • Intended for use in the assessment of PDL1 protein in tumor infiltrating immune cells and in tumor cells in the formalin fixed, paraffin embedded tissues
              • Assay includes OptiView DAB IHC Detection Kit and OptiView Amplification Kit, performed on a VENTANA BenchMark ULTRA instrument
              • Not validated for cytology specimens
              • Not validated for decalcified specimens
              • Tissue fixed in 10% neutral buffered formalin between 6 - 72 hours
              • Adequacy requires 50 viable tumor cells with associated tumoral stroma
              • Avoid performing on stored precut unstained slides that are older than 2 months
              • Testing must be performed according to standardized analytically validated protocols
              • Recommended control tissue: benign human tonsil
              • Reference: J Thorac Dis 2019;11:S89, Roche: VENTANA PD-L1 (SP142) Assay Interpretation Guide for Urothelial Carcinoma [Accessed 8 September 2021]
              Interpretation
              • PDL1 SP142 staining can be present in both immune cell (IC) and tumor cell (TC) components
              • In urothelial carcinoma, only immune cell staining is counted towards scoring; tumor cell staining is ignored
              • Immune cell staining characteristics (evaluate): punctate, incomplete, membranous staining pattern
              • Tumor cell staining characteristics (ignore): membranous, linear, partial to complete circumferential staining pattern
              • Any degree of intensity staining in immune cells counts towards scoring
              • Any cell type of immune cell staining (e.g. lymphocyte, neutrophil, macrophage) counts towards scoring
              • Avoid scoring in necrotic areas
              • Avoid scoring immune cells within intravascular spaces
              • Scoring method: proportion of tumor area scoring system
                • Calculate the proportion of PDL1 positive tumor infiltrating immune cells as a percentage of total tumor area
              • Total tumor area: defined as the area occupied by tumor cells as well as their associated intratumoral and contiguous peritumoral stroma
              • Triple negative breast cancer (note: testing has now been withdrawn):
                • Negative: absence of any discernible staining or presence of discernible staining of any intensity in tumor infiltrating immune cells covering < 1% of tumor area occupied by tumor cells, associated intratumoral and contiguous peritumoral stroma
                • Positive: presence of discernible staining of any intensity in tumor infiltrating immune cells covering ≥ 1% of tumor area occupied by tumor cells, associated intratumoral and contiguous peritumoral stroma
              • Urothelial carcinoma:
                • Negative: absence of any discernible staining or presence of discernible staining of any intensity in tumor infiltrating immune cells covering < 5% of tumor area occupied by tumor cells, associated intratumoral and contiguous peritumoral stroma
                • Positive: presence of discernible staining of any intensity in tumor infiltrating immune cells covering ≥ 5% of tumor area occupied by tumor cells, associated intratumoral and contiguous peritumoral stroma
              • Non small cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC):
                • Step 1: tumor cell staining assessment
                  • Positive: presence of discernible membrane staining of any intensity in ≥ 50% of tumor cells
                  • Negative: absence of any discernible staining or presence of discernible membrane staining of any intensity in < 50% of tumor cells (proceed to step 2)
                • Step 2: immune cell staining assessment
                  • Positive: presence of discernible staining of any intensity in tumor infiltrating immune cells covering ≥ 10% of tumor area occupied by tumor cells, associated intratumoral and contiguous peritumoral stroma
                  • Negative: absence of any discernible staining or presence of discernible staining of any intensity in tumor infiltrating immune cells covering < 10% of tumor area occupied by tumor cells, associated intratumoral and contiguous peritumoral stroma
              • Reference: J Thorac Dis 2019;11:S89, Roche: VENTANA PD-L1 (SP142) Assay for Triple-Negative Breast Carcinoma [Accessed 11 May 2020]
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Gary Tozbikian, M.D.

              Triple negative breast carcinoma with PDL1 SP142



              Contributed by Maria Tretiakova, M.D., Ph.D.

              SP142 expression in bladder cancer

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Tonsil superficial squamous epithelium (control tissue)
              Sample pathology report
              • Right lung, core needle biopsy:
                • Metastatic mammary carcinoma involving lung
                • PDL1 (VENTANA SP142) staining in tumor infiltrating immune cells:
                  • Result: positive
                  • Proportion of tumor area occupied by PDL1 expressing tumor infiltrating immune cells (percentage IC): 3%
                  • Comment: PD-L1 is evaluated by manual quantitative immunohistochemistry on formalin fixed (for >6 and <72 hours if possible), paraffin embedded tissue using the FDA approved clone SP142 (Ventana Medical Systems), OptiView DAB IHC Detection Kit and OptiView Amplification Kit on a Ventana BenchMark ULTRA instrument. The result is reported as proportion of tumor area occupied by PD-L1 expressing tumor infiltrating immune cells (percentage IC) including lymphocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells and granulocytes. Neutrophils in vessels, serum and necrosis are excluded. Tumor area is defined as the area containing viable tumor cells, the associated intratumoral stroma and contiguous peritumoral stroma. Staining is usually punctate but may be circumferential. Staining of any intensity is included. Proportion of tumor area occupied by tumor infiltrating immune cells with expression (percentage IC) is scored as <1% negative or ≥1% positive. If the specimen has been decalcified, exceeds cold ischemic time or is outside the recommended range for formalin fixation time, the results should be interpreted with caution. This assay has not been validated for decalcified specimens, cytology specimens and specimens in which the cold ischemic/fixation time is unknown. All controls show appropriate reactivity. All immunohistochemistry, in situ hybridization and histochemical tests were developed and are performed at the _____ Laboratory. All tests reported here, except those addressing HER2, ALK and PD-L1 expression as predictive markers, have not been cleared by or approved by the US FDA. The laboratory is regulated under CLIA as qualified to perform high complexity testing. The tests are used for clinical purposes. They should not be regarded as investigational or for research.
              Board review style question #1

              Which of the following statements regarding PDL1 SP142 is correct?

              1. In advanced / metastatic triple negative breast cancer, scoring is determined by using combined positive score (CPS), with a positive score cutoff of CPS ≥ 1
              2. In triple negative breast cancer, valid clinical specimens include cytology specimens
              3. In triple negative breast cancer, scoring is only evaluated in the immune cell component
              4. It is the FDA approved companion diagnostic assay for pembrolizumab
              5. Results of other PDL1 IHC assays (e.g. 22C3) are highly concordant and interchangeable
              Board review style answer #1
              C. PDL1 SP142 is the FDA approved companion diagnostic assay for atezolizumab. In urothelial carcinoma, SP142 is scored using a tumor area proportion scoring system. Cutoffs are site specific. Both primary and metastatic specimens are acceptable for evaluation, unless the specimen is decalcified. Cytology specimens are generally not validated for SP142 evaluation, due to the requirement of intact tumoral stroma for scoring. Published studies in triple negative breast cancer and other tumors have shown poor concordance of PDL1 SP142 with other PDL1 assays; the results of other non-SP142 PDL1 assays are not interchangeable or equivalent to SP142. In triple negative breast cancer and urothelial carcinoma, SP142 expression can be observed in both immune cell or tumor cell components, however only immune cell staining is counted towards scoring (Mod Pathol 2018;31:13817, N Engl J Med 2018;379:2108, Lancet Oncol 2020;21:44, Annals of Oncology 2019;30:v851).

              Comment Here

              Reference: PDL1 SP142

              PDL1 SP263 (pending)
              [Pending]

              Perforin (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              PGP9.5 (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              PHLDA1 (pending)
              [Pending]

              Phosphohistone H3
              Definition / general
              • Core histone protein that is major constituent of chromatin; marker of cells in late G2 and M phase
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain
              • Count phosphohistone H3+ objects (nuclei and mitoses) in 10 adjacent fields with 40x objective, in invasive epithelial areas with highest phosphohistone H3 staining
              • Ignore nuclei with fine granular staining
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              Normal colonic mucosa

              Missing Image

              Ki67, phosphohistone H3 and survivin

              Missing Image

              Grade 3 breast carcinoma

              Missing Image

              Thick cutaneous melanomas

              Positive staining - disease
              • Mitotic activity

              Pit1
              Definition / general
              • Pituitary adenoma / pituitary neuroendocrine tumor has traditionally been classified using a combination of immunohistochemical stains for anterior pituitary hormones, including stains for prolactin, growth hormone, thyrotrophs (TSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and the alpha subunit (ASU) of the glycoprotein hormones
              • Immunostains for anterior pituitary transcription factors, pituitary transcription factor 1 (Pit1), steroidogenic factor 1 (SF1) and T box transcription factor (Tpit) have been shown to have higher sensitivity and specificity than hormone IHC stains and are often used in conjunction with them to classify pituitary adenomas
                • Transcription factor Pit1 drives lactotroph, somatotroph and thyrotroph differentiation and IHC for Pit1 is useful in identifying pituitary adenomas in this lineage
              • Immunohistochemical stains for Pit1 identify nonneoplastic populations within the anterior pituitary, including lactotroph, somatotroph, mammosomatotroph and thyrotroph cells
                • IHC for Pit1 is principally used for identifying pituitary adenomas of the Pit1 lineage, both silent and functioning
              Essential features
              • Pit1 IHC shows strong nuclear staining
              • Pit1 is expressed in the anterior pituitary gland within normal lactotroph, somatotroph, mammosomatotroph and thyrotroph cells as well as within adenomas showing differentiation along these lines
              • As a marker of Pit1 lineage adenomas, Pit1 IHC is more sensitive and specific than IHC stain for prolactin, growth hormone and TSH (Mod Pathol 2018;31:900, Pituitary 2022;25:997)
              Terminology
              • Common name: pituitary transcription factor 1 (Pit1)
              • Formal protein name: POU class 1 homeobox 1
              • Gene name (HUGO Gene Nomenclature Committee [HGNC] approved gene symbol): POU1F1
              Pathophysiology
              • Pit1 is a pituitary specific transcription factor that drives differentiation of lactotroph, somatotroph, mammosomatotroph and thyrotroph cells
              • Rare cases of pituitary hormone deficiency can be caused by germline mutations in the gene for Pit1 (POU1F1)
              Diagrams / tables

              Contributed by William McDonald, M.D.
              Pit1 drives the lineage containing lactotroph, somatotroph, mammosomatotroph and thyrotroph cells

              Pit1 drives lineage between cells

              Pituitary adenomas with Pit1 expression

              Clinical features
              • Pit1 lineage adenomas may be hormonally functional, whispering (minimally functional) or silent
              • Functional adenomas tend to be smaller; macroadenomas are often hormonally silent
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear expression is evaluated (reactivity only in the cytoplasm is regarded as negative)
              • Pit1 immunoreactivity in Pit1 lineage adenomas is typically diffuse, strong and nuclear (score 7 or 8 in the Allred IHC scoring scale) (Mod Pathol 1998;11:155)
              • Immunoreactivity in nonneoplastic anterior pituitary gland shows moderate to strong nuclear staining in many adenohypophysis cells, corresponding to lactotroph, somatotroph, mammosomatotroph and thyrotroph cells, which comprises the majority of adenohypophysis cells
              • Pit1 lineage pituitary adenomas commonly show immunoreactivity patterns that do not neatly fit into current WHO nomenclature (Pituitary 2022;25:997)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Useful for diagnosis of Pit1 lineage adenomas
                • More sensitive than antibodies to growth hormone, prolactin or TSH (Mod Pathol 2018;31:900, Pituitary 2022;25:997)
                • Also present within normal anterior pituitary gland, so the presence of pituitary adenoma must be supported by morphology in H&E stains, occasionally with the support of ancillary stains such as reticulin or other transcription factors
              • Often used in conjunction with IHC for SF1 and Tpit to establish the lineage of a pituitary adenoma (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2021;145:592, Endocr Pathol 2015;26:349)
              Prognostic factors
              • Pit1 IHC by itself is not prognostic
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by William McDonald, M.D.

              Normal adenohypophysis

              Pituitary adenoma associated with acromegaly

              Lactotroph adenoma

              Plurihormonal Pit1 lineage tumor

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Sample pathology report
              • Sella turcica, resection:
                • Pituitary adenoma (pituitary neuroendocrine tumor), somatotroph type (see comment)
                • Comment: This tumor shows diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity for Pit1 and no immunoreactivity for SF1, Tpit, prolactin or TSH. Immunoreactivity for growth hormone is strong and a low molecular weight cytokeratin CAM5.2 immunostain shows diffuse cytoplasmic staining without a prominent globular pattern, suggesting that this is a densely granulated subtype of somatotroph adenoma.
                • Clinical information (mandatory to include): The patient presented with enlargement of hands and feet and coarsening of facial features. Magnetic resonance imaging showed a 16 mm hypoenhancing mass within the pituitary gland.
                • Available preoperative endocrine testing (also mandatory):
                  • IGF1: 858 (33 - 220 ng/mL)
                  • GH: 16 (0.01 - 0.97 ng/mL)
                  • PRL: 6.70 (2.64 - 13.13 ng/mL)
                  • Cortisol: 9.5 (a.m. draw 5.0 - 25.0 ug/dL)
                  • TSH: 1.02 (0.35 - 4.94 uIU/mL)
              Board review style question #1

              A 61 year old man presents with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. MRI reveals a 2.5 cm sellar and suprasellar tumor. No signs or symptoms of hormone excess are clinically present. Hormone testing confirms low serum testosterone and minimally elevated serum prolactin, attributed to stalk effect. Transsphenoidal resection confirms pituitary adenoma by H&E stain. The adenoma shows immunohistochemical staining as illustrated above. How is this adenoma best classified?

              1. Corticotroph adenoma
              2. Gonadotroph adenoma
              3. Mature plurihormonal Pit1 lineage adenoma
              4. Null cell adenoma
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Mature plurihormonal Pit1 lineage adenoma. This otherwise clinically silent adenoma became symptomatic when hypogonadism was detected. Strong, diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity for Pit1, widespread prolactin immunoreactivity and patchy growth hormone and TSH immunoreactivity are present; immunoreactivity for both GATA3 and estrogen receptors is also present. Diffuse, cytoplasmic staining for CAM5.2 is also observed. Corticotroph adenoma (answer A) would have strong, diffuse Tpit immunoreactivity with variable ACTH staining and low molecular weight cytokeratin positivity. Gonadotroph adenoma (answer B) often presents in a similar fashion as a clinically nonfunctioning macroadenoma; therefore, it would have SF1 immunoreactivity and lack staining for Pit1. Null cell adenoma (answer D) by definition lacks hormone or transcription factor immunostaining.

              Comment Here

              Reference: Pit1

              PLAG1
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              • PLeomorphic Adenoma Gene 1, at 8q12, often due to t(3;8)(p21;q12) involving CTNNB1 and PLAG1 genes
              • Proto-oncogene consistently rearranged in pleomorphic adenomas of salivary glands in both epithelial and myoepithelial cells (Mod Pathol 2005;18:1048)

              PLAP
              Definition / general
              • Placental-like alkaline phosphatase, a marker of germ cell tumors, especially seminoma
              • Sensitive but not a specific marker
              Essential features
              • Placental-like alkaline phosphatase, part of a family of alkaline phosphatases with 4 members
              • High levels in serum of seminoma patients (sensitive) but also detected in several normal and disease conditions (not specific)
              • Sensitive immunohistochemical marker for germ cell neoplasms (testicular, ovarian and extra gonadal) and germ cell neoplasia in situ (GCNIS) but not specific
              • Virtually always positive (strong and diffuse) in seminomas; useful for discriminating from spermatocytic tumor
              Terminology
              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              • Membranous and cytoplasmic staining are expected
              Uses by pathologists
              • Supporting diagnosis of germ cell neoplasms, including the precursor lesion germ cell neoplasia in situ and overt germ cell tumors (testicular, ovarian and extra gonadal)
              • Mainly a marker of seminoma (also dysgerminoma and germinoma of the brain) - positive in up to 100% of seminomas, strong diffuse positivity; useful for distinguishing seminoma from spermatocytic tumor
              • Also frequent low intensity and focal expression in embryonal carcinoma and yolk sac tumor (in 85 - 97% of the cases)
              • Focal positivity in cytotrophoblast cells of choriocarcinomas and in immature teratoma elements may be seen (Urol Res 1990;18:87, Am J Surg Pathol 1987;11:21, Eur J Obstet Gynecol Reprod Biol 1998;81:123, J Neurosurg 1985;63:733)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by João Lobo, M.D. and Rui Henrique, M.D., Ph.D.

              Seminoma

              PLAP staining in seminoma


              Seminoma

              Seminoma

              GCNIS


              GCNIS

              Yolk sac tumor

              Yolk sac tumor


              Embryonal carcinoma

              Embryonal carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1
                Which of the following sentences is true about the immunohistochemistry marker PLAP?

              1. It is specific for seminoma histology
              2. Staining is observed in germ cell tumors of the testis but not in ovarian ones
              3. Nuclear staining is expected
              4. Staining is evident across histologies, including in spermatocytic tumor
              5. It is useful for detecting germ cell neoplasia in situ
              Board review style answer #1
              E. PLAP is positive and useful for spotting germ cell neoplasia in situ. Despite being a sensitive marker, it is not specific for seminoma, being positive in several other tumors (both germ cell and nongerm cell malignancies) and normal tissues. Staining is membrane and cytoplasmic. It is useful for distinguishing seminoma from spermatocytic tumor, an important differential diagnosis, since spermatocytic tumor is negative.

              Comment Here

              Reference: PLAP

              PMS2
              Definition / general
              • PMS2 is a component of the DNA mismatch repair system
              • The PMS2 gene (on chromosome 7) encodes an endonuclease that forms a heterodimer with MLH1 to form the MutL alpha complex which is activated upon recognition of DNA mismatches, insertions or deletions by MutS alpha and MutS beta heterodimers
              Essential features
              • Germ line mutations in PMS2 are associated with increased risk of colorectal cancer, hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, Lynch syndrome, Turcot syndrome and endometrial cancer
              • Milder microsatellite instability (less risk of developing cancer compared to MLH1 mutations)
              • Deficiency in PMS2 is usually due to epigenetic repression (via mutations in or hypermethylation of MLH1)
              Terminology
              • PMS1 homolog 2, mismatch repair system component, HNPCC4, PMS2L, PMSL2, MLH4
              Epidemiology
              Sites
              • Ubiquitous nuclear expression in normal tissue
              Pathophysiology
              • Genetic alterations in PMS2 contribute to DNA mismatch repair deficiency that leads to microsatellite instability and increased risk of cancer
              • PMS2 is unstable in absence of MLH1
              • Loss of expression of MLH1 due to mutations generally leads to loss of expression PMS2 as well (Adv Anat Pathol 2009;16:405; Exp Rev Mol Diagnostics 2016;16:591)
              Etiology
              • Germline or sporadic mutations in PMS2 lead to microsatellite instability
              Diagnosis
              • Screening: immunohistochemical (IHC) stain. Loss of nuclear staining suggests microsatellite instability
                • Lack of PMS2 staining is generally due to mutations in MLH1 and raises suspicion for germline mutations (Cancer Treat Rev 2016;51:19)
                • Missense and point mutations that lead to nonfunctional protein can result in false negative results on IHC
              • Confirmatory: molecular studies (PCR for microsatellite instability)
                • High (MSI-H): at least 2 of 5 unstable markers or greater than or equal to 30% of unstable markers
                • Low (MSI-L): one of five unstable markers or less than 30% of unstable markers
              Prognostic factors
              Case reports
              Treatment
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Normal staining pattern: nuclear
              • Cytoplasmic staining is abnormal and should not be misinterpreted as normal staining
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Mieke R. Van Bockstal, M.D., Ph.D., Jian-Hua Qiao, M.D. and Epitomics
              PMS2 deficient endometrioid carcinoma

              PMS2 deficient endometrioid carcinoma

              PMS2 deficient gastric carcinoma

              PMS2 deficient gastric carcinoma

              PMS2 proficient colon carcinoma

              PMS2 proficient colon carcinoma

              PMS2 proficient endometrial carcinosarcoma

              PMS2 proficient endometrial carcinosarcoma

              Missing Image

              Colon, normal histology epithelium

              Missing Image

              Colon cancer with loss of MLH1 and PMS2



              Images hosted on other servers:

              Sequential sections of the same colon crypt

              Sequential sections of
              a segment of colon
              epithelium near a
              colorectal cancer

              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • National Cancer Institute recommendations: 5 microsatellite markers (BAT25, BAT26, N2S123, N5S346 and D17S250) for sequencing (Cancer Res 1998;58:5248) (additional markers may be used, however, there is no consensus on which markers to use)
              • Sanger sequencing for germline mutations
              • Multiplex ligation dependent probe amplification for large copy number variant detection
              • Next generation sequencing

              PRAME
              Definition / general
              • PRAME: preferentially expressed antigen in melanoma (Immunity 1997;6:199)
              • Cancer testis antigen expressed by melanoma and other malignant neoplasms with expression in normal tissue largely restricted to testis (Immunity 1997;6:199)
              Essential features
              • Diffusely positive in most melanomas
              • Usually negative or nondiffuse / focal immunoreactivity in nevi, other benign neoplasms and most normal adult tissue (except for testis and a few other tissues which express PRAME)
              • Other malignant tumors, including certain sarcomas, carcinomas and hematolymphoid neoplasms, can show variable extent of PRAME staining in subsets of cases
              Terminology
              • Less frequently known as MAPE (melanoma antigen preferentially expressed in tumors) and OIP4 (Opa interacting protein 4) (Mol Cancer 2010;9:226)
              Pathophysiology
              • PRAME is a cancer testis antigen that was first identified by autologous T cell epitope cloning in a patient with metastatic cutaneous melanoma (Immunity 1997;6:199)
              • Belongs to family of non-X cancer testis antigens, mapping to autosome (chromosome 22) versus classical cancer testis antigens, such as MAGE-A, NY-ESO-1, mapping to chromosome X (Nat Rev Cancer 2005;5:615)
              • Expressed in most cutaneous and ocular melanomas but also in nonmelanocytic malignant tumors, including some carcinomas, leukemias, lymphomas and sarcomas (Immunity 1997;6:199, Int J Surg Pathol 2021;29:826, Am J Surg Pathol 2022;46:1467)
              • Most benign adult tissue shows low or absent PRAME mRNA expression, except for testis (high level expression), ovary, placenta, adrenals and endometrium (Immunity 1997;6:199)
              • PRAME acts as a repressor of the retinoic acid receptor (RAR) signaling pathway (Cell 2005;122:835)
              Diagrams / tables
              No information provided
              Clinical features
              No information provided
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              • PRAME mRNA expression level has been identified as a biomarker for metastatic risk stratification of uveal melanomas and is part of a 12 gene expression prognostic assay (Clin Cancer Res 2016;22:1234, Oncotarget 2016;7:59209)
              • Possible prognostic implications of PRAME expression in other tumor types remain under study
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • PRAME expression is characterized as diffuse when positive nuclear staining is present in over 75% of tumor cells (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:1456)
              • Immunohistochemistry for PRAME can be combined with MelanA in a dual PRAME / MelanA immunostain (e.g., for easier assessment of small melanocytic deposits in lymph nodes) (Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:503)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Cecilia Lezcano, M.D.
              PRAME in normal testis

              PRAME in normal testis

              Primary cutaneous melanoma

              Primary cutaneous melanoma

              PRAME in primary cutaneous melanoma

              PRAME in primary cutaneous melanoma

              Melanoma metastasis

              Melanoma metastasis


              PRAME positive melanoma metastasis RAME positive melanoma metastasis

              PRAME positive melanoma metastasis

              Nevus

              Nevus

              PRAME immunostain in nevus

              PRAME immunostain in nevus

              Virtual slides
              No information provided
              Positive staining - normal
              • In testis, cells of early spermatogenesis located close to the basal membrane of the seminiferous tubules show nuclear positive staining (Int J Surg Pathol 2021;29:826)
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              No information provided
              Molecular / cytogenetics images
              No information provided
              Sample pathology report
              • Skin, temple, shave biopsy:
                • Melanoma in situ (see comment)
                • Comment: Sections show a lentiginous intraepidermal proliferation of atypical melanocytes with occasional nests, multifocal pagetoid spread and diffuse immunoreactivity for PRAME, which is consistent with this diagnosis.
              Additional references
              No information provided
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following statements regarding PRAME immunohistochemistry is correct?

              1. All melanomas are positive for PRAME
              2. Benign nevi never show immunoreactivity for PRAME
              3. Diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity for PRAME is seen in a majority of melanomas
              4. Melanoma is the only malignant neoplasm that expresses PRAME
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity for PRAME is seen in the majority of melanomas (positive in approximately 75% or more of primary and metastatic tumors). Answer A is incorrect because some primary and metastatic melanomas can be completely negative for PRAME or show only focal expression. Answer B is incorrect because nevi can occasionally show staining for PRAME, usually in a nondiffuse pattern. Answer D is incorrect because the majority of synovial sarcomas and myxoid liposarcomas diffusely express PRAME. Other tumors, including carcinomas of various origins, can also show variable extent of staining for PRAME.

              Comment Here

              Reference: PRAME

              PRAME
              Definition / general
              • PRAME: preferentially expressed antigen in melanoma (Immunity 1997;6:199)
              • Cancer testis antigen expressed by melanoma and other malignant neoplasms with expression in normal tissue largely restricted to testis (Immunity 1997;6:199)
              Essential features
              • Diffusely positive in most melanomas
              • Usually negative or nondiffuse / focal immunoreactivity in nevi, other benign neoplasms and most normal adult tissue (except for testis and a few other tissues which express PRAME)
              • Other malignant tumors, including certain sarcomas, carcinomas and hematolymphoid neoplasms, can show variable extent of PRAME staining in subsets of cases
              Terminology
              • Less frequently known as MAPE (melanoma antigen preferentially expressed in tumors) and OIP4 (Opa interacting protein 4) (Mol Cancer 2010;9:226)
              Pathophysiology
              • PRAME is a cancer testis antigen that was first identified by autologous T cell epitope cloning in a patient with metastatic cutaneous melanoma (Immunity 1997;6:199)
              • Belongs to family of non X cancer testis antigens, mapping to autosome (chromosome 22) versus classical cancer testis antigens, such as MAGE-A, NY-ESO-1, mapping to chromosome X (Nat Rev Cancer 2005;5:615)
              • Expressed in most cutaneous and ocular melanomas but also in nonmelanocytic malignant tumors, including some carcinomas, leukemias, lymphomas and sarcomas (Immunity 1997;6:199, Int J Surg Pathol 2021 Apr 2 [Epub ahead of print])
              • Most benign adult tissue shows low or absent PRAME mRNA expression, except for testis (high level expression), ovary, placenta, adrenals and endometrium (Immunity 1997;6:199)
              • PRAME acts as a repressor of the retinoic acid receptor (RAR) signaling pathway (Cell 2005;122:835)
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              • PRAME mRNA expression level has been identified as a biomarker for metastatic risk stratification of uveal melanomas and is part of a 12 gene expression prognostic assay (Clin Cancer Res 2016;22:1234, Oncotarget 2016;7:59209)
              • Possible prognostic implications of PRAME expression in other tumor types remain under study
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • PRAME expression is characterized as diffuse when positive nuclear staining is present in over 75% of tumor cells (Am J Surg Pathol 2018;42:1456)
              • Immunohistochemistry for PRAME can be combined with MelanA in a dual PRAME / MelanA immunostain (e.g. for easier assessment of small melanocytic deposits in lymph nodes) (Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:503)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Cecilia Lezcano, M.D.
              PRAME in normal testis

              PRAME in normal testis

              Primary cutaneous melanoma

              Primary cutaneous melanoma

              PRAME in primary cutaneous melanoma

              PRAME in primary cutaneous melanoma

              Melanoma metastasis

              Melanoma metastasis


              PRAME positive melanoma metastasis RAME positive melanoma metastasis

              PRAME positive melanoma metastasis

              Nevus

              Nevus

              PRAME immunostain in nevus

              PRAME immunostain in nevus

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Sample pathology report
              • Skin, temple, shave:
                • Melanoma in situ (see comment)
                • Comment: Sections show a lentiginous intraepidermal proliferation of atypical melanocytes with occasional nests, multifocal pagetoid spread and diffuse immunoreactivity for PRAME, which is consistent with this diagnosis.
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following statements regarding PRAME immunohistochemistry is correct?

              1. All melanomas are positive for PRAME
              2. Benign nevi never show immunoreactivity for PRAME
              3. Diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity for PRAME is seen in a majority of melanomas
              4. Melanoma is the only malignant neoplasm that expresses PRAME
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity for PRAME is seen in the majority of melanomas (both primary and metastatic). Answer A is incorrect because some primary and metastatic melanomas can be completely negative for PRAME or show only focal expression. Answer B is incorrect because nevi can occasionally show staining for PRAME, usually in a nondiffuse pattern. Answer D is incorrect because the majority of synovial sarcomas and myxoid liposarcomas diffusely express PRAME. Other tumors, including carcinomas of various origins, can also show variable extent of staining for PRAME.

              Comment Here

              Reference: PRAME

              Prealbumin (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              Progesterone receptor
              Definition / general
              Uses by pathologists
              • In breast cancer, predicts response to tamoxifen or other anti-estrogens, only weakly associated with prognosis
                • However, compared to ER, PR staining adds only a limited amount of additional predictive information for response to hormonal therapy (Mod Pathol 2004;17:1545)
              • For metastatic tumors with unknown primary, relatively specific for breast origin (but numerous exceptions)
              • Often discordance between staining in core biopsies versus resections (Ann Oncol 2009;20:1948)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Case #125

              Breast, mucinous carcinoma

              Missing Image

              Breast, invasive ductal carcinoma

              Missing Image

              Cervix, metastatic breast cancer

              Missing Image

              Uterus, endometrial polyp



              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              Bladder, metastatic breast cancer

              Missing Image

              Breast: invasive ductal carcinoma

              Missing Image

              Uterus, endometrial stromal sarcoma

              Missing Image

              Uterus: leiomyoma

              Missing Image

              Uterus: atypical leiomyoma

              Missing Image

              Uterus: STUMP

              Positive staining - normal
              • Breast epithelial cells, Toker cells; endocervical epithelial cells
              Positive staining - disease
              • Breast: fibroadenoma (stromal cells), myofibroblastoma, phyllodes tumors (epithelial cells), pseudoangiomatous stromal hyperplasia
              • Breast carcinoma (usually well differentiated tumors, lobular, mucinous/colloid, sebaceous); endometrial adenocarcinoma (75-96%)
              • Cervical carcinoma: endometrioid, minimal deviation
              • Endometriosis (glands and stroma)
              • Kidney: mixed epithelial and stromal tumor
              • Liver: biliary cystadenoma (stroma), hepatic adenoma
              • Lymphangiomyomatosis
              • Ovarian tumors: endometrioid, ependymoma, fibroma, granulosa cell (juvenile), mucinous borderline-endocervical type; serous (50%)
              • Soft tissue aggressive angiomyxoma, angiomyofibroblastoma, cellular angiofibroma
              • Solitary fibrous tumor
              • Uterus: endometrial carcinoma, endometrial stromal tumors, leiomyoma, STUMP (Diagn Pathol 2012;7:1)
              Negative staining
              • Breast: apocrine metaplasia and carcinomas, microglandular adenosis, myoepithelium and myoepithelial tumors
              • Breast carcinomas-various (triple negative, including adenosquamous, basal-like, BRCA1-related, medullary, metaplastic; also lipid-rich)
              • Endocervical adenocarcinoma, ovarian clear cell carcinoma
              • Salivary gland intraductal and other carcinomas
              • Soft tissue: fibromastosis
              • Uterus: serous carcinoma

              Programmed death-1 (PD-1)
              Definition / general
              • Programmed cell death-1 (PD-1)
              • Co-inhibitory checkpoint receptor
              • 1 of 5 receptors within the CD28 coreceptor family [CD28, inducible T cell costimulatory (ICOS), cytotoxic T lymphocyte associated antigen 4 (CTLA4), B and T lymphocyte associated (BTLA)] that regulate the balance between T cell activation and immune tolerance
              • Monomeric, not homodimeric like other CD28 coreceptors
              • Known ligands are PDL1 (B7H1; CD274) and PDL2 (B7DC; CD273)
              Essential features
              • Co-inhibitory checkpoint receptor
              • Highly expressed in normal T follicular helper cells (TFH)
              • Expressed in neoplastic cells of angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma (AITL), nodal lymphomas of TFH origin and T lymphocytes of primary cutaneous CD4+ small / medium T cell lymphoproliferative disorder
              • Expressed on nonneoplastic T cells, which form rosettes around lymphocyte predominant (LP) cells of nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL) and Hodgkin cells in classic Hodgkin lymphoma (CHL)
              • Targeted by monoclonal antibodies (nivolumab or pembrolizumab) to prevent inhibitory immune signaling and unleash the immune system to fight cancer (more commonly used and standardized for melanoma and non small cell lung cancer and less frequently used for hematologic malignancies such as Hodgkin lymphoma) (Int J Mol Sci 2021;22:6288)
              Terminology
              • CD279
              • Programmed cell death protein 1 (encoded by PDCD1 at chromosome 2q37.3)
              Pathophysiology
              • Expressed on T cells upon T cell receptor (TCR) engagement to decrease T cell activation through inhibitory signaling
              • Binding of PD-1 to PDL1 / PDL2 allows SHP1 / SHP2, intracellular phosphatases, to inhibit TCR / CD28 induced signaling (J Exp Med 2012;209:1201)
              • PD-1 usually binds PDL1 / PDL2 in trans (T cell with PD-1 and antigen presenting cell [APC] / cancer cell with PDL1 / PDL2); however, PD-1 can also bind PDL1 in cis on APCs (Cell Rep 2018;24:379)
              • Highly expressed by germinal center associated helper T cells / T follicular helper cells (TFH); inhibits T cell activation (Immunol Lett 2002;83:215, Am J Surg Pathol 2006;30:802)
              • Also expressed by CD8+ T cells and can be induced in CD4+ regulatory T cells (Tregs), B cells, NK cells, monocytes and myeloid derived dendritic cells leading to inhibitory signaling within these cell types (Nat Rev Immunol 2018;18:153)
              Clinical features
              • High and sustained PD-1 expression and binding with PDL1 or PDL2 is associated with T cell exhaustion, secondary to chronic viral infection and cancer
              • Inhibition of PD-1 signaling is a major target in cancer immunotherapy to unleash the immune system to fight cancer (melanoma, carcinoma, classic Hodgkin lymphoma, etc.)
              • PD-1 / PDL1 inhibition can precipitate autoimmune endocrinopathies, confirming that PD-1 is important for maintaining self tolerance and preventing autoimmunity in humans (Diabetes Care 2015;38:e65)
              • PD-1 inhibition may lead to lymphoid proliferations that mimic lymphoma (J Cutan Pathol 2021;48:674)
              • PD-1 in T cell lymphomas may inhibit oncogenic T cell signaling and thus may be a tumor suppressor (Nature 2017;552:121)
              Interpretation
              • Membranous stain
              Uses by pathologists
              • PD-1 is a follicular helper T cell marker and helps identify neoplastic T cells in angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma and other T cell lymphomas with follicular helper phenotype (Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:178)
              • Differentiates primary cutaneous CD4 small / medium sized pleomorphic T cell lymphoproliferative disorder and mycosis fungoides (subset with PD-1 positive) from other cutaneous T cell lymphomas (usually PD-1 negative) (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:81, Am J Dermatopathol 2015;37:115)
              • PD-1+ rosettes of nonneoplastic T cells around neoplastic B cells is relatively specific for nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (Hum Pathol 2009;40:1715)
              • PD-1+ cells can be increased in reactive T cells of marginal zone lymphoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:657)
              Prognostic factors
              • Anti-PD-1 / PDL1 therapy has led to strong response in refractory / relapsed classic Hodgkin lymphoma, which typically harbors increased PD-1+ tumor infiltrating T cells and PDL1 expression by Hodgkin Reed-Sternberg cells (Blood 2018;131:68, Curr Hematol Malig Rep 2020;15:372)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Ashley Keller Volaric, M.D., Oscar Silva, M.D. Ph.D. and GenomeMe
              Angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma Angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma

              Angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma

              T cell rosettes T cell rosettes

              T cell rosettes

              Tonsil (normal), clone IHC001

              Tonsil (normal), clone IHC001

              Positive staining - normal
              • Follicular helper T cells (germinal center associated)
              • Pro-B cells
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Deletions of PD-1 have been identified in T cell lymphomas, with the highest proportion (36%, 13 out of 36) in a group of patients with advanced cutaneous T cell lymphoma (Nature 2017;552:121)
              Sample pathology report
              • Lymph node, excision:
                • Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (see comment)
                • Comment: CD20 highlights large atypical B cells within small B cell rich nodules. CD3 is positive in background small T cells with occasional CD3 positive T cell rosettes around the large atypical B cells. A PD-1 stain shows T cell rosettes encircling the large atypical B cells in the nodular areas. CD30, CD15 and EBV in situ hybridization (EBER) are negative in the large B cells.
              Board review style question #1

              PD-1+ rosettes are a relatively specific diagnostic finding for which hematolymphoid malignancy?

              1. Angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma
              2. Classic Hodgkin lymphoma
              3. Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
              4. T / histiocyte rich large B cell lymphoma
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma. PD-1 highlights a single layer of follicular helper T cells, which surround neoplastic lymphocyte predominant (LP) cells of nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma, forming rosettes. PD-1 rosettes are indicative of the interaction between follicular helper T cells and neoplastic lymphoma cells and are not observed exclusively in nodular LP Hodgkin lymphoma, although this morphologic finding is relatively specific for this entity. PD-1 rosettes can be found occasionally in cases of T / histiocyte rich large B cell lymphoma that arise from nodular LP Hodgkin lymphoma as well as in classic Hodgkin lymphoma (lymphocyte rich), angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma and nodal based peripheral T cell lymphoma (see reference). Thus, the finding of PD-1 rosettes must be considered in the overall context of the whole case and clinical presentation and not used solely as a diagnostic criterion. (Am J Clin Pathol 2021;156:1)

              Comment Here

              Reference: Programmed cell death-1 (PD-1)

              Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
              Definition / general
              • Androgen regulated serine protease
              • Encoded by kallikrein gene (KLK3, kallikrein related peptidase 3) located on chromosome 19 (Endocr Rev 2010;31:407)
              Essential features
              • A cytoplasmic marker that is sensitive and specific for prostatic tissue and adenocarcinoma of prostatic origin
              • Loss of PSA in prostatic adenocarcinoma correlates to poor differentiation and poor prognosis
              • Negative in some prostate cancers, such as basal cell, squamous cell carcinoma and sarcomatous elements of carcinosarcoma
              Pathophysiology
              • Produced by the secretory cells of prostatic ducts and acini in males and Skene glands in females
              • Regulated by androgen receptor
              • Secreted into the lumen of the glands where it cleaves semenogelin I and II (PLoS One 2014;9:e107819)
                • Semengolein I and II make coagulum, which mediates gel formation in semen
              • Liquefied coagulum leads to release of sperm
              Clinical features
              • PSA level in blood has been used as a marker to detect prostate cancer (Clin Chem Lab Med 2020;58:326)
                • Total PSA: both free and bound PSA
                • Free PSA: amount of protein that has been inactivated by internal proteolytic cleavage
              • Other ways to stratify prostate cancer risk with PSA
                • Free PSA to total PSA ratio (f/t PSA) can be calculated (Med Clin North Am 2018;102:199)
                  • f/t PSA ratio of < 10 - 15% is highly suspicious for prostate cancer
                  • f/t PSA ratio of > 25% is more likely to be benign
                  • By itself has low sensitivity and specificity (Medicine 2018;67:e0249)
                • MRI with elevated PSA can detect occult prostate cancers, even with negative biopsy (Eur Urol 2014;65:809)
              • Risks and benefits of PSA based screening
                • Pros
                • Cons
                  • Uncertain if screening decreases mortality (N Engl J Med 2020;382:1557)
                  • Can lead to overdiagnosis of indolent prostate cancer and lead to anxiety; exposes risk of prostate cancer therapy to patients with indolent cancer (including erectile and bladder dysfunction)
              • PSA caveats
                • Can be falsely elevated in settings and conditions unrelated to carcinoma
                  • Postsurgical (i.e. cystoscopy)
                  • Age
                  • Nodular hyperplasia
                  • Prostatitis
                  • Infarction
                  • Post-ejaculation
                • Can be falsely low with medications
              • The United States Preventive Service Task Force (USPSTF) states screening for prostate cancer for people of average risk should only occur if men express a preference for screening after being informed of and understanding the benefits and risks (JAMA 2018;319:1901)
                • PSA based screening for men aged 55 - 69: C recommendation (no recommendation for or against)
                • PSA based screening for men over 70 years old with < 15 year life span: D recommendation (recommend against)
                • Men at higher risk of developing prostate cancer can start at 40 years
                  • BRCA carriers
                  • Black men
                  • Men with a family history, especially first degree relative who was diagnosed < 65 years old
                • If a patient decides to be screened
                  • Perform PSA alone
                    • Digital rectal exam no longer recommended
                  • Frequency of PSA test: annually to every 2 years until at age where life expectancy is < 10 years
                  • Recommended PSA level for further evaluation: > 4.0 ng/mL
              Interpretation
              • Cytoplasmic staining (positive expression is strong, granular, diffuse)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Detected in benign and malignant prostate tissue
                • Identifies prostatic origin of most metastatic tumors
                  • Differentiates between prostatic and urothelial carcinoma
                • More sensitive and specific than PSAP
                • Nonprostate tumors usually negative or weak for PSA
                • Can be used in combination with NKX3.1 to increase sensitivity (Int J Mol Sci 2017;18:1151)
              • Other uses
              Prognostic factors
              • Reduced or negative expression in poorly differentiated prostate cancers linked to unfavorable tumor phenotype and poor prognosis (Oncotarget 2019;52:5439)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Heather I-Hsuan Chen-Yost, M.D.
              Prostatectomy with Gleason pattern 3

              Gleason pattern 3

              PSA IHC of Gleason pattern 3

              PSA Gleason pattern 3

              Prostatectomy with Gleason pattern 5

              Gleason pattern 5

              PSA IHC of Gleason pattern 5

              PSA Gleason pattern 5


              Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma in lung

              Lung metastasis

              PSA IHC

              PSA lung metastasis

              Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma in lymph node

              Lymph node metastasis

              PSA IHC

              PSA lymph node metastasis

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Normal prostate: basal cells, urothelium, stromal cells
              • Prostate cancers
              • Genitourinary cancers: carcinomas of urothelial origin, renal cell carcinoma, mesenchymal tumors of kidney, testicular tumors
              Board review style question #1

              A 67 year old man is found to have a mass involving the bladder and the prostate. Which stain combination would be most consistent with tumor originating from the prostate?

              1. PSA negative, CDX2 positive
              2. PSA negative, PAX8 positive, CAIX positive
              3. PSA negative, TTF1 positive, p40 negative
              4. PSA positive, GATA3 negative, p63 negative
              5. PSA positive, PAX8 negative, GATA3 positive
              Board review style answer #1
              D. PSA positive, GATA3 negative, p63 negative

              A. PSA negative, CDX2 positive would be consistent with a colorectal adenocarcinoma or adenocarcinoma of the urinary bladder, intestinal type.
              B. PSA negative, PAX8 positive, CAIX positive would be consistent with a clear cell renal cell carcinoma.
              C. PSA negative, TTF1 positive, p40 negative would be consistent with an adenocarcinoma of lung origin.
              E. PSA positive, PAX8 negative, GATA3 positive is seen in some salivary duct and breast carcinomas.


              Comment Here

              Reference: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

              Prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA)
              Definition / general
              • Type II transmembrane glycoprotein with folate hydrolase and NAALAD (N acetylated alpha linked acidic peptidase) activity, encoded by the FOLH1 (folate hydrolase 1) gene
              • Upregulated with androgen deprivation (EJNMMI Res 2015;5:66)
              • Oncogenic in prostate carcinoma via PI3K and Akt pathways (J Exp Med 2018;215:159)
              • Can be effectively targeted for both diagnostic and therapeutic purposes in the management of prostate carcinoma
              Essential features
              • Membranous and cytoplasmic marker of prostate adenocarcinoma, less sensitive and specific than NKX3.1
              • Upregulated with androgen deprivation
              • Correlates with higher Gleason grade
              • Less frequently found in various other tumors
              Terminology
              • Synonymous names outside pathology:
                • Glutamate carboxypeptidase II (GCPII)
                • N acetyl L aspartyl L glutamate peptidase I (NAALADase I)
                • NAAG peptidase
              Pathophysiology
              • In prostate carcinoma: PSMA's carboxypeptidase activity releases glutamate from vitamin B9 and other glutamated substrates, which activate metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGluR I); activated mGluR I then induces activation of phosphoinositide 3 kinase (PI3K) through phosphorylation of p110β (J Exp Med 2018;215:159)
              • In brain: catalyzes hydrolysis of N acetylaspartylglutamate (NAAG) to glutamate and N acetylaspartate (NAA), thus indirect inhibitory effect of NAAG on GABA with consequent regulation of glutamate neutrotransmitter level (J Biol Chem 1987;262:14498)
              • In gut: assists in folate uptake (Clin Cancer Res 1996;2:1445)
              Clinical features
              • Clinical use in prostate cancer imaging by gallium 68 PSMA PET scan
              • PSMA PET is also positive in salivary glands (J Nucl Med 2019;60:1270)
              • Radioligand therapy using Lu 177 labelled PSMA ligands for metastatic prostate cancer
              Interpretation
              • Membranous and cytoplasmic
              Uses by pathologists
              • Sensitive identification of metastatic prostate adenocarcinoma, especially if NKX3.1 antibody is unavailable (Int J Mol Sci 2017;18:1151)
                • PSMA positive in 84.3% of metastatic prostate carcinoma compared with 100% positivity for NKX3.1
              • Sensitive and specific for prostate carcinoma versus urothelial carcinoma (J Pathol Transl Med 2016;50:345)
                • PSMA positive in only 0.7% of urothelial carcinoma; PSMA is less specific than NKX3.1, though (0% positive in urothelial carcinoma)
              • Staining intensity increases with Gleason grade (Sci Rep 2018;8:4254)
              Prognostic factors
              • High expression of PSMA on biopsy is associated with higher risk of disease recurrence (Front Oncol 2018;8:623)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Lars Tharun, M.D.
              Bone metastasis

              Bone metastasis

              Low PSMA expression

              Low PSMA expression

              Moderate PSMA expression

              Moderate PSMA expression

              Strong PSMA expression Strong PSMA expression Strong PSMA expression

              Strong PSMA expression

              Positive staining - normal
              • Prostate epithelial cells
              • Adrenal gland, bladder, breast, esophagus, fallopian tube, kidney, large intestine, liver (canalicular membranes), ovary, small intestine, spinal cord, stomach, testis
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1

              A 60 year old patient presents with backache. Bone biopsy shows confluent tubular aggregates in between bony spicules. PSMA immunohistochemistry reveals membranously accentuated reactivity in all tumor cells. Which is correct regarding PSMA?

              1. Expressed in most cases of metastatic prostate carcinoma
              2. Expression is lost with grade progression
              3. NKX3.1 is less specific in detecting prostate carcinoma
              4. NKX3.1 is less sensitive in detecting prostate carcinoma
              Board review style answer #1
              A. Expressed in most cases of metastatic prostate carcinoma

              Comment Here

              Reference: Prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA)

              Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP)
              Definition / general
              • Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP), also prostatic specific acid phosphatase (PSAP), is enzyme produced by prostate tissue
              • Acid phosphatases release phosphate groups, optimally at acid pH
              • May promote HIV infection
                • Naturally occurring fragments form amyloid fibrils (Semen-derived Enhancer of Virus Infection), capture HIV virions and promote their attachment to target cells (Cell 2007;131:1059)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Identifies prostatic origin of metastases (whose primary is PAP+), including bone metastases (Ann NY Acad Sci 2011;1237)
              • Differentiates between prostatic and urothelial carcinomas
              • Differentiates between prostatic adenocarcinoma and mesonephric remnant hyperplasia (Ann Diagn Pathol 2009;13:402)
              • Presence is presumptive test for semen in forensic studies
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              Various tissues

              Missing Image

              Metastases, lymph node

              Missing Image

              Metastases, soft tissue

              Missing Image

              Prostatic adenocarcinoma

              Missing Image

              Prostatic adenocarcinoma

              Missing Image

              Prostate / colon in situ hybridization

              Positive staining - normal
              • Prostatic epithelium (lysosomal granules) and prostatic ducts
              • May be expressed in non-prostatic tissue but at 1 - 2 orders of magnitude less than in prostate (Int J Clin Exp Pathol 2011;4:295)
              Positive staining - disease
              • Prostatic adenocarcinoma and duct carcinoma (considered more sensitive but less specific than PSA)
              • PSA / PAP less sensitive in poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 1986;10:765, Am J Surg Pathol 1982;6:553)
              • PSA / PAP may become negative after hormonal treatment (Hum Pathol 1996;27:1377)
              • Bladder adenocarcinomas and rectal carcinomas may be strongly PAP+ but are PSA-
              • Bladder cystitis cystica / cystitis glandularis is occasionally positive (Arch Pathol Lab Med 1988;112:734)
              • Rectal carcinoids also positive for PAP, perhaps due to shared cloacal derivation of rectum and prostate (Am J Surg Pathol 1991;15:785); also ovarian strumal carcinoids
              • Salivary gland: pleomorphic adenoma (50%), duct carcinoma (20%)
              Negative staining
              • Prostatic basal cells, urothelium, inflammatory cells
              • Nephrogenic adenoma of prostate, bladder, kidney (usually, may be weakly positive)
              • Mesonephric remnant hyperplasia (Ann Diagn Pathol 2009;13:402)
              • Prostatic clear cell adenocarcinoma
              • Nonprostate tissue and tumors other than those indicated above are usually negative / weak

              Prostein / P501S
              Definition / general
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              p63 / P501S

              Missing Image

              Prostate and non-prostatic tissues

              Missing Image

              Metastatic adenocarcinoma

              Missing Image

              Various images

              Positive staining - normal
              • Prostate
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Bladder, colonic adenocarcinomas; other non-prostate carcinoma

              PROX1 (pending)
              [Pending]

              PTEN
              Definition / general
              • Phosphatase and tensin homologue deleted on chromosome TEN (at 10q23)
              • PTEN gene encodes a 403 amino acid cytosolic lipid phosphatase that negatively regulates AKT activity by dephosphorylating phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3)
              • There is a secreted form of PTEN referred to as PTEN-Long or PTEN-L; PTEN-L includes an extra 173 amino acids at the N terminal of PTEN; PTEN-L secreted from one cell can exhibit phosphatase activity in neighboring cells (Science 2013;341:399)
              • PTENα is an isoform of PTEN that also contains a 173 amino acid N terminal extension; it is localized to the mitochondria (Cell Metab 2014;19:836)
              • Tumor suppressor gene that is commonly lost in human cancer
              • Has important role in cell cycle regulation and apoptosis
              • Heavily regulated by post-translational modifications, including:
                • Oxidation or nitrosylation (C71, C124, C83)
                • Ubiquitination (K13 and K289)
                • SUMOlyation (K254, K266)
                • Acetylation (K125, K128, K163, K402)
              Terminology
              • Also called Mutated in Multiple Advanced Cancers 1 (MMAC1)
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Drug targets within the PI3K signalling network

              Missing Image

              Effects

              Missing Image

              Activating pathways

              Clinical features
              • PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome (PHTS) is a spectrum of human pathologies that result from mutations in PTEN (Am J Surg Pathol 2012;36:671); they include Cowden syndrome, Bannayan-Riley-Rubvalcaba syndrome, Proteus syndrome and Proteus-like syndrome
              • Inherited PTEN mutations are also associated with:
              • Mutations are associated with resistance to anti-androgen therapy
              • Reduced PTEN expression predicts relapse in breast carcinoma patients treated with tamoxifen (Mod Pathol 2005;18:250)
              • Gross rearrangements of PTEN locus occur in prostate cancer and can be detected by a 'break-apart' FISH assay (Mod Pathol 2012;25:902)
              • No specific targeted therapy against PTEN currently exist; other inhibitors targeting the PI3K / AKT / mTOR pathway may provide some benefit for patients
              Uses by pathologists
              • Loss of nuclear PTEN expression in adenomatous thyroid nodules is sensitive and specific for Cowden syndrome (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1505)
              • Loss of cytoplasmic PTEN may distinguish intraductal prostatic carcinoma from high grade PIN (Mod Pathol 2013;26:587)
              • Immunohistochemistry and FISH can detect deletion or decreased expression of PTEN
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image Missing Image

              Colon, carcinoma & adenoma

              Missing Image

              Kidney

              Missing Image Missing Image

              Uterus, endometrial carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              • Found in almost all body tissue
              Positive staining - disease
              • Various carcinomas
              Negative staining
              • Frequent loss of expression in carcinoma
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • PCR and next generation sequencing have been used to detect specific PTEN mutations, however, many different mutations have been described (Am J Pathol 2000;157:1123)
              • Many different types of PTEN mutations have been described (deletions, frameshift, missense, nonsense, etc.)
              • Loss of PTEN activity causes an upregulation in the AKT pathway
              • Exon 5, the area that encodes for the phosphatase activity, appears to be a hotspot for mutations (Cell Mol Life Sci 2012;69:1475)
              • PTEN mutations have been associated with several syndromes including Cowden, Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba, Lhermitte-Duclos and Proteus-like (J Med Genet 2004;41:323)
              • Approximately 10% of benign melanocytic nevi demonstrate some PTEN loss (J Am Acad Dermatol 2003;49:865)
              • Between 10 and 30% of melanomas harbor a PTEN aberration (Cell Mol Life Sci 2012;69:1475)
              • PTEN and NRAS appear to be mostly mutually exclusive (Cancer Res 2000;60:1800)
              • PTEN loss has been shown to confer BRAF resistance in cell lines (Cancer Res 2011;71:2750)

              PU.1
              Definition / general
              • Ets family transcription factor, also known as Spleen focus forming virus Proviral Integration site-1 (Spi1)
              • Transcription factor that plays an essential role in development of lymphoid and myeloid cells by regulating IL7 receptor or macrophage-colony stimulating factor
                • Low PU.1 levels upregulate IL7 receptor expression on common lymphoid progenitor cells, while high levels of PU.1 prevent IL7 receptor expression
              • PU.1 expression is dynamically controlled throughout haematopoiesis to direct appropriate lineage specification (Int J Cell Biol 2011;2011:808524)
              • Nuclear staining
              Uses by pathologists
              • Differentiate classic Hodgkin lymphoma (PU.1 negative) from nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (PU.1+, Mod Pathol 2006;19:1010)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              Histiocytic sarcoma

              Missing Image

              B ALL

              Positive staining - disease
              • Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (100%)
              • Follicular lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma, marginal zone B cell lymphoma, small lymphocytic lymphoma (100%)
              • Histiocytic / dendritic cell sarcoma (100%, Mod Pathol 2011;24:1421)
              • 50% of diffuse large B cell lymphoma
              Negative staining

              RB1
              Definition / general
              • Retinoblastoma gene / protein
              • Tumor suppressor gene at 13q14
              • Encodes a 110-114 kDa nuclear protein that plays a crucial role in cell cycle progression by regulating cell cycle arrest at G1-S
              • Active form is hypophosphorylated and binds to E2F family of transcription factors, which bind to DNA to inhibit transcription
              • Inactive form is phosphorylated via cyclin D-CDK4 / CDK6 complexes, which are inhibited by p16INK4a
              • Rb inactivity (leading to transcription) caused by (a) loss of p16INK4a causing phosphorylation of Rb, making it inactive; (b) Rb mutations; (c) Rb hyperphosphorylation; (d) overexpression of cyclin D; (e) DNA tumor virus SV40 T antigen, adenovirus E1A and HPV-E7 protein
              • Inactive Rb is reactivated by cell cycle specific phosphatase in M phase
              • Germline mutations or loss predispose to retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma
              • Somatic mutations cause various tumors
              • Point mutations inhibits Rb1 and c-myc binding
              • For thyroid neoplasms, follicular adenomas were usually positive, follicular and papillary carcinomas were usually negative (Mod Pathol 2000;13:562)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Soft tissue, neck: spindle cell lipoma; right two: loss of Rb protein

              Positive staining - normal
              • Fibroblasts, endothelial cells and lymphoid cells within thyroid neoplasms

              Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
              Definition / general
              • Anti renal cell carcinoma (RCC) antibodies detect a 200 kD glycoprotein (gp200), which is a surface membrane molecule located on the brush border of proximal renal tubules (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1485)
              • Also expressed on the luminal surface of Bowman capsule, parathyroid parenchymal cells and colloid of thyroid follicles
              Essential features
              Terminology
              • Also called RCC Ma (renal cell carcinoma marker)
              Pathophysiology
              • RCC was originally identified as a marker of proximal convoluted tubule brush borders and luminal surface of Bowman capsule in 1989 (Cancer Res 1989;49:1802)
              • This scaffolding extracellular matrix protein also known as podocalyxin and represents a human embryonal carcinoma antigen (Biochem Biophys Res Commun 2003;300:285)
              Interpretation
              • Membranous stain
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Chen Yang, M.D.
              Tumor cells

              Tumor cells

              Positive staining - normal
              • Brush border of proximal renal tubules
              • Luminal surface of Bowman capsule
              • Parathyroid parenchymal cells and colloid of thyroid follicles
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Oncocytoma (0/15)
              • Transitional cell carcinoma (0/20)
              • Mesoblastic nephroma (0/3)
              • Cystic nephroma (0/3)
              • Lymphoma (0/8)
              • Angiomyolipoma (0/3)
              • Mixed stromal and epithelial tumor (0/4)
              • Nephroblastoma (0/8)
              • Collecting duct (0%)
              • Reference: Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1485
              Sample pathology report
              • Lymph node, retroperitoneal, biopsy:
                • Metastatic carcinoma, suggestive of renal origin (see comment)
                • Comment: Sections of the retroperitoneal biopsy show the presence of metastatic tumor cells with abundant clear cytoplasm. A panel of immunohistochemistry stains show tumor cells to be positive for CD10 and RCC Ma, while being negative for CK7, CK20, PAX8, CD117 and CAIX. While the immunohistochemistry profile is not entirely concordant with a renal primary, especially with negative PAX8 and CAIX, the positivity of both CD10 and RCC Ma would suggest possibility of renal primary in the context of known history of renal cell carcinoma. Clinical and radiological correlation is recommended.
              Board review style question #1

              Which of the following renal neoplasms is most likely negative for RCC?

              1. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma
              2. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma
              3. Collecting duct carcinoma
              4. Papillary renal cell carcinoma
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Collecting duct carcinoma

              Comment Here

              Reference: Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)

              Reticulin
              Definition / general
              • Demonstrates reticular fibers and basement membrane material
              • Not related to reticulum cells
              • Reticular fibers: thin, usually type III collagen, widespread in connective tissue throughout the body
              • Basement membrane is composed of type IV collagen and laminin
              • Both have bound proteoglycans highlighted by silver stains and PAS
              Uses by pathologists
              • Often not helpful in nonclassic cases
              • Outlines architecture of liver and spleen
              • To diagnose hemangiopericytoma, vascular smooth muscle, fibrosarcoma or fibrothecoma (stains each cell) vs. endothelial cell tumors (stains outside of all cells), MPNST (runs parallel to spindle tumor cells without surrounding them at the poles)
              • Architecture disrupted by hepatocellular carcinoma and other hepatocellular proliferations
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Normal liver

              Normal spleen

              Leiomyosarcoma


              ROS1
              Definition / general
              Uses by pathologists
              • ROS1 immunostains are 100% sensitive and 92% specific for ROS1 rearrangements by FISH, making it an effective screening tool for lung adenocarcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2013;37:1441)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Invasive ductal carcinoma (ROS1+, fig B)

              Non small cell lung cancer

              ROS1 rearranged lung tumors


              S100
              Definition / general
              • Name is from its solubility in 100% saturated ammonium sulfate at neutral pH
              • Family of multigenic group of nonubiquitous cytoplasmic homologous intracellular Ca2+ binding proteins with EF hand motifs and significant structural similarities at both protein and genomic levels
              • Low molecular weights (9 -1 3 kDa) and are able to form heterodimers, homodimers and oligomeric assemblies
              • S100 is composed of two main subunits, an alpha and a beta chain; most clinical stains use antibodies to the beta chain
              • S100 protein family has 25 known members solely in vertebrates coded by unique genes
              • There are 22 proteins (S100A1-A8, trichohylin, filaggrin and repetin) mapped onto chromosome locus 1q21, while the other proteins are located on chromosome loci 4p16 (S100P), 5q14 (S100Z), 21q22(S100B), Xp22(S100G), 5q13(S100Z), 7q22-q3(S100A11P) (Curr Mol Med 2013;13:24, Nat Rev Cancer 2015;15:96)
              • Structurally similar to calmodulin and troponin-C but these proteins are cell specific and dependent upon environmental factors via cytokines, growth factors and toll-like receptors (TLR) ligands (Curr Mol Med 2013;13:24, Nat Rev Cancer 2015;15:96)
              Essential features
              • Family of multigenic group of nonubiquitous cytoplasmic homologous intracellular Ca2+ binding proteins with EF hand motifs and significant structural similarities at both protein and genomic levels
              • Found in melanoma, nerve sheath tumors, clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue, various histiocytic tumors, glial tumors and myoepithelial tumors
              • Aid in diagnosis of tumors of unknown origin and to show nerve sheath involvement
              Interpretation
              • Cytoplasmic and nuclear staining usually required to call positive
              Uses by pathologists
              • Marker of schwann cells and melanocytes; useful for evaluating nerve sheath tumors and melanoma
              • Differentiate benign nerve sheath tumors (S100 strong and diffuse) from malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (typically weak or negative S100) (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:1042)
              • Help differentiate between schwannoma (stains all cells) and neurofibroma (mixture of positive and negative cells)
              • Distinguish Langerhans cell histiocytosis from other histiocytosis syndromes (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2015;139:1211)
              • Identifying perineural involvement
              • Myoepithelial cell marker and identification of tumors with myoepithelial cells
              • MelanA and MART1 superior to S100 for evaluating sentinel lymph nodes for melanoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1039)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Arbaz M. Khan

              Melanoma

              Melanoma S100

              Granular cell tumor

              Granular cell tumor S100

              Schwannoma

              Schwannoma S100



              Cases #6, #50, #54, #195, #218 and #252

              Bladder paraganglioma S100

              Breast granular cell tumor S100

              Breast metaplastic carcinoma S100

              Lymph node
              mycobacterial
              spindle cell
              pseudotumor S100

              Salivary gland epithelial myoepithelial carcinoma S100

              Soft tissue plexiform schwannoma S100



              AFIP images

              Skin Langerhans cell histiocytosis S100

              Positive staining - normal
              • Neurons, schwann cells, melanocytes, glial cells
              • Myoepithelial cells
              • Adipocytes
              • Langerhans cells, tissue dendritic cells and interdigitating dendritic cells
              • Chondrocytes and notochordal cells
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1

                Shown above is an S100 stain of a skin lesion. Which of the following tumors should be positive for S100?

              1. Basal cell carcinoma
              2. Melanoma
              3. Squamous cell carcinoma
              4. Mycoses fungoides
              5. Atypical fibroxanthoma
              Board review style answer #1
              B. Melanoma

              Comment Here

              Reference: S100
              Board review style question #2
                A biopsied lung lesion is radiographically suspected to be a metastasis of unknown primary. Which staining profile suggests that the tumor is melanoma?

              1. S100 positive, CK5/6 positive, p63 negative, GFAP negative
              2. S100 negative, HMB45 positive, TTF1 negative, CK20 negative
              3. S100 positive, HMB45 positive, CK7 negative, p63 negative
              4. S100 negative, TTF1 positive, SOX10 positive, AE1/AE3 negative
              5. S100 positive, CD21 positive, CD35 positive, Clusterin positive
              Board review style answer #2
              C. S100 positive, HMB45 positive, CK7 negative, p63 negative

              Comment Here

              Reference: S100

              S100P
              Definition / general
              • 95 amino acid calcium-binding protein first purified from placenta in 1992 (Eur J Biochem 1992;207:541); 95 amino acid calcium-binding protein; may initiate carcinogenesis in some epithelial tumors
              • Caution: S100 (the neural / melanocytic marker) is also described as S100p or S100P in the literature
              Pathophysiology
              • Intracellular S100P interacts with ezrin, and extracellular S100P activates the receptor for advanced glycation endproducts
              • Associated with aggressive disease in peripheral intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:590)
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear and cytoplasmic staining
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image Missing Image Missing Image

              Various normal tissues

              Missing Image Missing Image

              Left: colon dysplasia and carcinoma; right - various carcinomas

              Missing Image

              Pancreas: normal, PanIN, adenocarcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              • mRNA - high levels: esophagus and placenta; mRNA - moderate levels: colon, duodenum, prostate, stomach, white blood cells (BMC Clin Pathol 2008 Feb 18;8:2)
              • Protein - high levels: placenta and stomach
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Pancreas (normal), prostatic adenocarcinoma, renal cell carcinoma

              SALL4
              Definition / general
              • One of four members of the SALL (spalt-like, sal-like) family of transcription factors
              • Involved in the maintenance of embryonic stem cell pluripotency and self renewal
              • Novel oncogene important in the initiation and progression of cancers
              Essential features
              • Malignant germ cell tumor marker (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:1065, Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:e50)
              • Marker of stem cell-like dedifferentiation in many non germ cell cancers
              • Differentiates rhabdoid tumor from epithelioid sarcoma
              • Poor prognosis in hepatocellular carcinoma, other solid tumors
              Terminology
              • Spalt-like transcription factor 4
              • Sal-like protein 4
              Pathophysiology
              • Master regulator of embryonic stem cell pluripotency
              • Zinc finger transcriptional factor at 20q13.2
              • In mice, essential for neural tube closure, anogenital tract formation, and limb and heart development; loss of SALL4 expression causes differentiation along trophectoderm lineage (Development 2006;133:3005, Nat Cell Biol 2006;8:1114)
              • In cancers, interacts with many oncogenic partners as a transcriptional regulator including PTEN/AKT and Wnt/B-catenin pathways, DNMT, OCT 3/4, SOX2, MYC, others (Gene 2016;584:111)
              • Impacts cancer cell proliferation, invasion, and chemoresistance (Cancer Lett 2015;357:55)
              Clinical features
              • SALL4 related disorders: Okihiro / Duane radial ray syndrome, acro-renal-ocular syndrome, thalidomide embryopathy (J Med Genet 2003;40:473)
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Derek Hoerres, M.D.
              Missing Image

              Yolk sac tumor

              Missing Image

              Yolk sac tumor, SALL4

              Missing Image

              Seminoma

              Missing Image

              Seminoma, SALL4

              Missing Image

              Metastatic germ cell tumor

              Missing Image

              Metastatic germ cell tumor, SALL4

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1

                SALL4 immunohistochemistry is most likely to be positive in which of the following tumor types?

              1. Clear cell carcinoma
              2. Epithelioid carcinoma
              3. Granulosa cell tumors
              4. Yolk sac tumor
              Board review style answer #1
              D. Yolk sac tumor. SALL4 is expressed in most germ cell tumors (except some trophoblastic tumors) and nearly 100% sensitive for gonadal and extragonadal yolk sac tumors. The other answers are typically negative for SALL4, which can be used to differentiate from histologically similar diagnoses which are SALL4 positive.

              Comment Here

              Reference: SALL4

              SDH (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              SDHB (succinate dehydrogenase)
              Definition / general
              • Succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) is a mitochondrial enzyme complex involved in the Krebs (or tricarboxylic acid) cycle and the electron transport chain, essential for normal aerobic respiration (Nat Rev Cancer 2011;11:325)
              • Comprised of four subunits: SDHA, SDHB, SDHC and SDHD and an assembly factor, SDHAF2
              • Bi-allelic inactivation of any of the five units results in instability of SDHB, cytoplasmic transport and rapid degradation
              • Loss of SDHB may be indicative of syndromic disease; this is either with germline inactivation of any subunit or SDHC hypermethylation (epimutation); the latter is most often observed in a subset of gastrointestinal stromal tumors
              • Immunohistochemistry for SDHB is a reliable and inexpensive surrogate for assessment of syndromic loss of succinate dehydrogenase (Lancet Oncol 2009;10:764)
              • Loss of SDHB is seen in about 15% of pheochromocytomas / paragangliomas, 3% of gastrointestinal stromal tumors, < 1% of renal cell carcinomas and < 1% of pituitary adenomas (Histopathology 2018;72:106)
              Essential features
              • Succinate dehydrogenase is a mitochondrial enzyme of the tricarboxylic acid (Krebs) cycle and electron transport chain
              • Inactivating mutations leads to increased HIF1-α levels and this promotes tumorigenesis, angiogenesis and inhibition of apoptosis
              • Loss of succinate dehydrogenase is seen in a subset of pheochromocytomas / paragangliomas, gastrointestinal stromal tumors, renal cell carcinomas and rarely pituitary adenomas; succinate dehydrogenase deficient gastrointestinal stromal tumors may be associated with the Carney dyad or triad
              • Loss of any succinate dehydrogenase subunit leads to degradation of SDHB, which can be demonstrated by immunohistochemistry
              • It is recommended that all pheochromocytomas / paragangliomas be assessed for loss of SDHB; gastrointestinal stromal tumors with epithelioid morphology and positive staining for KIT and DOG1 are suspicious for succinate dehydrogenase deficiency and should also be assessed (Histopathology 2018 Jan;72:106)
              Pathophysiology
              • Succinate dehydrogenase facilitates conversion of succinate to fumarate by oxidation through flavin adenine dinucleotide
                • Occurs at the SDHA subunit
                • Resultant FADH2 molecule transfers electrons through the other subunits and eventually to ubiquinone
              • Abnormal succinate dehydrogenase function leads to accumulation of succinate
                • Increase inhibits an enzyme (prolyl hydroxylase) involved in the deactivation of hypoxia inducible factor, HIF1-α (Cancer Cell 2005;8:155)
                  • Increased hypoxia inducible factor is involved in many cellular processes that lead to tumorigenesis such as vascular endothelial growth factor and erythropoietin (Cancer Cell 2005;7:77)
                  • Inhibition of prolyl hydroxylase may also inhibit apoptosis of paraganglioma cells
              Clinical features
              • Germline mutations in any of the subunits are associated with a subset of paragangliomas, renal cell carcinomas or gastrointestinal stromal tumors
              • Familial pheochromocytoma paraganglioma syndrome and familial gastrointestinal stromal tumors are a feature of SDH mutations (Clin Cancer Res 2017;23:e68)
              • Some studies suggest SDH mutations may be associated with pathogenesis of other tumors such as neuroblastoma (Cold Spring Harb Mol Case Stud 2018;4:a002584)
              • Hypermethylation of SDHC is associated with gastrointestinal stromal tumors and is the molecular signature for Carney triad (gastrointestinal stromal tumors, paraganglioma and pulmonary chondroma)
                • Hypermethylation leads to subsequent inactivation of the SDHC subunit, which causes SDHB to localize to the cytoplasm, where it is rapidly degraded; this causes loss of the SDHB protein and negative immunohistochemical staining
              • Succinate dehydrogenase deficient tumors are more likely to be multicentric and metastasize; succinate dehydrogenase deficient gastrointestinal stromal tumors are nonmutated for KIT and PDGFRA and thus do not respond to tyrosine kinase inhibitors; they often show poor response to chemotherapy as well (J Clin Pathol 2018;71:95)
              • Rare clinical syndromes are also associated with SDHA mutation: subacute necrotizing encephalopathy - Leigh syndrome and neonatal dilated cardiomyopathy (Hum Genet 2000;106:236, Eur J Hum Genet 2010;18:1160)
              Interpretation
              • Normal expression of SDHB is cytoplasmic and granular, indicative of mitochondrial staining; this can be appreciated in normal endothelial cells when evaluating tumors
              • Loss of SDHB staining in neoplastic cells, in the presence of good positive internal control, is considered abnormal (Hum Pathol 2010;41:805)
              • Sometimes a faint cytoplasmic blush is seen; in the context of a good positive internal control, this should be interpreted as loss of SDHB (Mod Pathol 2015;28:807)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Succinate dehydrogenase deficient tumors may show characteristic clinical and histologic features
              • Pheochromocytomas / paragangliomas with succinate dehydrogenase deficiency
                • With SDHB mutation, tend to form intra-abdominal, extra-adrenal tumors
                • Those with SDHD mutations involve the head and neck
                • SDHC related tumors are associated with the carotid body
                • Cytologically, they show more rounded cells and distinct Zellballen nested pattern with prominent vasculature (Endocr Relat Cancer 2015;22:T91)
              • Gastrointestinal stromal tumors with succinate dehydrogenase deficiency
                • Almost always arise in the stomach
                • Show positivity for KIT and DOG1
                • Usually epithelioid and show a multilobular growth pattern (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1712)
                • KIT / PDGFRA wild type
                • 3 molecular categories:
                  • ~30% germline SDHA mutations (Am J Surg Pathol 2013;37:234)
                  • ~20% mutations involving SDHB, SDHC and SDHD; inactivating mutations of SDHA, SDHB, SDHC or SDHD are characteristic of the Carney dyad (Carney-Stratakis syndrome) (Mol Cell Endocrinol 2018;469)
                  • ~50% show hypermethylation of SDHC, which is the molecular signature for the Carney triad, a syndromic, nonhereditary condition comprising succinate dehydrogenase deficient gastrointestinal stromal tumors, paraganglioma and pulmonary chondroma (Endocr Relat Cancer 2014;21:567)
              • Renal cell carcinoma, succinate dehydrogenase deficient type
                • Often show cystic change and entrapment of residual renal tubules; they also show eosinophilic cytoplasm, cytoplasmic vacuolization and bland nuclei (Mod Pathol 2015;28:80)
              • Pituitary adenomas with succinate dehydrogenase deficiency
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Girish Venkataraman, M.D., Debra Zynger, M.D.

              SDHB deficient renal cell carcinoma

              SDHB retained in adrenal cortex


              SDHB deficient paraganglioma

              Missing Image Missing Image

              Clear cell renal cell carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              • Most tissues will be positive for SDHB (i.e. retain normal expression of SDHB), including endothelial cells, stromal cells and inflammatory cells and can be used as positive internal controls when assessing for loss of normal staining when suspecting succinate dehydrogenase deficient tumors
              Positive staining - tumors
              • Most pheochromocytomas / paragangliomas and gastrointestinal stromal tumors are nonsyndromic and will retain normal SDHB expression
                • Epithelioid morphology in these tumors would suggest loss of SDHB
                • PDGFRA associated gastrointestinal stromal tumors, which also may show epithelioid morphology, retain SDHB expression but are usually negative for KIT, in contrast to succinate dehydrogenase deficient gastrointestinal stroll tumors
              • Renal cell carcinomas with SDHB loss may show clear or eosinophilic cytoplasm; clear cell renal cell carcinomas retain expression of SDHB
              Negative staining - tumors
              • 15% of pheochromocytomas / paragangliomas
              • 3% of gastrointestinal stromal tumors
              • < 1% of renal cell carcinomas
              • < 1% of pituitary adenomas
              • It is recommended that all pheochromocytomas / paragangliomas be assessed for loss of SDHB; gastrointestinal stromal tumors with epithelioid morphology and positive staining for KIT and DOG1 are suspicious for succinate dehydrogenase deficiency and should also be assessed
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • In SDH deficient neoplasms, next generation sequencing and PCR reveal inactivating mutations in SDHA, SDHB, SDHC or SDHD
                • These are either nonsense mutations or missense mutations and likely lead to loss of protein function (Mod Pathol 2015;28:807, Hum Pathol 2010;41:805)
                • SDHB immunohistochemistry is also useful to screen for these mutations
              • 50% of succinate dehydrogenase deficient gastrointestinal stromal tumors show hypermethylation of SDHC, which causes loss of SDHB detectable by immunohistochemistry (Sci Transl Med 2014;6:268)
              Board review style question #1
              The normal immunohistochemical staining pattern for SDHB is

              1. Cytoplasmic
              2. Cytoplasmic and membranous
              3. Membranous
              4. Nuclear
              Board review style answer #1
              A. SDHB is a mitochondrial enzyme found in all normal cells and its usual immunostaining pattern is cytoplasmic and granular. Loss of SDHB suggests a genetic defect in one of the SDH related genes and is seen in SDH deficient neoplasms.

              Comment Here

              Reference: SDHB (succinate dehydrogenase)
              Board review style question #2
              Which of the following tumors are associated with loss of SDHB by immunohistochemistry in a subset of cases?

              1. Gastric adenocarcinoma
              2. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
              3. Lung adenocarcinoma
              4. Neuroendocrine tumor
              Board review style answer #2
              B. Immunohistochemical loss of the SDHB protein is seen in a subset of the following tumors: pheochromocytoma, paraganglioma, gastrointestinal stromal tumor, renal cell carcinoma and rarely, pituitary adenoma. Loss of SDHB can be due to a variety of genetic mechanisms, including mutations of any of the SDH subunits or due to hypermethylation of SDHC (particularly associated with Carney triad).

              Comment Here

              Reference: SDHB (succinate dehydrogenase)

              Selectins
              E selectin
              L selectin
              P selectin
              • Also called CD62P, PADGEM, SELP
              • Interaction with CD162 mediates tethering and rolling of leukocytes on the surface of activated endothelial cells
              • Mediates delivery of lymphocytes to high endothelial venules (with CD62L)
              • A platelet alpha-granule membrane protein that redistributes to the plasma membrane during platelet activation and degranulation
              • Has procoagulant activity (Trends Mol Med 2004;10:179)
              • Constitutive expression in inflammation may contribute to tissue destruction, atherogenesis and thrombosis
              • Reduced expression in:
              • Increased expression in Takayasu's arteritis (Circ J 2006;70:600)
              • Increased serum levels associated with atherosclerosis (Eur Heart J 2003;24:2166)
              • Val640Leu polymorphism is associated with thromboembolic stroke (Hum Mol Genet 2004;13:389)
              • Endothelial P selectin has important role in pathogenesis of cerebral malaria (Am J Pathol 2004;164:781)
              • Promotes metastases by tumor cell binding (Glycobiology 2007;17:185)
              • Uses by pathologists: distinguishing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia without and with thrombosis (Thromb Haemost 1999;82:1255)
              • Positive staining - normal: platelets, megakaryocytes, activated endothelial cells (membranes of Weibel-Palade bodies)
              • Negative staining - normal: sinusoidal endothelium (Am J Pathol 1993;142:481)
              • Reference: OMIM 173610
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image

              E selectin: normal brain, renal carcinoma

              L selectin: rat thymus

              P selectin: megakaryocytes in bone marrow


              Serum amyloid A (SAA)
              Background
              • Acute phase protein, which has diagnostic, therapeutic and prognostic implications in a wide variety of diseases
              • First recognized in serum with its cross reactivity with antisera to amyloid AA of secondary amyloid; both proteins have precursor / product relationship
              Structure
              • 104 AA residues
              • N terminal is usually 76 residues identical to protein AA
              • Four genes encode SAA isoforms (SAA1, SAA2, SAA3 and SAA4); it spans 10 kb within the p15.1 region of chromosome 11
              • Each gene encodes a different protein
              • Synthesized in liver
              • In blood, SAA is associated with HDL in acute phase response
              • Expressed variants of protein and mRNA in different tissues, not only liver, also breast, colon, adipocytes, brain (Curr Med Chem 2016;23:1725)
              Role of SAA in pathogenesis of different diseases
              Role in pathology
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              SAA in hepatic adenoma (fig. H)


              SF1
              Definition / general
              • Steroidogenic factor 1 (SF1) is a member of the steroid receptor superfamily; a transcription factor that regulates genes involved in gonadal and adrenal steroidogenesis
              • Present in pituitary and steroidogenic tissues:
                • Anterior pituitary gonadotrophs, which produce luteinizing hormone (LH) or follicle stimulating hormone (FSH); not found in other adenohypophyseal cell types
                • Adrenal cortex
                • Granulosa and theca cells of the ovary
                • Sertoli and Leydig cells of the testis
              • Pituitary adenoma / pituitary neuroendocrine tumor has traditionally been classified using a combination of immunohistochemical stains for anterior pituitary hormones, including stains for prolactin, growth hormone, thyrotroph (TSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and the alpha subunit (ASU) of the glycoprotein hormones
              • Immunostains for anterior pituitary transcription factors steroidogenic factor 1 (SF1), Pit1 and T box transcription factor (Tpit) have been shown to have higher sensitivity and specificity than hormone IHC stains and are often used in conjunction with them to classify pituitary adenomas
              Essential features
              • Strong nuclear staining
              • Is expressed within the anterior pituitary gland and steroidogenic tissues of the gonads and adrenal glands
              • Within the pituitary, SF1 is the stain of choice for gonadotrophic pituitary adenomas
              • SF1 is also useful in resolving difficult differential diagnoses for tumors involving the adrenal gland and gonads
              Terminology
              • Steroidogenic factor 1 (SF1)
              Pathophysiology
              • SF1 has roles within the pituitary and periphery; it is necessary for the development of primary steroidogenic tissue (knockout mice lack adrenal and gonadal glands)
              • In the pituitary, SF1 drives gonadotroph differentiation (J Clin Endocrinol Metab 1996;81:2165, see diagram below)
              • Gonadotroph adenomas comprise the largest category of pituitary adenomas (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2017;141:104, Mod Pathol 2018;31:900)
              • LH and FSH immunostains also mark gonadotroph adenomas but are much less sensitive (although quite specific) (Mod Pathol 2018;31:900)
              • Some labs use alpha subunit of glycoprotein hormones or estrogen receptors to supplement gonadotroph tumor workup but these lack both sensitivity and specificity (Mod Pathol 2018;31:900)
              Diagrams / tables

              Contributed by William McDonald, M.D.
              SF1 drives gonadotroph lineage

              SF1 drives gonadotroph lineage

              Clinical features
              • Most gonadotroph adenomas are hormonally silent macroadenomas
              • Tumors of the adrenal cortex, ovary and testis may be difficult to distinguish from other neoplasms
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear expression is evaluated (reactivity only in the cytoplasm is regarded as negative)
              • SF1 immunoreactivity in gonadotroph adenoma is typically diffuse, strong and nuclear (score 7 or 8 in the Allred scale, Mod Pathol 1998;11:155; see photomicrograph below)
              • SF1 immunoreactivity in anterior pituitary gland (nonneoplastic anterior pituitary) shows moderate to strong nuclear staining in scattered adenohypophysis cells; gonadotrophs are a minority population within the adenohypophysis
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              • Pituitary adenoma type is considered a prognostic factor
                • Gonadotroph adenoma is felt to be more indolent than some other types of nonfunctioning adenoma (Expert Rev Endocrinol Metab 2016;11:149)
                • Radiographic extent and adenoma classification are considered prognostic indicators
                  • High risk pituitary adenomas include sparsely granulated somatotroph adenoma, lactotroph adenoma in men, Crooke cell adenoma, silent corticotroph adenoma and plurihormonal Pit1+ adenoma
                • Category of atypical adenoma was not reproducible so was removed from WHO classification (Endocrin Pathol 2017;28:228)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by William McDonald, M.D.

              Normal adenohypophysis

              Normal adenohypophysis (reticulin)

              Normal adenohypophysis (SF1)

              Adrenal cortex and
              pheochromocytoma

              Adrenal cortex and
              pheochromocytoma
              (SF1)


              Gonadotroph adenoma

              Gonadotroph adenoma (SF1)

              Gonadotroph adenoma (Tpit)

              Gonadotroph adenoma (Pit1)

              Positive staining - normal
              Negative staining - normal
              • Corticotrophs, Pit1 family adenohypophysial cells (producing prolactin, growth hormone or TSH)
              Negative staining - disease
              Sample pathology report
              • Sella turcica, resection:
                • Pituitary adenoma (pituitary neuroendocrine tumor), gonadotroph type (see comment)
                • Comment: This tumor shows diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity for SF1 and no immunoreactivity for Pit1 or Tpit. In the context of a macroadenoma without clinical or laboratory evidence of hormone excess, this is a gonadotroph adenoma.
                • Clinical information: The patient presented with a 3 week history of visual blurring. Bitemporal hemianopsia was noted on ophthalmologic exam. Magnetic resonance imaging showed a 3.5 cm sellar and suprasellar mass extending into the suprasellar cistern and compressing the optic chiasm.
                • Available preoperative endocrine testing:
                  • Prolactin 5.90 (2.74 - 19.64 ng/mL)
                  • IGF1 72 (57 - 202 ng/mL)
                  • TSH 0.64 (0.35 - 4.94 uIU/mL)
                  • Free T4 1.31 (0.70 - 1.80 ng/dL)
                  • Cortisol 10.4 (1330 draw, 5.0 - 15.0 ug/dL)
              Board review style question #1

              A 57 year old man presents with bitemporal hemianopsia, mildly elevated serum prolactin and MRI showing a 2.5 cm mass within the sella turcica, which is noted to extend upward and push on the optic chiasm. Physical examination reveals no signs of hormone excess (no evidence of gynecomastia, galactorrhea, Cushing syndrome, acromegaly, etc.) and formal visual field testing confirms decreased vision in the outer half of the visual fields. Transsphenoidal resection confirms pituitary adenoma by routine stains. The adenoma shows immunohistochemical staining as illustrated above. How is this adenoma best classified?

              1. Corticotroph adenoma
              2. Gonadotroph adenoma
              3. Null cell adenoma
              4. Prolactinoma
              Board review style answer #1
              B. Gonadotroph adenoma. Absence of signs of hormone excess is the usual finding in gonadotroph adenoma. A small rise in prolactin can be seen in association with any lesion of the sella turcica that impinges on the stalk of the pituitary, interrupting dopaminergic inhibition of lactotrophs in the nonneoplastic anterior pituitary gland. SF1 immunohistochemistry is the most sensitive and specific means of classifying gonadotroph adenoma.

              Comment Here

              Reference: SF1

              SF1 (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              Sirius red
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              • Amyloid stain similar to Congo red

              SMAD4 / DPC4
              Definition / general
              • One of the SMAD family of transcription factor proteins, encoded by SMAD4 gene located on chromosome 18q21.1 (Cancer Res 1998;58:3700)
              • 552 amino acid polypeptide with a molecular weight of 60.439 Da; has 2 functional domains known as MH1 and MH2
              • Tumor suppressor, which inhibits the TGFβ signaling pathway suppressing epithelial cell growth (Cell 2009;136:13)
              Essential features
              • SMAD4 tumor suppressor gene is mutated in ~ 55% of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, 25% of extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, 34% of ampullary carcinoma and 10 - 20% of colorectal carcinomas, including appendix (Cancer Res 2000;60:2002, PLoS One 2017;9:e115383, Mod Pathol 2003;16:272, Oncogene 1999;18:3098)
              • Majority of SMAD4 gene mutations in human cancer are missense, nonsense and frameshift mutations at the mad homology 2 region (MH2), which interfere with the homo-oligomer formation of SMAD4 protein and the hetero-oligomer formation between SMAD4 and SMAD2 proteins, resulting in disruption of TGFβ signaling (Mol Cell 2004;15:813)
              • Immunohistochemical staining for SMAD4 showing loss of nuclear stain is practically a surrogate for SMAD4 genetic mutation (Am J Pathol 2000;156:37)
              Terminology
              • SMAD family member 4 or DPC4 (deleted in pancreatic cancer 4)
              • Mammalian SMAD4 is a homolog of the Drosophila protein, mothers against decapentaplegic, named Medea
              Pathophysiology
              • SMAD4 interacts with receptor-regulated SMADs (R-SMADs), such as SMAD2, SMAD3, SMAD1, SMAD5 and SMAD8 (also called SMAD9) to form heterotrimeric complexes (Cold Spring Harb Perspect Biol 2016;8:a022087)
              • Once in the nucleus, the complex of SMAD4 and 2 R-SMADs binds to DNA and regulates the expression of different genes depending on the cellular context
              Diagrams / tables

              Contributed by Xiaoyan Liao, M.D., Ph.D. and Dongwei Zhang, M.D., Ph.D.
              CAPTION

              TGFβ / SMAD4

              Clinical features
              • SMAD4 is also found mutated in the autosomal dominant disease juvenile polyposis syndrome, which is characterized by hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract (Science 1998;280:1086)
              • Mutations in SMAD4 (mostly substitutions) can cause Myhre syndrome, a rare inherited disorder characterized by mental disabilities, short stature, unusual facial features and various bone abnormalities (Am J Hum Genet 2012;90:161)
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain if SMAD4 protein intact
              • Loss of nuclear stain or weak cytoplasmic stain indicate SMAD4 loss and are a surrogate for SMAD4 gene mutation / deletion (Am J Clin Pathol 2001;116:831)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Loss of SMAD4 nuclear expression combining with other immunomarkers can be used to determine tumor origin in cases of metastasis of unknown primary
              • In pancreatic tissue, loss of SMAD4 nuclear expression can distinguish malignancy (in situ or invasive) versus benign process; particularly helpful in biopsies (Am J Clin Pathol 2001;116:831)
              • In mucinous carcinoma peritonei associated with a mucinous appendiceal neoplasm, SMAD4 loss can indicate high grade transformation (Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:583)
              • In patients with increased juvenile colon polyps, loss of SMAD4 in those polyps is helpful for making the diagnosis of juvenile polyposis syndrome
              Prognostic factors
              • In colorectal carcinoma, SMAD4 loss / SMAD4 mutation is associated with higher stage, mucinous differentiation, background Crohn's disease and concurrent RAS mutations (PLoS One 2019;14:e0212142)
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Loss of nuclear expression of SMAD4 in tumor cells in contrast to retained nuclear staining in surrounding stromal cells, lymphocytes or benign epithelial cells
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Xiaoyan Liao, M.D., Ph.D. and Dongwei Zhang, M.D., Ph.D.
              Extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma

              Extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma

              Juvenile polyposis syndrome

              Juvenile polyposis syndrome

              Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma

              Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              • Nuclear stain in nearly all normal tissue from all organs
              Positive staining - disease
              • Nuclear stain indicates no SMAD4 protein loss or SMAD4 gene mutation
              Negative staining
              • Loss of nuclear stain in pancreatobiliary and colorectal carcinomas
              Sample pathology report
              • Pancreas, mass, biopsy:
                • Well differentiated adenocarcinoma.
                • SMAD4 immunohistochemistry shows loss of nuclear expression in tumor cells, confirming the diagnosis.
              Board review style question #1

              A patient presents with hernia sac mass, resection of which showed moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma of unknown primary. The patient underwent abdominal CT examination, which showed a possible pancreatic mass. Which immunohistochemical stain result would be most helpful in determining the tumor cells are of pancreatic origin?

              1. CDX2 negative
              2. CDX2 positive
              3. Loss of SMAD4 nuclear stain
              4. Retained nuclear SMAD4 stain
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Loss of SMAD4 nuclear stain

              Comment Here

              Reference: SMAD4 / DPC4

              SMARCA4 / BRG1
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              Pathophysiology
              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              • SMARCA4 has a nuclear pattern of immunohistochemical expression; SMARCA4 deficient neoplasms have complete loss of staining among tumor cells with retained expression by nonneoplastic tissues (e.g., blood vessels, lymphocytes) (Nature 1993;366:170)
              • There is no established cutoff for determining high versus low expression; staining of the surrounding normal tissue has been used as a median value relative to which SMARCA4 expression may be considered increased or decreased (Int J Oncol 2013;42:403)
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              • Concomitant loss of SMARCA4 and BRM in non-small cell lung cancer is associated with worse prognosis (Cancer Res 2003;63:560)
              • Loss of expression of SMARCA4 is associated with improved prognosis in clear cell renal cell carcinoma (Oncotarget 2017;8:37423)
              • Increased SMARCA4 expression is associated with worse prognosis in patients with breast invasive ductal carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma and clear cell renal cell carcinoma (Anticancer Res 2016;36:4873, Sci Rep 2018;8:2043)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Rose Chami, M.D. and Catherine Chung, M.D.
              Ovarian small cell carcinoma, hypercalcemic type Ovarian small cell carcinoma, hypercalcemic type

              Ovarian small cell carcinoma, hypercalcemic type

              Positive staining - normal
              • Most normal tissues contain intact nuclear SMARCA4 expression
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • In small cell carcinoma of the ovary, whole exome sequencing demonstrated:
              • In SMARCA4 deficient thoracic tumors, mRNA sequencing showed the presence of SMARCA4 gene mutations (nonsense, frameshift, missense and splice site) (Nat Genet 2015;47:1200)
              Sample pathology report
              • Immunohistochemical analysis of SMARCA4 / BRG1 expression (clone, dilution, automated staining platform*):
                • The tissue staining pattern is intact / lost.*
                • External (positive and negative) and internal (e.g., endothelial cells and lymphocytes) controls have intact staining pattern.*
              • *Details to be specified / confirmed upon reporting stain.
              Board review style question #1

              Which of the following is associated with loss of SMARCA4 expression?

              1. Colorectal adenocarcinoma
              2. Melanoma
              3. Small cell carcinoma of the lung
              4. Small cell carcinoma of the ovary, hypercalcemic type
              Board review style answer #1
              D. Small cell carcinoma of the ovary, hypercalcemic type

              Comment Here

              Reference: SMARCA4 / BRG1

              Smooth muscle myosin heavy chain / SMMHC
              Definition / general
              • The MYH11 gene (Chromosome 16) encodes a smooth muscle myosin protein (SMMHC) that is a subunit of a hexameric protein involved in contraction, the conversion of chemical energy into mechanical energy via ATP hydrolysis, and G protein coupled receptors / GPCR signaling
              • Fusion between core binding factor beta (CBF-beta) with SMMHC (CBFbeta-SMMHC; Inv(16)(p13q22)) is present in nearly all acute myeloid leukemia M4 eosinophilia subtype (AML M4Eo)
              • Useful for differentiating between benign and malignant lesions (e.g. breast and lung lesions)
              Essential features
              Terminology
              • Myosin heavy chain 11, myosin 11, myosin heavy chain, smooth muscle isoform, MYH11, SMHC, SMMHC
              Sites
              • Expressed in cytoplasm and cell membrane of myoepithelial and smooth muscle cells
              Pathophysiology
              Diagnosis
              Laboratory
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Cytoplasmic and membranous staining in normal myoepithelial and smooth muscle cells
              • Nuclear staining in acute myeloid leukemic cells with Inv(16)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Rebecca Obeng, M.D.

              SMMHC staining myoepithelial cells



              Images hosted on other servers:

              Positive stains:

              Colon

              Endometrium

              Various images

              Cytology description
              • Positive immunohistochemical staining in spindle cells between epithelial cells or along the edges of epithelial cells in benign breast lesions; negative staining in invasive breast carcinomas except for vascular smooth muscle cells (Diagn Cytopathol 1999;20:203)
              Positive stains
              Flow cytometry description
              • Intracellular staining for CBFbeta-SMMHC can be used for the identification of AML M4Eo leukemic cells (Blood 1998;91:1882)
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Inv(16)(p13q22) or t(16:16)(p13q22) leads to fusion of CBFbeta and SMMHC that can be detected by fluorescent in situ hybridization

              Smoothelin
              Definition / general
              Interpretation
              • Distinction of cytoplasmic from nuclear staining may be important
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Image hosted on other servers:

              Lamina propria:
              Muscularis mucosae
              (arrowhead); Detrusor
              muscle (arrow)

              Positive staining - normal
              • Differentiated smooth muscle cells
              Positive staining - disease
              • Cytoplasmic staining: benign smooth muscle tumors, GI leiomyosarcomas (24%, Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:1795)
              • Nuclear staining: GI leiomyosarcomas (41%), GIST (22%)
              Negative staining
              • Striated muscle, myofibroblasts, myoepithelial cells, pericytes
              • Negative cytoplasmic staining in dedifferentiated liposarcoma, desmoid tumor, GIST, inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor, MPNST, schwannoma

              SOX10
              Definition / general
              • SRY related HMG box 10 (SOX10) protein
              • Transcription factor known to be crucial in the specification of the neural crest and maintenance of Schwann cells and melanocytes
              • Expressed in nuclei of melanocytes, peripheral nerves, breast myoepithelial cells, luminal cells of sweat and salivary glands (Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:826)
              Essential features
              • Positive marker for most melanomas (Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:826)
              • Also expressed in benign nevi and benign tumors of Schwann cell lineage
              • May be more sensitive than S100 for identifying metastatic melanoma (Cancer Cytopathol 2018;126:179)
              • Encoded by SOX10 gene located on chromosome 22q13.1
              • May be a useful marker for primary and metastatic triple negative breast cancer (TNBC) (Mod Pathol 2021;34:62)
              Terminology
              • SRY box 10
              • SRY (sex determining region Y) box 10
              • SRY related HMG box gene 10
              Pathophysiology
              • Encoded by the SOX10 gene on the long arm of chromosome 22 at position 22q13.1
              • Important in the development of cells including neural crest cells, glial cells, neurons, osteoblasts, smooth muscle cells and melanocytes (J Otol 2022;17:247)
              • Mutations in the SOX10 gene are associated with pigment abnormalities, disorders of gastrointestinal motility, loss of smell and severe hearing loss
              Clinical features
              • Mutations in SOX10 gene cause Waardenburg syndrome type 4 (auditory pigmentary abnormalities and Hirschsprung disease) (Gene 2014;538:36)
                • Mutations within SOX10 enhancers may contribute to isolated Hirschsprung disease (Hum Mutat 2014;35:303)
              • Mutations cause Kallman syndrome (anosmia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) with deafness (Am J Hum Genet 2013;92:707)
              Interpretation
              • Strong, distinct nuclear stain
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Normal finding: nuclear expression in some normal cells like melanocytes, peripheral nerves, breast myoepithelial cells, luminal cells of sweat and salivary glands (see Positive staining - normal)
              • Nuclear expression in malignant melanoma and soft tissue tumors
              • Any other pattern could represent abnormality or background staining and should be further assessed (some cytoplasmic staining has been noted with certain polyclonal antibodies) (Nowotwory J Oncol 2019;69:58)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Pamela Wirth, Ph.D. (source: University of Toronto)
              Nerve sheath tumor

              Nerve sheath tumor

              Nerve sheath tumor, SOX10 Nerve sheath tumor, SOX10

              Nerve sheath tumor, SOX10

              Desmoplastic melanoma

              Desmoplastic melanoma

              Desmoplastic melanoma, SOX10 Desmoplastic melanoma, SOX10

              Desmoplastic melanoma, SOX10


              Soft tissue granular cell tumor

              Soft tissue granular cell tumor

              Soft tissue granular cell tumor, SOX10 Soft tissue granular cell tumor, SOX10

              Soft tissue granular cell tumor, SOX10

              Positive staining - normal
              • Epidermal melanocytes, peripheral nerves, Schwann cells, neurofibromas and myoepithelial cells of the salivary and mammary glands (Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:826)
              • In major salivary glands, expressed in nuclei of acini and both luminal and abluminal cells of intercalated ducts but not in other sites (Mod Pathol 2013;26:1041)
              Positive staining - disease
              • Melanoma: almost all spindle cell melanomas and most desmoplastic melanomas (Actas Dermosifiliogr 2017;108:17)
              • SOX10 has demonstrated positive staining in spiradenomas, cylindromas, hidradenoma papilliferum, syringocystadenoma papilliferum and apocrine adenomas (J Cutan Pathol 2017;44:544)
              • SOX10+ carcinomas include acinic cell, adenoid cystic, epithelial myoepithelial, myoepithelial; also pleomorphic adenomas, including the pleomorphic adenoma component of carcinoma (Br J Cancer 2013;109:444)
              • Soft tissue tumors including Schwannoma, neurofibroma, granular cell tumor, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:826)
              • Usually positive nuclear staining in breast basal-like / unclassified triple negative / metaplastic carcinoma (Hum Pathol 2013;44:959)
              • Specific (93%) but not very sensitive (67%) for malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor over synovial sarcoma (Mod Pathol 2014;27:55)
                • Must interpret with caution in intraneural tumors
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Mutations in SOX10 gene can lead to genetic disorders such as Waardenburg syndrome types II and IV and Hirschsprung disease (Am J Hum Genet 2007;81:1169)
                • SOX10 gene deletions (15%) found in Waardenburg syndrome type II in one study of 30 patients
                • PCR is more commonly used to screen for SOX10 gene deletions
                • Some Waardenburg syndrome type IV cases involve multiple mutations and are not easily characterized by SOX10 mutations alone
              Sample pathology report
              • Skin biopsy, scalp:
                • Spindle cell melanoma (see comment)
                • Comment: Microscopic examination of the biopsy revealed atypical spindle cells along with areas of pleomorphism and high mitotic activity. Diagnosis of spindle cell melanoma was confirmed with an immunostaining panel that included S100 (positive), SOX10 (positive), AE1 / AE3 (negative) and p63 (negative) to confirm the diagnosis of spindle cell melanoma versus spindle cell squamous cell carcinoma.
              Board review style question #1
              SOX10 can be used to help diagnose which of the following conditions?

              1. Benign nevi versus melanoma
              2. HER2 positive breast tumors
              3. Soft tissue tumors of neural crest origin
              4. Squamous cell carcinomas of the skin
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Soft tissue tumors of neural crest origin. SOX10 is commonly expressed in peripheral nerves and melanomas with nerve cell involvement including desmoplastic melanoma. Answer A is incorrect because both benign nevi and melanomas can express SOX10, making it an insensitive marker for distinguishing between benign neoplasms and malignant melanomas. Answer B is incorrect because SOX10 is typically negative or expressed in very low levels in HER2 positive breast tissue. Answer D is incorrect because SOX10 expression is minimal to absent in squamous cell carcinoma.

              Comment Here

              Reference: SOX10
              Board review style question #2
              Desmoplastic melanoma Desmoplastic melanoma, SOX10


              A biopsy from an 86 year old man reveals a lesion with atypical spindle cell melanocytes infiltrating the dermis. IHC stain results were positive for S100 and SOX10 (shown) and negative for HMB45 and MelanA. What is the likely diagnosis?

              1. Cutaneous melanoma
              2. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
              3. Desmoplastic melanoma
              4. Spindle cell squamous cell carcinoma
              Board review style answer #2
              C. Desmoplastic melanoma. The absence of HMB45 and MelanA staining is characteristic of desmoplastic melanomas in addition to positive staining for SOX10 and S100. Answer A is incorrect because melanomas are typically HMB45 positive. Answer D is incorrect as spindle cell squamous cell carcinomas are typically negative for S100 and HMB45. Answer B is incorrect because dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is typically negative for SOX10, S100 and HMB45.

              Comment Here

              Reference: SOX10

              SOX11
              Definition / general
              • SRY (sex determining region Y) related high mobility group (HMG) box 11 (SOX11) is a member of the SOX gene family; specifically a member of the SOXC group of transcription factors
              • Located at chromosome 2p25.2 (Semin Cancer Biol 2020;67:3)
              Essential features
              • Generally considered to be a marker for mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), although a subset of SOX11 negative MCL cases have also been described
              • Prognostic value is debated
              Pathophysiology
              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Anna Dusenbery, M.D.
              MCL of the tonsil MCL of the tonsil

              MCL of the tonsil

              Positive staining - normal
              • Not generally expressed in the nucleus of mature tissues; however, nuclear expression has been noted in Schwann cells, keratinocytes and other squamous or epithelial cells (Histopathology 2019;74:391, Blood 2008;111:800)
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Sample pathology report
              Board review style question #1

              Which of the following would be expected to show positive staining for SOX11 in a similar expression pattern to that depicted in the image shown above?

              1. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia / small lymphocytic lymphoma
              2. Leukemic nonnodal mantle cell lymphoma
              3. Marginal zone lymphoma
              4. Nonneoplastic lymphocytes
              5. Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of the pancreas
              Board review style answer #1
              E. Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of the pancreas

              Comment Here

              Reference: SOX11

              SOX17 (pending)
              [Pending]

              SOX2
              Definition / general
              • Transcription factor at 3q26.33, essential to maintain self-renewal of undifferentiated embryonic stem cells
              • Also known as SRY (sex determining region Y)-box 2 is a transcription factor that is essential to maintain self-renewal of undifferentiated embryonic stem cells
              • Marker of embryonic stem cell pluripotency that is associated with aggressive tumor behavior
              Clinical features
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Skin: embryonal / fetal (left), adult (right)

              Breast carcinoma: various

              Breast carcinoma


              Lung adenocarcinoma

              Skin tumors: Merkel cell carcinoma (left), melanoma (right)

              Squamous cell carcinoma

              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Choriocarcinoma (testis), seminoma (mediastinum, testis), yolk sac tumors (mediastinum, testis)
              • CNS germinoma (Am J Surg Pathol 2006;30:1613), lymphoma

              SOX9
              Definition / general
              • Sex determining region Y (SRY)-related high mobility groupbox 9
              • Transcription factor linked to hedgehog pathways, plays a central role in development and differentiation of multiple cell lineages
              • Downstream molecule of beta-catenin
              • Master regulator of chondrogenesis
              Clinical features
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Duodenum:
              normal mucosa
              (figs D, E, F)

              Duodenum:
              nonampullary
              adenoma
              (figs D, E, F)

              Duodenum:
              nonampullary
              adenocarcinoma
              (figs D, E, F)

              Liver: hepatocellular carcinoma and normal

              Lung: normal and non small cell lung cancer


              Skin: scalp

              Skin: psoriasis,
              keratoacanthoma,
              carcinoma

              Skin: TISH analysis

              Testis: androgen insensitivity
              and Sertoli cell only syndromes,
              normal spermatogenesis


              Special AT-rich sequence-binding protein 2 (SATB2)
              Definition / general
              • First identified in 2002 and characterized as a gene involved in cleft palate defects (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2017;141:1428)
              • Part of the matrix attachment region binding transcription factor family, which consists of transcription factors binding to adenine and thymine (AT) rich regions in the nuclear matrix, capable of altering the chromatin structure (Arch Pathol Lab Med 2017;141:1428)
              Essential features
              • Nuclear marker normally expressed by epithelium of the lower gastrointestinal tract, brain, nongerminal center lymphoid cells, ductal epithelium of the testis and epididymis
              • High sensitivity and specificity for colorectal and appendiceal neoplasms; also can help diagnose osteosarcoma
              • Useful in an immunostaining panel of tumor of unknown primary to rule in colorectal metastasis (Am J Clin Pathol 2021;155:124)
              • Can be expressed in a subset of upper gastrointestinal adenocarcinomas; is rarely expressed in lung adenocarcinomas and pancreatobiliary neoplasms (Am J Clin Pathol 2021;155:124)
              • In contrast to CDX2, SATB2 positivity is rare in mucinous and enteric pulmonary adenocarcinomas
              Pathophysiology
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:
              SATB2 immunohistochemistry in a large cohort of mucinous and nonmucinous adenocarcinomas

              SATB2 IHC: mucinous and nonmucinous adenocarcinomas

              Caption

              SATB2 / CDX2 expression in mucinous tumors

              Optimal SATB2 H score threshold to separate colonic and noncolonic adenocarcinomas

              SATB2 H score: colonic and noncolonic adenocarcinomas

              SATB2 literature review

              SATB2 literature review

              SATB2 expression in well differentiated neuroendocrine tumors and pheochromocytoma / paraganglioma

              SATB2 expression
              in WD NET /
              pheochromocytoma
              / paraganglioma

              Clinical features
              • Alterations of SATB2 gene (including intragenic duplication, deletions and point mutations in 2q32-q33) have been associated with SATB2 associated syndrome (SAS) (Am J Med Genet A 2014;164A:3083)
              • Phenotype is characterized by intellectual disability and craniofacial abnormalities, including cleft palate, dysmorphic features and dental abnormalities (Am J Med Genet A 2015;167A:1026)
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain
              Uses by pathologists
              • Differentiate colorectal carcinomas (SATB2+) from many other metastatic adenocarcinomas
              • Differentiate colorectal metastasis (SATB2+) from primary pulmonary adenocarcinoma of mucinous or enteric type (SATB2- but often CDX2+)
              • Differentiate metastatic colorectal adenocarcinomas (SATB2+) from pancreatobiliary neoplasms (SATB2-) (Am J Clin Pathol 2021;155:124)
              • Differentiate ovarian metastases of colorectal and appendiceal origin (SATB2+) from primary ovarian tumors of mucinous or endometrioid type (SATB2-) (Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:419)
              • Differentiate osteosarcomas (SATB2+) from their malignant bone tumor mimickers, such as Ewing sarcomas (SATB2-) (Pathol Res Pract 2016;212:811)
              • As part of a panel in tumors of unknown origin (Pathol Res Pract 2016;212:811)
              Prognostic factors
              • Higher SATB2 expression is associated with better prognosis and response to chemotherapy in metastatic colorectal carcinomas (Acta Oncol 2020;59:284)
              • Low SATB2 expression and mutated BRAF are associated with particularly poor prognosis (Acta Oncol 2020;59:284)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Simona De Michele, M.D., Sepideh Besharati, M.D. and Anjali Saqi, M.D.
              SATB2 control

              SATB2 control

              Mucinous adenocarcinoma of colon, moderately differentiated Mucinous adenocarcinoma of colon, moderately differentiated

              Mucinous adenocarcinoma of colon, moderately differentiated

              Colon adenocarcinoma, moderately differentiated Colon adenocarcinoma, moderately differentiated

              Colon adenocarcinoma, moderately differentiated


              Colon neuroendocrine tumor, well differentiated Colon neuroendocrine tumor, well differentiated

              Colon neuroendocrine tumor, well differentiated

              High grade osteosarcoma High grade osteosarcoma

              High grade osteosarcoma

              Rare case of SATB2+ mucinous lung adenocarcinoma Rare case of SATB2+ mucinous lung adenocarcinoma

              Rare case of SATB2+ mucinous lung adenocarcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1

              When evaluating the pulmonary neoplasm shown in the image, which immunohistochemical stain is more specific than CDX2 for ruling in a colorectal metastasis?

              1. CK7
              2. CK20
              3. Napsin A
              4. SATB2
              5. TTF1
              Board review style answer #1
              D. SATB2

              Comment Here

              Reference: SATB2

              SSTR2A
              Definition / general
              • Somatostatin receptor 2a
              • 1 of 5 types of somatostatin receptors
              Essential features
              Pathophysiology
              • Transmembrane G protein coupled receptor, widely distributed in normal human tissues
              • Mediates antisecretory effects of somatostatin by inhibiting high voltage activated calcium channels (FEBS Lett 1994;355:117)
              • Mediates antiproliferative effect in tumors via direct and indirect mechanisms
              • Direct mechanisms include promotion of apoptosis via upregulation of Bax, inhibition of growth factor action on tumor cells via inhibition of MAPK phosphorylation and cell cycle arrest (Front Neuroendocrinol 2013;34:228)
              • Indirect mechanisms include inhibition of growth factor secretion and antiangiogenic effects via upregulation of potent angiogenic inhibitor thrombospondin 1 in pancreatic tumors, inhibition of secretion of VEGF, PDGF, IGF1 by endothelium and monocytes (Proc Natl Acad Sci U S A 2009;106:17769, Mol Endocrinol 2005;19:255)
              • SSTR2 expression in nasopharyngeal cancer is induced by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latent membrane protein 1 (LMP1) via the NFκB pathway (Nat Commun 2021;12:117)
              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              • Membranous and cytoplasmic staining
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Staining intensity usually variable
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Robert Terlević, M.D.

              Neuroendocrine breast carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following tumors is most likely to stain with SSTR2A?

              1. Grade I neuroendocrine tumor of the small intestine
              2. Grade II neuroendocrine tumor of the pancreas
              3. Neuroendocrine breast cancer
              4. Oligodendroglioma
              5. Small cell lung cancer
              Board review style answer #1
              A. Grade I neuroendocrine tumor of the small intestine

              Comment Here

              Reference: SSTR2A

              STAT6
              Definition / general
              • Signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) 6
              • Member of STAT transcription factor family
              • In physiological state, cytokine stimulation and tyrosine phosphorylation of cytoplasmic STAT6 leads to transfer of STAT6 to nucleus for transcriptional roles in proliferation and immune regulation (Am J Clin Pathol 2015;143:672)
              Essential features
              Pathophysiology
              • NAB2 (NGFI-A binding protein 2) represses transcription, while STAT6 influences gene expression by DNA promoter binding
              • NAB2::STAT6 fusion results from an intrachromosomal inversion on 12q13 locus
              • NAB2::STAT6 fusion gene acts as activator of EGR1 (early growth response 1) targeted transcription and relocates to the nucleus, with resultant strong nuclear expression of STAT6 by immunohistochemistry (Mod Pathol 2014;27:390, Am J Clin Pathol 2015;143:672)
              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain
              Uses by pathologists
              • Distinction of solitary fibrous tumor (positive staining) from histological mimics (negative staining)
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Alison Lavinia Cheah, M.B.B.S.

              Solitary fibrous tumor (buccal mucosa)

              Solitary fibrous tumor, giant cell angiofibroma variant (thigh)

              Malignant solitary fibrous tumor (mediastinum)

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - tumors
              Negative staining - normal
              Negative staining - tumors
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following acts as the fusion partner for STAT6 in solitary fibrous tumor?

              1. EWSR1
              2. MDM2
              3. NAB2
              4. NCOA2
              5. NR4A3
              Board review style answer #1
              C. NAB2. NAB2::STAT6 fusion occurs secondary to an intrachromosomal inversion of the 12q13 locus, resulting in the fusion protein which relocates to the nucleus.

              Comment Here

              Reference: STAT6

              Sudan Black B
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              • Stains lipids in granulocytes; useful if fresh specimens not available or in patients with myeloperoxidase deficiency
              • Positive enzyme cytochemistry: neutrophils, monocytes (variable), AML-M1, M2, microgranular M3; negative in ALL

              SV40 (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              Synaptophysin
              Definition / general
              • A protein (38 kD), encoded by the SYP gene; is an integral membrane glycoprotein localized to presynaptic neurosecretory vesicles (Am J Hum Genet 1990;47:551)
              Essential features
              • An integral membrane protein of small synaptic vesicles in brain and endocrine cells (Am J Hum Genet 1990;47:551)
              • Positive in well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor (carcinoid tumor), neuroendocrine carcinoma, neuroblastoma, adrenal cortical tumors, paraganglioma, pheochromocytoma, Merkel cell carcinoma, parathyroid tumors and medullary thyroid carcinoma
              • Used in conjunction with chromogranin A, INSM1 and CD56 for diagnosing neuroendocrine tumors (Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:757)
              Terminology
              • Major synaptic vesicle protein p38
              • MRX96
              • MRXSYP
              • XLID96
              Pathophysiology
              • SYP gene is at Xp11.23 (Am J Hum Genet 1990;47:551)
              • Subcellular locations:
                • Synaptic vesicle membrane, cytoplasmic vesicles, secretory vesicles, synaptosome
              • SYP gene encodes an integral membrane protein of small synaptic vesicles in brain and endocrine cells (Am J Hum Genet 1990;47:551)
              • Involved in cholesterol binding and biogenesis and maturation of synaptic vesicles (Nat Cell Biol 2000;2:42)
              • Regulates endocytosis of synaptic vesicles
              • SYP mutations are associated with X linked intellectual developmental disorder (Nat Genet 2009;41:535)
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Synaptophysin in synaptic vesicle endocytosis

              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              • Cytoplasmic staining
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              • Expression correlates with resistance to abiraterone and enzalutamide treatment in patients with castration resistance prostate cancer (Urol Oncol 2018;36:162.e1)
              • Synaptophysin positive, BRAF mutated colorectal cancers characterized by worse progression free survival and overall survival (Eur J Cancer 2021;146:145)
              • Expression associated with a longer median overall survival in patients with advanced nonsmall cell lung cancer (Respiration 2013;85:289)
              • Synaptophysin positive stage I squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma of the lung associated with worse prognosis (Cancer 2007;110:1776)
              • Aberrant expression in a small subset of epithelioid hemangioendothelioma associated with aggressive clinical course (Am J Surg Pathol 2021;45:616)
              • Associated with worse prognosis in extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (Hum Pathol 2005;36:732)
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Diffuse cytoplasmic staining is regarded as positive
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Y. Albert Yeh, M.D., Ph.D.
              Prostatic paraganglioma Prostatic paraganglioma

              Prostatic paraganglioma

              Merkel cell carcinoma Merkel cell carcinoma

              Merkel cell carcinoma

              Metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma Metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma

              Metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma


              Lung Lung small cell carcinoma

              Lung small cell carcinoma

              Bladder small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma Bladder small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma

              Bladder small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma

              Liver small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma Liver small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma

              Liver small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma


              Duodenal well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor Duodenal well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor

              Duodenal well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor

              Duodenal neuroendocrine dysplastic nodule Duodenal neuroendocrine nodule synaptophysin

              Duodenal neuroendocrine dysplastic nodule




              Cases #195, #110, #189, #185 and #17
              Bladder paraganglioma Bladder paraganglioma

              Bladder paraganglioma

              Sacrococcygeal chordoma Sacrococcygeal chordoma

              Sacrococcygeal chordoma

              Colonic tubulovillous adenoma with microcarcinoids Colonic tubulovillous adenoma with microcarcinoids

              Colonic tubulovillous adenoma with microcarcinoids


              Retropharyngeal neuroblastoma Retropharyngeal neuroblastoma

              Retropharyngeal neuroblastoma

              Thymic carcinoma (type C thymoma), nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma type Thymic carcinoma (type C thymoma), nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma type

              Thymic carcinoma (type C thymoma), nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma type



              Contributed by Jijgee Munkhdelger, M.D., Ph.D. and Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D.
              Lung typical carcinoid immunoprofile

              Lung typical carcinoid immunoprofile

              Cytology images

              Contributed by Y. Albert Yeh, M.D., Ph.D. and Ashley Moreland, B.S., C.T. (ASCP)
              Medullary thyroid carcinoma Medullary thyroid carcinoma

              Medullary thyroid carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              • Tumor with nonneuroendocrine cell origin
              • Squamous cell carcinoma
              • Adenocarcinoma
              • Renal cell carcinoma
              • Urothelial carcinoma
              • Endometrial carcinoma
              • Melanoma
              • Lymphoma
              • Reference: J Thorac Oncol 2017;12:334
              Sample pathology report
              • Lung, right upper lobe, endobronchial biopsy:
                • Poorly differentiated carcinoma consistent with small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma (see comment)
                • Comment: The lung biopsy shows bronchial mucosa with infiltrating tumor cell with nuclei characterized by coarse and fine chromatin and arranged in nuclear molding pattern. Immunohistochemical stains synaptophysin, chromogranin and TTF1 are positive in the tumor cells. These findings support the diagnosis of small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma of the lung.
              Board review style question #1

              A 60 year old man presented to the urology clinic with obstructive urinary tract symptoms. Cystoscopy showed a tumor in the bladder neck. Transurethral urethral bladder tumor resection was performed. Microscopic examination of the sample is shown in the above photomicrograph. What are the best immunohistochemical stains to diagnose this tumor?

              1. Desmin, SMA, myoD
              2. CD45, CD3, CD20
              3. S100, melan A, SOX10
              4. Synaptophysin, chromogranin A, INSM1
              Board review style answer #1
              D. Synaptophysin, chromogranin A, INSM1. This is a small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma of the bladder.

              Comment Here

              Reference: Synaptophysin

              SYT / SSX (pending)
              [Pending]

              T cell leukemia / lymphoma protein 1 (TCL1)
              Definition / general
              • Locus: 14q32.13
              • Protein expression in immature T and B lymphoid cells
              • Overexpression of TCL1 is considered critical in the oncogenetic transformation (Nat Rev Cancer 2005;5:640)
              Essential features
              Terminology
              • Other alias: T cell leukemia / lymphoma 1
              Clinical features
              • T cell prolymphocytic leukemia is usually associated with inv(14)(q11;q32) or t(14;14)(q11;q32), which juxtaposes T cell leukemia 1 (TCL1) coding region with T cell receptor (TCR) locus at 14q11, resulting in overexpression of TCL1 oncoprotein (J Clin Pathol 2018;71:309)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Differentiates T prolymphocytic leukemia (TCL1+) from other mature T cell lymphomas / leukemia (TCL1-) (J Clin Pathol 2018;71:309)
              • Differentiates blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm (TCL1+) from myeloid / monocytic sarcoma or NK cell lymphoma (TCL1-) (Blood 2003;101:5007, Mod Pathol 2014;27:1137)
              • May have prognostic significance in B cell lymphomas
              Prognostic factors
              • Overexpression may be a poor prognostic factor for chronic lymphocytic leukemia and mantle cell lymphoma (Mod Pathol 2009;22:206)
              • Expression correlates with an adverse clinical outcome in diffuse large B cell lymphoma (Int J Oncol 2005;26:151)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Zhihong Hu, M.D., Ph.D., Sa A. Wang, M.D. and Tsieh Sun, M.D.

              H&E

              CD3

              TCL1

              H&E

              Bone marrow aspirate

              TCL1


              H&E

              PAX5

              TCL1

              Positive staining - normal
              Negative staining - normal
              Negative staining - tumors
              Board review style question #1
              A 60 year old man presented with skin lesions and peripheral blood smear showing marked leukocytosis with lymphocytosis. The lymphocytes are small to medium with small nucleoli. Flow cytometry analysis is of peripheral blood sample shows an aberrant T cell population with the immunophenotype of
              CD2+ / CD3+ / CD4+ / CD7+ / CD8+ / CD26+ / TCRa / b. Which stain would be most helpful to make a diagnosis on this patient?

              1. CD25
              2. CD30
              3. CD123
              4. TCL1
              5. TDT
              Board review style answer #1
              D. TCL1 stain. The major differential diagnoses include mycosis fungoides (MF) with blood involvement. Mycosis fungoides cells are more cerebriform and often show losses of CD7 and CD26 expression. Adult T cell leukemia / lymphoma often shows flower cells, with loss of CD26 and a bright expression of CD25. Peripheral T cell lymphoma with a leukemic presentation is uncommon; the immunophenotype is CD4 > CD8, with frequent CD7 loss. In the current case, the clinical presentation and immunophenotypic features of tumor cells are more in favor of T cell prolymphocytic leukemia. TCL1 protein is often overexpressed in 80 - 90% of T cell prolymphocytic leukemia, frequently due to TCL1 rearrangement as a result of inv(14)(q11;q32) or t(14;14)(q11;q32) but also can be overexpressed in the absence of the rearrangement. TCL1 is negative in mycosis fungoides, adult T cell lymphoma / leukemia and peripheral T cell lymphoma.

              Comment Here

              Reference: T cell leukemia / lymphoma protein 1 (TCL1)

              TCR and variants (pending)

              TDP-43 (pending)
              [Pending]

              TdT
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • Nuclear marker expressed in most precursor lymphoid neoplasms
              • Expressed in the variable number of nonneoplastic immature T lymphocytes (thymocytes) in thymoma; however, some cases lack clusters of thymocytes
              • Expressed in many cases of Merkel cell carcinoma and blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm, which may be a diagnostic pitfall
              • Expressed in approximately 10% of acute myeloid leukemia (that is, not lineage defining)
              • Not expressed in mature B cell neoplasms that may have blastoid morphology, such as mantle cell lymphoma or high grade B cell lymphoma
              • Not expressed in Ewing sarcoma
              Terminology
              • DNA nucleotidylexotransferase (DNTT)
              • Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
              Pathophysiology
              • Catalyzes addition of deoxynucleotides to the 3'-OH end of DNA primers
              • Adds nontemplated nucleotides at the junctions of V(D)J gene segments (Chembiochem 2019;20:860)
              • Contributes to immunoglobulin and T cell receptor diversity
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear stain
              Uses by pathologists
              • Differentiating precursor lymphoid neoplasms, which may not express CD45, from other small blue cell tumors
              • Identifying clusters of thymocytes in thymoma, which are typically absent in thymic carcinoma
              Prognostic factors
              • B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma that does not express TdT may be associated with KMT2A rearrangements and lower 5 year event free survival (Mod Pathol 2021;34:2050)
              • TdT expression in acute myeloid leukemia with an intermediate risk karyotype may be associated with increased risk of relapse (Int J Hematol 2020;112:17)
              • TdT expression in Merkel cell carcinoma may be associated with improved overall survival (Am J Clin Pathol 2020;154:38)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Austin Ellis, M.D.
              B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma

              B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma

              B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma PAX5 B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma TdT

              B lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma

              T lymphoblastic lymphoma T lymphoblastic lymphoma

              T lymphoblastic lymphoma



              Contributed by Renuka Agrawal, M.D. (Case #126)
              Pre B lymphoblastic lymphoma

              Pre-B lymphoblastic lymphoma

              Virtual slides

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Mixed phenotype acute leukemia, H&E Mixed phenotype acute leukemia, TdT

              Mixed phenotype acute leukemia

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Sample pathology report
              • Mediastinal mass, needle core biopsy:
                • T lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma (see comment)
                • Comment: The needle core biopsy demonstrates sheets of intermediate size lymphoid cells with somewhat irregular nuclear contours, finely stippled chromatin and scant cytoplasm. Scattered tingible body macrophages are present. The neoplastic cells are positive for CD3 (cytoplasmic), CD5, CD7, CD4, CD8, CD10 and TdT and negative for CD30 and ALK1. Ki67 is 95%.
              Board review style question #1

              A 19 year old man presents with respiratory distress. Computed tomography (CT) of his chest identifies a mass in the anterior mediastinum. Core biopsy of the mass consists of sheets of intermediate size cells with finely stippled chromatin and scant cytoplasm. The cells are negative for CD45 and positive for CD99 and TdT. Cytokeratin AE1 / AE3 is negative. Scattered tingible body macrophages are present. Which of the following is true regarding the lesional cells?

              1. TdT expression indicates they are derived from precursor lymphoid cells
              2. TdT expression precludes a diagnosis of thymic hyperplasia
              3. TdT expression supports a diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma
              4. TdT expression supports a diagnosis of neuroblastoma
              Board review style answer #1
              A. TdT expression indicates they are derived from precursor lymphoid cells

              Comment Here

              Reference: TdT

              TERT
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • TERT / telomerase activity is detected in human cells before the neonatal period and immortal cells (stem cells and cancers) but not in most adult human somatic cells (Cancer Res 1998;58:622, Science 1994;266:2011, Int J Cancer 2001;91:644, Dev Genet 1996;18:173)
              • TERT upregulation, especially through TERT promoter mutations, is an important tumorigenic mechanism
              • Telomerase diseases: idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, aplastic anemia, dyskeratosis congenita, acute myeloid leukemia, liver disease and bone marrow failure
              • TERT IHC staining pattern varies among types of tumors and clones of antibodies
              Terminology
              Pathophysiology
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:

              TERT in cancer progression

              TERT and potential therapeutic targets

              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Mitotic cells show diffuse cytoplasmic staining
              • Among 4 commercial markers, PC563 (Oncogene), ab177 (Abcam), Ab-2 (Calbiochem) and NCL-TERT (Novocastra), only 1 provides reproducible IHC staining results: NCL-TERT (Histochem Cell Biol 2004;121:391)
              • Most frequently used TERT antibodies (including NCL-TERT) recognize nucleolin rather than telomerase, leading to the inconsistency in the specificity of TERT IHC results (J Cell Sci 2006;119:2797)
              Tissues / tumors Staining pattern  References Clone
              Skin tumors  N/C  J Invest Dermatol 2014;134:2251Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:25 
              C   J Cutan Pathol 2004;31:544Calbiochem / Ab-2  
              Skin / melanomas   N/C   Arch Pathol Lab Med 2020 Oct 14 [Epub ahead of print]Abcam / Y182 / 1:100  
              C   Br J Cancer 2018;118:98Rockland / 1:125  
              Gliomas   N   Acta Neuropathol 2006;111:569,
              J Clin Oncol 2006;24:1522
              Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:100
              1:25  
              Glioblastomas   N   J Cancer 2019;10:2397Thermofisher / MA5-16033  
              N/C   Nat Commun 2013;4:2185Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:25  
              Mesotheliomas   N   Am J Surg Pathol 2002;26:365Novus Lab / 1:750  
              Lung tumors   N/n   Br J Cancer 2004;90:1222Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:20  
              N/C   Anticancer Res 2013;33:2643Gene Tex / TERT 2C4  
              Liver tumors   N/C   Oncotarget 2017;8:26288Abcam / Y182 / 1:100  
              N/C   Oncotarget 2016;7:27838Abcam / Ab5181 / 1:20  
              C   Pathol Res Pract 2015;211:316Santa Cruz  
              Breast tumors   N   J Carcinog 2005;4:17Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:50  
              N   Sci Rep 2018;8:3881Alpha Diagnostic / 1:100  
              Cervical tumors   N/C   Cancer Genomics Proteomics 2020;17:615Abcam / Ab5181 / 1:20  
              N/C   J Clin Pathol 2005;58:911DIESSE / Tel 3-36-10  
              N   Diagn Cytopathol 2006;34:739EMD Biosciences / PC563 / 1:100  
              Ovarian tumors   N   Int J Clin Exp Pathol 2015;8:14971Rockland / 1:200  
              N   J Med Assoc Thai 2009;92:308,
              Gynecol Oncol 2005;98:396
              Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:50  
              C   Indian J Pathol Microbiol 2012;55:187Gene Tex / 1:80  
              Endometrial lesions   N   Int J Gynecol Pathol 2005;24:184Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:50  
              N/C   Mod Pathol 2011;24:1254Santa Cruz / Sc-7215 / 1:40  
              Colorectal tumors   N/C   Oncol Rep 2015;33:2728Abcam / Y182 / 1:100  
              N/C   Clin Cancer Res 2008;14:7444Santa Cruz / TRT H-231 / 1:50  
              N/n   Clin Cancer Res 2008;14:7444Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:20  
              Ulcerative colitis  N   Int J Mol Med 2014;33:1477Abcam / Ab5181 / 1:500  
              Gastric tumors   N   Biomarkers 2009;14:630Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:50  
              C   Mod Pathol 2003;16:700Santa Cruz / 1:50  
              Urothelial tumors   n   Cytojournal 2006;3:18Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:25  
              N/C   Anticancer Res 2005;25:3109Santa Cruz / Sc-7215 / 1:60  
              Prostatic tumors   N   Folia Histochem Cytobiol 2013;51:66,
              Cancer 2002;95:2487
              Novus Lab / 1:1500-1:300  
              Sarcomas   N/n   Pathology 2009;41:527,
              Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2006;14:198
              Novocastra / 44F12 / 1:20 - 1:75  
              Bone tumors   N/n   Mod Pathol 2008;21:423Alexis / ALX-804-504 / 1:25  
              Pituitary tumors   N/C   Turk Patoloji Derg 2017;33:103Bioss / 1:100  
              Parathyroid tumors   N   Int J Mol Med 2009;24:733Novocastra / 44F12  
              Thyroid   C   Oncol Lett 2018;15:2763Rockland / 1:300  
              C   J BUON 2018;23:229Abcam  
              N: nuclear, n: nucleolar, C: cytoplasmic
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Expression of TERT in lung tumors

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              Molecular / cytogenetics images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              TERT expression is lower in ALS patients

              In situ hybridization for hTR expression

              TERT promoter sequence chromatograms

              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following cells is not immunoreactive with TERT?

              1. Basal keratinocytes
              2. Lymphocytes
              3. Myocytes
              4. Neurons
              5. Spermatocytes
              Board review style answer #1
              C. Myocytes

              Comment Here

              Reference: TERT

              TFE3
              Definition / general
              • TFE3 gene, located on Xp11.2, is translocated with > 20 of partner genes in a variety of tumor types, most commonly in MiT family translocation renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
              • Translocation often leads to upregulation of TFE3 and subsequent cell proliferation and oncogenesis
              • TFE3 gene translocation results in aberrant overexpression of the fusion oncoprotein which can be detected by a C terminus binding site TFE3 antibody (Adv Anat Pathol 2022;29:131)
              Essential features
              Pathophysiology
              • TFE3 gene encodes a transcription factor
              • As a homodimer or heterodimer with MiT related proteins (such as TFEB), it promotes the expression of a wide variety of genes involved in cell growth and proliferation
              • These proteins also bind DNA transcription enhancing sites to regulate cellular catabolism and nutrient dependent lysosomal response (Nat Commun 2019;10:3623)
              • Due to their association with MiT, they may express melanocytic markers and downregulate expression of cytokeratins
              Clinical features
              • MiT family translocation renal cell carcinoma, like many other MiT related tumors, is more commonly seen in children and young adults
              Interpretation
              • Diffuse strong nuclear expression in the neoplastic cells
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              • Children and young adults with MiT family translocation associated renal cell carcinoma generally show a good prognosis
              • Older adults with renal cell carcinoma harboring TFE3 rearrangement by FISH tend to show a worse prognosis (Am J Surg Pathol 2012;36:663)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Mir Alikhan, M.D.

              Xp11 translocation renal cell carcinoma

              Melanotic Xp11 renal cell carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              • MiT family translocation associated renal cell carcinoma
              • Granular cell tumor (Hum Pathol 2014;45:1039)
              • Alveolar soft part sarcoma
              • Subset of epithelioid hemangioendotheliomas
              • Subset of perivascular endothelial cell tumors (PEComas)
              • Some solid pseudopapillary pancreatic neoplasms
              • Subset of ovarian sclerosing stromal tumors
              Negative staining
              • Clear cell, papillary, clear cell papillary, FH deficient and chromophobe type renal cell carcinoma
              • Clear cell sarcoma
              • Reference: Am J Surg Pathol 2003;27:750
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • TFE3 break apart probes in FISH analysis are most effective at detection of the fusion due to multiple partners of the gene
              • Most common partner genes in MiT family translocation associated renal cell carcinoma are PRCC and ASPSCR1 (ASPL) (Am J Surg Pathol 2016;40:723)
              • SFPQ and NONO are also common partners in certain cases of PEComas (Am J Surg Pathol 2015;39:1181, Histopathology 2016;69:450, Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:717)
              • Fusion most commonly seen in alveolar soft part sarcoma is ASPSCR1 (ASPL) (Oncogene 2001;20:48)
              • Epithelioid hemangioendotheliomas often show WWTR1-CAMTA1 fusions but a subset can also show concomitant YAP1-TFE3 (Oncotarget 2016;7:7480)
              • Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (PCR) studies can be performed for a more sensitive detection of the fusion product
                • More recently, next generation sequencing using mapping based data mining of sequencing reads can also detect fusions (Am J Surg Pathol 2017;41:1576)
                • Some studies have shown RNA sequencing to be an effective method for novel gene fusion detection (Mod Pathol 2018;31:1346)
              • While granular cell tumor expresses TFE3 by immunohistochemistry, it does not show TFE3 gene rearrangements by FISH (Hum Pathol 2015;46:1242)
              Molecular / cytogenetics images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              TFE3 FISH

              ASPL-TFE3 sequence

              ASPL-TFE3 FISH, RT-PCR and sequence

              Sample pathology report
              • Right kidney, total nephrectomy:
                • MiT family translocation renal cell carcinoma, TFE3 positive
              Board review style question #1

              Translocations involving the TFE3 gene can be found in which of the following neoplasms?

              1. Angiosarcoma
              2. Clear cell papillary renal cell carcinoma
              3. Clear cell sarcoma
              4. Melanotic perivascular endothelial cell tumor
              5. Solid pseudopapillary pancreatic neoplasm
              Board review style answer #1
              D. Melanotic perivascular endothelial cell tumor. TFE3 fusions are most closely associated with Xp11 translocation renal cell carcinoma, alveolar soft part sarcoma, melanotic Xp11 renal cell carcinoma, some PEComas and others. Although increased TFE3 expression is seen in some solid pseudopapillary pancreatic neoplasms, these have been negative for the gene fusion.

              Comment Here

              Reference: TFE3
              Board review style question #2
              Which of the following is a common, effective method for detection of the TFE3 gene fusion?

              1. Break apart FISH probe
              2. Conventional karyotype analysis
              3. Dual color, dual fusion FISH probe
              4. Immunohistochemistry
              5. RNA sequencing
              Board review style answer #2
              A. Break apart FISH probe. Due to the multiple translocation partners seen in TFE3 associated neoplasms, a break apart FISH probe is recommended over a dual color, dual fusion FISH probe. Some fusions are cryptic and cannot be detected by conventional karyotype analysis. Immunohistochemistry would detect the overexpression of TFE3 but cannot confirm whether the overexpression is due to the fusion event or other, possibly epigenetic, factors leading to TFE3 overexpression. While RNA sequencing can detect the multiple fusion partners, it is not commonly utilized at this time.

              Comment Here

              Reference: TFE3

              Thrombomodulin
              Definition / general
              • Also called CD141
              • 75kD transmembrane glycoprotein and cofactor for the thrombin-mediated activation of protein C
              • Marker of mesotheliomas, endothelial cells and coagulation factor
              • Important fibrinolytic inhibitor, as it decreases the activation of plasminogen to plasmin
              • Critical for activation of protein C and initiation of the protein C anticoagulant pathway
              • Plasma CD141 levels are associated with endothelial damage
              Interpretation
              • Membranous staining pattern, often focal (cytoplasmic staining may be artifactual)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Mesothelioma vs. lung adenocarcinoma: 64% sensitive, 95% specific for mesotheliomas, but must exclude vasculature; often membranous staining of periphery with isolated papilla; negative staining in sarcomatoid mesotheliomas; considered to have a "secondary" role as other markers are better (Hum Pathol 2002;33:953)
              • Urothelial carcinomas (positive) vs. renal cell, prostate, endometrial or colonic carcinomas (Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:1380)
              • Squamous cell carcinomas (positive) (Am J Clin Pathol 1998;110:385, Am J Surg Pathol 2003;27:150)
              Positive staining - normal
              • Endothelial cells, megakaryocytes, keratinocytes, mesothelial cells, monocytes, neutrophils, platelets, smooth muscle cells, syncytiotrophoblasts, synovial lining cells, urothelium
              Positive staining - tumors
              • Mesothelioma (epithelioid), squamous cell carcinomas, trophoblastic tumors, urothelial carcinomas, vascular tumors (including angiosarcoma), synovial sarcoma (diffusely positive in 10%, Am J Surg Pathol 2001;25:610)
              Negative staining
              • Adenocarcinoma of colon, endometrium, kidney, lung (usually), prostate; sarcomatoid mesothelioma

              Thyroglobulin
              Definition / general
              • Large glycoprotein (MW 670K) produced by thyroid follicular cells; later iodinated to form T3 and T4
              • Specific marker of thyroid differentiation
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and AFIP

              Expression in thyroid

              Easily leaks into soft tissue

              Solid cell nests

              Thyroid gland
              signet ring
              follicular adenoma
              is thyroglobulin+


              Tpit
              Definition / general
              • Pituitary adenomas / pituitary neuroendocrine tumors have traditionally been classified using a combination of immunohistochemical stains for anterior pituitary hormones, including stains for prolactin, growth hormone, thyrotropin (TSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and the alpha subunit (ASU) of the glycoprotein hormones
              • Immunostains for anterior pituitary transcription factors steroidogenic factor 1 (SF1), Pit1 and T box transcription factor (Tpit) have been shown to have higher sensitivity and specificity than hormone IHC stains and are often used in conjunction to classify pituitary adenomas
              • Transcription factor Tpit drives corticotroph differentiation; IHC for Tpit is useful in identifying corticotroph adenomas
              • Immunohistochemical stains for Tpit identify nonneoplastic corticotrophs within the anterior pituitary and both silent and functioning corticotroph adenomas
              Essential features
              • Tpit IHC shows strong nuclear staining
              • Tpit is expressed within anterior pituitary gland corticotroph cells and within corticotroph adenomas
              • Tpit IHC is more sensitive and specific than IHC stain for ACTH
              Terminology
              • T box transcription factor (Tpit)
              • Gene name: T box transcription factor 19 (TBX19)
              Pathophysiology
              • Terminal differentiation of corticotrophs is controlled by transcription factor Tpit
              • Germline mutations of TBX19 cause isolated ACTH deficiency (J Mol Endocrinol 2016;56:T99)
              Diagrams / tables

              Contributed by William McDonald, M.D.
              SF1 drives gonadotroph lineage

              Tpit drives corticotroph lineage

              Clinical features
              • Most corticotroph adenomas are hormonally functional microadenomas
              • Functional adenomas tend to be smaller; corticotroph macroadenomas are often hormonally silent
              Interpretation
              • Nuclear expression is evaluated (reactivity only in the cytoplasm is regarded as negative)
              • Tpit immunoreactivity in corticotroph adenoma is typically diffuse, strong and nuclear (score 7 or 8 in the Allred scale) (Mod Pathol 1998;11:155)
              • Immunoreactivity in anterior pituitary gland (nonneoplastic anterior pituitary) shows moderate to strong nuclear staining in scattered adenohypophysis cells, within occasional clusters of cells and often in grouped cells associated with the pituitary stalk (so called basophil invasion); corticotrophs are a minority population within the adenohypophysis
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by William McDonald, M.D.

              Normal adenohypophysis

              Normal adenohypophysis
              (reticulin)

              Normal adenohypophysis
              (Tpit)

              Corticotroph adenoma

              Corticotroph adenoma
              (Tpit)


              Corticotroph adenoma
              (SF1)

              Corticotroph adenoma
              (Pit1)

              Corticotroph adenoma
              (ACTH)

              Corticotroph adenoma
              (CAM5.2)

              Corticotroph adenoma
              (GATA3)

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Sample pathology report
              • Sella turcica, resection:
                • Pituitary adenoma (pituitary neuroendocrine tumor), corticotroph type (see comment)
                • Comment: This tumor shows diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity for Tpit and no immunoreactivity for SF1 or Pit1. Moderate ACTH immunoreactivity is observed, as is diffuse, strong staining for PAS and immunoreactivity for low molecular cytokeratin CAM5.2, supporting the impression. In the context of a microadenoma with clinical signs and symptoms of Cushing disease, this is a corticotroph adenoma (densely granulated subtype).
                • Clinical information (mandatory to include): The patient presented with a 6 month history of central obesity, diabetes mellitus, hypertension and thin skin with striae; magnetic resonance imaging showed a 4 mm hypoenhancing mass within the pituitary gland.
                • Available preoperative endocrine testing (also mandatory): Midnight salivary cortisol levels were elevated; tests for prolactin, TSH, free T4 and IGF1 were normal.
              Board review style question #1

              A 48 year old woman presents with bitemporal vision loss. MRI reveals a 2.5 cm sellar and suprasellar tumor, which compresses the optic chiasm. No signs or symptoms or Cushing disease or other hormone excess are present clinically. Transphenoidal resection confirms pituitary adenoma by H&E stains. The adenoma shows immunohistochemical staining as illustrated above. How is this adenoma best classified?

              1. Corticotroph adenoma
              2. Gonadotroph adenoma
              3. Null cell adenoma
              4. Prolactinoma
              Board review style answer #1
              A. Corticotroph adenoma. This clinically silent corticotroph adenoma became symptomatic when it compressed the optic apparatus, a common presentation for large pituitary macroadenomas. Strong, diffuse nuclear immunoreactivity for Tpit, along with characteristically pale immunoreactivity for ACTH and strong, diffuse cytoplasmic staining for CAM5.2 support the diagnosis. Gonadotroph adenomas (answer B), while often presenting in similar fashion as clinically nonfunctioning macroadenoma, would have SF1 immunoreactivity and lack staining for Tpit. Null cell adenoma (answer C) by definition lacks hormone or transcription factor immunostaining. Prolactinoma (answer D) would also lack Tpit staining and would show strong nuclear immunoreactivity for transcription factor Pit1.

              Comment Here

              Reference: Tpit

              Transducin-like enhancer of split 1 (TLE1)
              Definition / general
              Essential features
              • TLE1 immunohistochemical staining is most commonly used when synovial sarcoma is a diagnostic consideration; in this setting, nuclear expression should be observed
                • Sensitivity and specificity are reasonable for this purpose; however, an increasing number of entities have demonstrated TLE1 expression with varying frequency
              • Should be interpreted in the appropriate context of histomorphologic, molecular and other immunohistochemical features (Ann Diagn Pathol 2014;18:369)
              Pathophysiology
              • The protein product of this gene, TLE1, is a transcriptional corepressor, homologous to the corepressor groucho in Drosophila
              • Functions as either an oncogene or tumor suppressor in various cancer types (Oncotarget 2017;8:15971)
              • Repression by TLE1 involves histone deacetylase (HDAC) activity
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              • Reasonably sensitive and specific for synovial sarcoma within the appropriate context; this includes its monophasic, biphasic and poorly differentiated forms
              • Laboratory considerations:
                • One study demonstrated a better overall immunohistochemistry performance profile with a monoclonal TLE1 antibody, as opposed to a polyclonal TLE1 antibody (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2019;27:174)
                • Another study demonstrated fairly similar performance of both a monoclonal pan-TLE antibody and a polyclonal TLE1 antibody; there were only 8 discrepancies in scoring among 177 cases, all of which demonstrated staining with the monoclonal pan-TLE antibody but not with the polyclonal TLE1 antibody (Am J Surg Pathol 2007;31:240)
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Mark R. Wick, M.D.
              Monophasic synovial sarcoma, H&E

              Monophasic synovial sarcoma

              Monophasic synovial sarcoma, TLE1

              TLE1 in monophasic synovial sarcoma

              Biphasic synovial sarcoma, H&E

              Biphasic synovial sarcoma

              Biphasic synovial sarcoma, TLE1

              TLE1 in biphasic synovial sarcoma



              Contributed by Debra L. Zynger, M.D.
              Monophasic synovial sarcoma, H&E

              Monophasic synovial sarcoma

              Monophasic synovial sarcoma, TLE1 positive

              TLE1 positivity in monophasic synovial sarcoma

              Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, H&E

              Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

              Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, TLE1 negative

              TLE1 negativity in malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Synovial sarcoma is classically characterized by t(X;18), which leads to SS18-SSX gene fusions, for which fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) has been shown to have a sensitivity of 86 - 97% and a specificity of up to 100%
              • TLE1 immunostains can be useful in identifying a specific subpopulation of tumor cells for FISH analysis or in cases with cryptic X;18 rearrangement (Am J Surg Pathol 2009;33:1743)
              Sample pathology report
              • Soft tissue, right anterior thigh, biopsy:
                • Synovial sarcoma, monophasic type (see comment)
                • Comment: Microscopic examination demonstrates a monotonous spindle cell proliferation with a fascicular to storiform architecture. Up to 8 mitoses per 10 high power fields are noted. Immunohistochemical stains demonstrate that the tumor cells strongly and diffusely express BCL2 (cytoplasmic) and TLE1 (nuclear). There is very focal EMA expression. The tumor cells are negative for S100, myogenin, myoD1, CD34, MUC4 and ERG. Fluorescence in situ hybridization for SS18 demonstrates a gene rearrangement (see addendum report for full details). These findings support the diagnosis of synovial sarcoma.
              Board review style question #1
              Which of the following pathways is inhibited by TLE1?

              1. IGF signaling pathway
              2. JAK / STAT signaling pathway
              3. MAPK signaling pathway
              4. VEGF signaling pathway
              5. WNT / beta catenin signaling pathway
              Board review style answer #1
              E. WNT / beta catenin signaling pathway

              Comment Here

              Reference: Transducin-like enhancer of split 1 (TLE1)
              Board review style question #2

              H&E and TLE1 IHC of a spindle cell neoplasm are pictured in the images above. Which of the following translocations would additionally support the suspected diagnosis of synovial sarcoma?

              1. t(2;5)
              2. t(11;22)
              3. t(14;18)
              4. t(17;22)
              5. t(X;18)
              Board review style answer #2

              TRAP (Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase)
              Definition / general
              • 1 of 7 isoenzymes with different tissue distribution
              • TRAP is found in hairy cell leukemia; other acid phosphatases are found in red blood cells, prostate, white blood cell lysosomes
              • Sensitive and relatively specific for hairy cell leukemia when combined with DBA.44 positivity (Am J Surg Pathol 2005;29:474)
              Positive staining - normal
              • B lymphocytes of marginal zone, osteoclasts
              Positive staining - disease
              • Hairy cell leukemia, mantle cell lymphoma (57%), splenic marginal zone lymphoma (some), primary mediastinal B cell lymphoma (54%), CLL / SLL (41%), giant cells in giant cell tumor of bone and soft tissue (Hum Pathol 2005;36:945)

              Treponema pallidum IHC
              Definition / general
              • Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Treponema pallidum, a bacterium discovered in 1905 by Schaudinn and Hoffman who initially named it Spirochaeta pallida (J Med Life 2014;7:4)
              • T. pallidum can be localized on formalin fixed paraffin embedded tissue; the antibody has a rabbit purified IgG fraction (J Cutan Pathol 2004;31:595)
              Essential features
              • Immunohistochemical stain for T. pallidum is more sensitive (71% sensitive) than silver stains - Warthin-Starry or Steiner (41% sensitive) (J Cutan Pathol 2004;31:595)
              • Diaminobenzidine chromogen can be problematic (melanin pigment on dendritic melanocytes can be confused for spirochetes)
              • Thus, some labs use fast red chromogen, in which the spirochetes stain red
              Terminology
              • Anti-Treponema pallidum immunohistochemical stain
              Pathophysiology
              • In patients with syphilis, T. pallidum spirochetes show an epitheliotropic and vasculotropic pattern (Hum Pathol 2009;40:624)
              Clinical features
              • Primary syphilis: painless chancre with nontender lymphadenopathy 1 - 3 weeks after exposure
              • Secondary syphilis
                • Papulosquamous thin papules on the trunk and extremities, palms and soles, fever and adenopathy
                • Rash may resemble a drug eruption, pityriasis rosea and psoriasis
                • May present as moth eaten alopecia on the scalp, mucous patches on tongue
              • Tertiary syphilis: may present with gummatous lesions, neurologic or cardiovascular symptoms (Infect Dis Clin North Am 2013;27:705)
              Interpretation
              • Coiled spirochetes are highlighted in the lower half of epidermis or mucosa and in dermal vessel walls and perivascular space
              Uses by pathologists
              • Although serologic studies remain the gold standard, for histologic evaluation, T. pallidum IHC is preferred in evaluating mucocutaneous biopsies suspicious for syphilis (J Cutan Pathol 2004;31:595)
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Silvija P. Gottesman, M.D.
              Lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate

              Lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate

              Spirochetes in epidermis

              Spirochetes in epidermis

              Spirochetes in dermal vessel walls

              Spirochetes in dermal vessel walls

              Spirochetes in epidermis

              Spirochetes in epidermis

              Virtual slides

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Spirochetes highlighted with IHC (brown)

              Subtle spirochetes with IHC (red)

              Spirochetes highlighted with IHC (brown)

              Positive staining - normal
              • None
              Positive staining - disease
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) may be used to detect T. pallidum in mucocutaneous lesions and is more sensitive and specific than T. pallidum immunohistochemistry (Br J Dermatol 2011;165:50)
              Board review style question #1

              A 35 year old pregnant woman presented to clinic with fever, fatigue and a papulosquamous eruption on the trunk and extremities that includes the palms and soles. Which one of the following stains is the most sensitive for diagnosis of syphilis in biopsy specimens?

              1. Giemsa stain
              2. Gram stain
              3. Steiner stain
              4. T. pallidum IHC stain
              5. Warthin-Starry stain
              Board review style answer #1
              D. T. pallidum IHC stain. Answer A is incorrect because, while Giemsa stain can highlight spirochetes, it has not been routinely used in skin tissue preparations. Its spirochete sensitivity in blood smear preparations has been estimated at 25% and higher in thick smear preparations (J Clin Microbiol 1999;37:2027). Answer B is incorrect because Gram stain does not highlight Treponema pallidum spirochetes. Answers C and E are incorrect because immunohistochemical stain for T. pallidum is more sensitive (71% sensitive) than silver stains Warthin-Starry or Steiner (41% sensitive).

              Comment Here

              Reference: Treponema pallidum IHC

              Trichrome
              Definition / general
              • Stains collagen blue
              • Phosphotungstic or phosphomolybdic acid is used with anionic dyes
              Terminology
              • Martius scarlet blue trichrome: method for staining of elastica, connective tissue in general, fibrin; stains for fresh (orange-yellow), mature (red) or old (blue) fibrin
              • PTAH: variant of trichrome stain; demonstrates intracytoplasmic filaments in muscle and glial cells
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Chronic active hepatitis with hepatocyte collapse

              Cerebral abscess

              Scleroderma with fibrosis of submucosa in stomach


              TROP2 (pending)
              [Pending]

              TRPS1
              Definition / general
              • TRPS1 (trichorhinophalangeal syndrome type 1) - a GATA family of zinc finger transcription factor
              • Involved in breast cancer carcinogenesis and required for breast cancer cell survival
              • Plays a critical role in the development of cartilage, bone and hair follicle
              Essential features
              • Involved in breast cancer carcinogenesis and required for breast cancer cell survival
              • Strong nuclear staining
              • Positive in invasive breast carcinoma (> 95%), including ER+ / HER2- (> 95%), HER2+ (> 90%), ER- / HER2- (> 90%)
              • Negative in urothelial carcinoma, lung adenocarcinoma and thyroid carcinoma
              Terminology
              • This protein is also called zinc finger protein GC79
              Pathophysiology
              • Plays a critical role in the development of cartilage, bone and hair follicle; loss of the TRPS1 gene leads to trichorhinophalangeal syndrome type 1 with defects in hair, facial and bone / joint malformations
              • Functions in the growth and differentiation of normal mammary epithelial cells; it is also involved in the development of breast cancer and is required for breast cancer cell survival (Cell Rep 2018;25:1255)
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:

              TRPS1 regulatory network

              Interpretation
              • Nuclear staining (majority of cases shows diffuse and strong nuclear stain)
              Uses by pathologists
              • Diagnosing ER positive breast cancer (> 95%), HER2 positive breast cancer (> 90%), triple negative breast cancer (> 90%, including metaplastic and nonmetaplastic triple negative breast cancer) (Mod Pathol 2021;34:710, Am J Surg Pathol 2022;46:415, Hum Pathol 2022;125:97)
              • In a panel along with pancytokeratin, ER and GATA3 to diagnose metastatic carcinoma of breast origin (Hum Pathol 2022 Apr 14 [Epub ahead of print])
              • Differentiating GATA3 positive invasive breast cancer from GATA3 positive urothelial carcinoma
              • Differentiating invasive breast carcinoma from adenocarcinomas of nonbreast origin (such as adenocarcinoma from lung, GI, pancreas, etc.)
              • Differentiating triple negative breast cancer from melanoma
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Qingqing Ding, M.D., Ph.D.

              Positive in triple negative breast cancer

              Positive in metaplastic breast carcinoma

              Positive in borderline phyllodes tumor


              Positive in osteosarcoma

              Positive in brain metastasis


              Negative in apocrine breast cancer

              Negative in urothelial epithelium

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              • Invasive breast carcinoma (> 95%), including ER+ / HER2- (> 95%), HER2+ (> 90%), ER- / HER2- (> 90%) (Mod Pathol 2021;34:710)
              • Phyllodes tumor (> 95%), including benign, borderline and malignant
              • Osteosarcoma (56%) and chondrosarcoma (28%) of the bone
              • Salivary duct carcinoma (24%)
              • Ovarian serous carcinoma (10 - 15%)
              Negative staining
              • Usually negative in a few special types of triple negative breast cancer, such as apocrine carcinoma (in which GATA3 can be positive) and neuroendocrine (small cell and large cell) carcinoma
              • Urothelial carcinoma (Mod Pathol 2021;34:710)
              • Gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma
              • Hepatocellular carcinoma
              • Cholangiocarcinoma
              • Lung adenocarcinoma
              • Kidney tumor
              • Thyroid tumor
              • Melanoma
              • Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (UPS)
              • Liposarcoma
              • Angiosarcoma
              Sample pathology report
              • Left lobe of liver, core biopsy:
                • Poorly differentiated carcinoma, consistent with breast primary (see comment)
                • Comment: The patient's past history of triple negative breast cancer is noted. Immunostains performed on the biopsy block show that the tumor cells are positive for pancytokeratin, TRPS1 and CK7, while negative for CK20, HepPar1, ER, PR, HER2, GATA3, TTF1 and PAX8. The immunoprofile is consistent with metastatic carcinoma with breast primary.
              Board review style question #1

              A 50 year old woman, with a history of triple negative breast cancer of the left breast 5 years ago, presents with a 2 cm lung nodule in the left lower lobe. Which of the following markers is the most helpful marker to rule in and rule out the breast origin?

              1. CK7
              2. GATA3
              3. GCDFP-15
              4. Mammaglobin
              5. TRPS1
              Board review style answer #1
              E. TRPS1

              Comment Here

              Reference: TRPS1

              Trypsin (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              TSC1 and TSC2
              Definition / general
              • TSC1 (hamartin) and TSC2 (tuberin) are tumor suppressor genes in chromosomes 9 and 16 respectively
              • TSC1 and TSC2 are expressed in a wide variety of normal tissues including skeletal muscle, brain, heart, liver, lung, kidney, pancreas, placenta, biliary epithelium, fibroblasts, lymphocytes
              • TSC1 complexes with and stabilizes TSC2 resulting in the activation of the GTPase function of TSC2 and the negative regulation of the mTOR signaling pathway (Nat Cell Biol 2002;4:648, Proc Natl Acad Sci U S A 2002;99:13571, Am J Hum Genet 2001;68:64)
              • Mutations in TSC1 or TSC2 lead to autosomal dominant inheritance of tuberous sclerosis complex with hamartomatous lesions in many tissues and organs
              • Mutations in TSC2 are more common than mutations in TSC1
              • Mutations in TSC2 also tend to lead to a more severe clinical phenotype than mutations in TSC1
              Case reports
              Clinical features
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Missing Image Missing Image

              Various images

              Positive staining - normal
              • Skeletal muscle, brain, heart, liver, lung, kidney, pancreas, placenta, biliary epithelium, fibroblasts, lymphocytes

              TSH (pending)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              [Pending]

              TTF1
              Definition / general
              • Thyroid transcription factor 1, also known as NKX2-1 or thyroid specific enhancer binding protein
              • Homeodomain containing transcription factor, member of the NKX2 gene family (EMBO J 1990;9:3631)
              • Preferentially expressed in thyroid, lung and brain structures of diencephalic origin (Mod Pathol 2000;13:238, Development 1991;113:1093)
              • Different sensitivities for diverse neoplasms depending on the antibody clone used (Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2010;18:142, Am J Clin Pathol 2018;150:533)
                • Highly specific clone 8G7G3/1 is well suited to thyroid and lung
                • Highly sensitive clones SPT24 and SP141 are recommended for lung tumors, however their low specificity may produce aberrant staining in unusual locations
              Essential features
              • Nuclear marker with preferential expression in thyroid, lung and brain structures of diencephalic origin
              • 2 commonly used commercially available clones and a novel clone with different sensitivities and specificities for pulmonary and extrapulmonary neoplasms
              • Expressed in a high percentage of lung adenocarcinoma and small cell carcinoma, also in a variable percentage of extrapulmonary small cell carcinoma
              • Consistently expressed in a wide range of differentiated thyroid tumors
              • Expressed in a number of CNS tumors such as chordoid glioma and subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
              Terminology
              • NK2 homeobox 1 (official symbol: NKX2-1; gene ID: 7080), TITF1, T/EBP
              • Do not confuse with transcription termination factor 1 (official symbol: TTF1, an essential protein responsible for terminating ribosomal gene transcription that is encoded by the TTF1 gene in humans; gene ID: 7270) (EMBO J 1990;9:3631, Mol Cell Biol 1991;11:4927)
              Pathophysiology
              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              • Exclusively nuclear stain
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Li Juan Wang, M.D., Ph.D.

              Nonneoplastic lung

              Nonneoplastic thyroid follicles

              Lung small cell carcinoma

              Lung adenocarcinoma


              Papillary thyroid carcinoma

              Medullary thyroid carcinoma

              Rectal small cell carcinoma

              Bladder invasive urothelial carcinoma



              Contributed by Andrey Bychkov, M.D., Ph.D. and Carolyn Glass, M.D.

              Lung adenocarcinoma

              Lung small cell carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1

              Which set of results favors a primary lung adenocarcinoma as a source of tumor in a brain biopsy?

              1. TTF1 positive, CK7 positive, CK20 negative, napsin A positive
              2. TTF1 positive, CK7 positive, CK20 positive, GATA3 positive
              3. TTF1 positive, CK7 positive, PAX8 positive
              4. TTF1 positive, EMA positive, GFAP positive
              Board review style answer #1
              A. TTF1 positive, CK7 positive, CK20 negative, napsin A positive

              Comment Here

              Reference: TTF1
              Board review style question #2
              A 72 year old man presents with a neck mass, which shows sheets of small to medium sized cells with high N:C ratio, round / oval nuclei, finely dispersed chromatin (salt and pepper), indistinct nucleoli and scant cytoplasm. The tumor cells are positive for keratin, synaptophysin, chromogranin, CK20 (dot-like) and Ki67 proliferation index is 80%. The tumor cells are negative for CK7, TTF1, CDX2, calcitonin, melan A and S100. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this tumor?

              1. Metastatic high grade neuroendocrine carcinoma from gastrointestinal tract
              2. Metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma
              3. Metastatic small cell carcinoma of lung
              4. Metastatic small cell melanoma
              Board review style answer #2
              B. Metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma

              Comment Here

              Reference: TTF1

              Tyrosinase
              Definition / general
              • Also called T311 (for immunohistochemistry)
              • Melanocyte specific antigen important in melanin synthesis and melanosome formation
              • Interpretation: cytoplasmic staining
              Uses by pathologists
              • Identification of melanocytic neoplasms
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              Normal skin prominent
              melanocytes;
              melanoma +
              homogenous tumor cells

              Melanoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining

              Urates / uric acid
              Definition / general
              • Uric acid crystals seen in acid urine
              • Urates present in tissue as sodium urate, but soluble in aqueous solutions and slightly soluble in weak alcoholic solutions, so tissue must be fixed in 95%/100% alcohol to prevent leaching of urates
              • Urates are stained black by GMS
              • Sodium urate crystals are birefringent on polarization
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Image hosted on other servers:

              Uric acid crystals, polarized, with red plate


              Uroplakin II
              Definition / general
              • Uroplakin II, a 15kDa protein that is part of the uroplakin family (UP1a, UP1b, UPII and UPIII), which forms the urothelial plaque covering the apical surface of the urothelium
              Essential features
              • Uroplakins are terminal differentiation products that are exclusively expressed in urothelial cells (Kidney Int 2009;75:1153)
              • 15 kDa transmembrane protein involved in terminal differentiation of urothelium
              • Exists as a heterodimer along with UP1a (Kidney Int 2009;75:1153)
              • UPII IHC has significantly higher sensitivity (57% versus 50%) than UPIII and the same specificity (~99%) for urothelial carcinomas (Histopathology 2014;65:132)
              • Helpful in pinpointing the origin where secondary involvement by prostate adenocarcinoma or metastatic carcinoma may be positive for GATA3
              Terminology
              • UPII, UPK2, UROII
              Clinical features
              • Highly specific and moderately sensitive for urothelial carcinomas
              • Helpful in pinpointing the primary origin as urothelium in cases where GATA3 is inconclusive
              Interpretation
              Uses by pathologists
              • Highly specific and moderately sensitive for urothelial carcinomas
              • Helpful in ascertaining the primary origin as urothelium, especially in cases where GATA3 is inconclusive
              • Currently recommended by ISUP as a second line additional marker to confirm urothelial primary (Am J Surg Pathol 2014;38:e20)
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Charles C. Guo, M.D., Varsha Nair, M.D., Prih Rohra, M.D., Priya Rao, M.D. and Bogdan A. Czerniak, M.D., Ph.D.
              Bladder, invasive urothelial carcinoma

              Bladder, invasive urothelial carcinoma

              Bladder, papillary urothelial carcinoma

              Bladder, papillary urothelial carcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              • Apical expression in normal bladder epithelium (umbrella cells)
              • Intermediate cells in normal bladder epithelium
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              • UPII mRNA expression in tissue and peripheral blood is associated with lymph node metastasis (J Pathol 2003;199:41)
              Sample pathology report
              • Lymph node, pelvic node dissection:
                • Metastatic urothelial carcinoma (see comment)
                • Comment: Histologic sections show a lymph node with deposits of tumor cells in diffuse sheets and few with a trabecular pattern. The cells are round to polygonal, demonstrating moderate pleomorphism, inconspicuous nucleoli and high N:C ratios. Immunohistochemistry is positive for CK20, p63, GATA3, S100, uroplakin III and uroplakin II and negative for PSA, PSAP, NKX3.1 and prostein, suggesting a urothelial origin. Please correlate clinicoradiologically. Follow up is advised.
              Board review style question #1
              Uroplakin II forms a heterodimer with which other uroplakin?

              1. UPIa
              2. UPIb
              3. UPIII
              4. UPV
              Board review style answer #1
              A. UPIa

              Comment Here

              Reference: Uroplakin II
              Board review style question #2
              Uroplakin II is expressed normally in which of the following?

              1. Apical region (umbrella cells) of urothelium
              2. Muscularis propria of bladder
              3. Normal breast tissue
              4. Prostate
              Board review style answer #2
              A. Apical region (umbrella cells) of urothelium

              Comment Here

              Reference: Uroplakin II
              Board review style question #3

              Uroplakin II is highly specific for which of the following?

              1. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma, NOS, breast
              2. Lung adenocarcinoma
              3. Prostate carcinoma
              4. Urothelial carcinoma
              Board review style answer #3
              D. Urothelial carcinoma

              Comment Here

              Reference: Uroplakin II
              Board review style question #4
              Which of the following is true regarding uroplakin II, as compared to uroplakin III?

              1. Equally sensitive IHC marker for urothelial carcinoma
              2. Less sensitive IHC marker for urothelial carcinoma
              3. Less specific IHC marker for urothelial carcinoma
              4. More sensitive IHC marker for urothelial carcinoma
              Board review style answer #4
              D. More sensitive IHC marker for urothelial carcinoma

              Comment Here

              Reference: Uroplakin II

              Uroplakin III
              Definition / general
              • One of 4 members of uroplakin family
              • Transmembrane protein expressed by urothelial lining cells (umbrella cells) within apical plaques of cell membrane
              • Specific but only 50% sensitive for urothelial lesions (Am J Surg Pathol 2003;27:1)
              Uses by pathologists
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Image hosted on other servers:

              Urothelial carcinoma (invasive)

              Positive staining - normal
              • Urothelium, particularly umbrella cells
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining

              Villin
              Definition / general
              • One of the gelsolin family of calcium regulated actin binding proteins
              • First isolated and characterized in the microvilli of intestinal epithelium and later found in the brush of many absorptive epithelia
              • Intestinal microvilli in the apical membrane (brush border) are maintained by bundles of parallel actin filaments that are organized by multiple actin binding proteins including villin (Am J Pathol 2012;180:1509)
              • Expressed in tumors with enteric differentiation
              Essential features
              • Normally expressed in the brush border of epithelial cells lining the gastrointestinal tract, hepatobiliary tract and renal proximal convoluted tubules
              • In colorectal carcinoma, villin is highly expressed
              • In practice, villin can be included in the panel used for metastatic carcinoma to detect colorectal origin
              Interpretation
              • Apical membranous (brush border) immunostaining in normal epithelium and tumors
              • Cytoplasmic immunostaining in tumors
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • In normal colonic crypts, shows a well organized brush border pattern together with small cytoplasmic dots in all crypts (ISRN Gastroenterol 2013;2013:679724)
              • Can highlight brush border or cytoplasm in positive tumors
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Wafaey Gomaa, M.D., Ph.D.

              Moderately differentiated colorectal carcinoma

              Colorectal carcinoma, villin


              Normal colonic mucosa, villin


              Endometrial carcinoma

              Endometrial carcinoma, villin

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Board review style question #1

                A 61 year old woman presented with an abdominal nodule. The patient had multiple liver nodules that were previously biopsied and tumor cells were positive for CDX2, CK20 and the stain depicted in the image. The depicted stain is most likely which of the following?

              1. CK5/6
              2. CK7
              3. DOG1
              4. MelanA
              5. Villin
              Board review style answer #1
              E. Villin. The patient has metastasis to the liver. Positivity to CDX2 and CK20 suggests colorectal origin. Villin is the most relevant of the provided markers to confirm colorectal origin.

              Comment Here

              Reference: Villin

              Vimentin
              Definition / general
              • Intermediate filament for mesenchymal tissue
              Essential features
              • Vimentin staining confirms mesenchymal origin of some tumors but there are numerous exceptions, so relatively nonspecific
              • Carcinomas and epithelial tumors are usually negative but there are many exceptions
              • Thus, helps distinguish renal cell carcinoma and uterine carcinoma as part of panel
              Pathophysiology
              Interpretation
              • Cytoplasmic staining
              Uses by pathologists
              • Vimentin staining confirms mesenchymal origin of some tumors; may be the only positive stain in certain cases and thus confirms that the tissue is capable of staining (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1722)
              • May confirm mesenchymal origin but there are numerous exceptions, so relatively nonspecific
              • Helps distinguish clear cell renal cell carcinoma (CCRCC) from mimics as part of panel
              • Absence of vimentin staining may confirm that fat-like or other spaces actually lack a cellular lining (Am J Surg Pathol 2011;35:1823)
              • Distinguishes endocervical adenocarcinoma (vimentin negative) and endometrial carcinoma (vimentin positive), as part of panel (Am J Surg Pathol 2010;34:915)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Riuko Ohashi, M.D.
              Ewing sarcoma / PNET Ewing sarcoma / PNET

              Ewing sarcoma / PNET

              Malignant mesothelioma, epithelioid type Malignant mesothelioma, epithelioid type

              Malignant mesothelioma, epithelioid type

              Clear cell renal cell carcinoma Clear cell renal cell carcinoma

              Clear cell renal cell carcinoma


              Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma with sarcomatoid differentiation Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma with sarcomatoid differentiation

              Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma with sarcomatoid differentiation

              Oncocytoma Oncocytoma

              Oncocytoma

              Nonneoplastic endometrial tissue Nonneoplastic endometrial tissue

              Nonneoplastic endometrial tissue


              Endometrioid carcinoma Endometrioid carcinoma

              Endometrioid carcinoma

              Endocervical adenocarcinoma, negative Endocervical adenocarcinoma, negative

              Endocervical adenocarcinoma, negative



              Contributed by Dr. Steven Catinchi-Jaime, Mowafak Hamodat, M.B.Ch.B., AFIP images and Cases #149, 184, 216, 222 and 241

              CNS: alveolar
              soft parts sarcoma
              (metastasis from
              tongue tumor)

              CNS:
              medulloepithelioma

              Larynx: squamous cell carcinoma

              Ovary: signet ring stromal tumor

              Testis: Leydig cell tumor

              Thyroid gland: angiosarcoma


              Vulva:
              angiomyofibroblastoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Sample pathology report
              • Left kidney, tumor, core needle biopsy:
                • Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma, eosinophilic variant (see comment)
                • Comment: Epithelial tumor showing solid growth pattern composed of comprised of eosinophilic cells with fine granular eosinophilic cytoplasm, perinuclear halo and round, oval to raisinoid nuclei. No pale cell was observed. Immunohistochemistry positive for CK7 and c-kit and negative for vimentin. These findings are consistent with chromophobe renal cell carcinoma.
              • Right lung, tumor, excision:
                • Metastatic clear cell renal cell carcinoma (see comment)
                • Comment: Immunohistochemistry positive for vimentin, PAX8, CAIX and RCC and negative for CK7.
              • Left lung, tumor, excision:
                • Consistent with metastatic endometrioid carcinoma (see comment)
                • Comment: Immunohistochemistry positive for vimentin, PAX8 and ER and negative for TTF1, consistent with endometrial primary.
              Board review style question #1


              A 56 year old female is found to have a uterine tumor that involves both the endometrium and the endocervix. Histology and immunohistochemistry for vimentin are shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

              1. Endocervical adenocarcinoma
              2. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma
              3. Endometrial stromal tumor
              4. Carcinosarcoma
              Board review style answer #1
              B. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma

              Comment Here

              Reference: Vimentin
              Board review style question #2
              Which of the following tumors should be negative for vimentin?

              1. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma
              2. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma
              3. Endometrioid carcinoma
              4. Mammary analog secretory carcinoma
              Board review style answer #2
              A. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma. While most carcinomas are negative for vimentin, mammary analog secretory carcinoma, most endometrial carcinomas and most renal cell carcinomas, except for chromophobe renal cell carcinoma, are positive for vimentin.

              Comment Here

              Reference: Vimentin

              von Hippel Lindau (VHL)
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              • Tumor suppressor gene (autosomal dominant) at 3p25-26, with 3 regions (A, B, C)
              • Familial cases of von Hippel Lindau syndrome are associated with translocations of this gene
              • Gene is inactivated by hypermethylation of CpG island in 5' region causing lack of expression of VHL or by mutation in binding region
              • Wild type protein competes with A subunit for binding to B/C complex; active mutation occurs in homologous sequence region
              • Mutated protein does not bind to elongin B and C subunits, which allows subunit A to bind, and increases rate of elongation through suppression of RNA polymerase pausing
              • Abnormalities associated with renal cell carcinoma, clear cell type

              von Willebrand factor (vWF)
              Definition / general
              • Large glycoprotein involved in platelet aggression and adhesion to subendothelial matrix
              • Somewhat sensitive (50-75%) for vascular tumors; CD31, CD34 or perhaps FLI1 are more sensitive
              Interpretation
              • Cytoplasmic stain
              • Endothelium should be a positive internal control
              Positive staining - normal
              • Endothelial cells, megakaryocytes, subendothelial connective matrix
              • Areas of tumor necrosis and hemorrhage
              Positive staining - disease
              • Blood vessels in tumors, vascular tumors, metastatic osteosarcoma
              Additional references

              Warthin-Starry silver stain
              Definition / general
              • Stains Helicobacter pylori, spirochetes
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Yutaka Tsutsumi, M.D.

              H. pylori on the surface of regenerative epithelium



              Image hosted on other servers:

              Spirochetes with Warthin-Starry silver stain

              Clusters of bacteria on Warthin-Starry stain


              Wright-Giemsa stain
              Table of Contents
              Definition / general
              Definition / general
              • Also called Wright’s stain
              • A "Romanowsky-type" stain, composed of mixtures of methylene blue, azure and eosin compounds
              • Used to stain peripheral blood smears
              • Methylene blue is a metachromatic stain, meaning that some tissue components (mast cell granules, cartilage, mucin, amyloid) stain purple and not blue

              WT1
              Definition / general
              • WT1 gene encodes for Wilms tumor protein located on chromosome 11p13
              • Expressed / mutated in several different tumors
              Essential features
              • Interpretation is based on staining pattern and antibody used
                • Staining patterns: nuclear and cytoplasmic
                • Antibodies: against N and C terminal
              • Expressed in a broad spectrum of tumors, including malignant mesothelioma, ovarian serous epithelial tumors and sex cord stromal tumors, astrocytoma, glioblastoma, benign and malignant vascular tumors and desmoplastic malignant melanoma
              • Expression linked to poor prognosis of several tumors, including acute myeloid leukemia, pancreatic and colorectal cancers and astrocytoma
              • Vaccination and immunotherapy directed against WT1 is in trials
              Pathophysiology
              • Transcription factor essential for normal development of the urogenital system
              • Both tumor suppressing and tumorigenic role in several neoplasias, including breast, acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and mesothelioma
              • Affects genes of the Wnt / β-catenin pathway and p53 tumor suppressor pathway
              Clinical features
              • WT1 mutations in Denys-Drash syndrome, diffuse mesangial sclerosis kidney, Fraiser syndrome, Wilms tumor in 15% of cases, congenital nephrotic syndrome, cytogenetically normal acute myeloid leukemia and prostate cancer (Adv Pediatr 2012;59:247)
              • Chromosomal translocation (11;22)(p13;q12) EWSR1-WT1 gene fusion in desmoplastic round blue cell tumor
              • Mutated in 1.45% of all carcinomas
              Interpretation
              • Can be exclusively nuclear or cytoplasmic according to the antibodies used (anti-C or N terminus WT1 antibody)
              • Interpretation has to be based on the tissue being stained and the context
              Uses by pathologists
              • Nuclear stain against N terminus (disregard any cytoplasmic staining in these tumors) to differentiate:
              • Cytoplasmic stain against N terminus to differentiate:
                • Benign and malignant vascular tumors (WT1+) from vascular malformations (WT1-) (J Am Acad Dermatol 2010;63:1052)
                • Mammary myofibroblastoma, epithelioid type (WT1+) from lobular breast lobular carcinoma (WT1-) (Acta Histochem 2014;116:905)
                • Young type fibromatosis, e.g. congenital / infantile fibrosarcoma, fibrous hamartoma of infancy, myofibroma / myofibromatosis and lipofibromatosis (WT1+) from adult type fibromatosis e.g. nodular fasciitis and desmoid type (WT1) (Acta Histochem 2014;116:1134)
              • Nuclear stain against C terminus to differentiate:
                • Desmoplastic round blue cell tumor (WT1+) from Ewing sarcoma / primitive neuroectodermal tumors, neuroblastomas or rhabdoid tumors of the kidney (WT1) (Am J Surg Pathol 2000;24:830)
              Prognostic factors
              • Acute myeloid leukemias: WT1+ have mutations in exon 7 and 9 of WT1 genes, have a worse prognosis and are resistant to chemotherapy
              • Diffuse astrocytic tumors: WT1+ tumors have a higher WHO tumor grade, no IDH1 mutations and a poor outcome
              • Colorectal and pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma: WT1+ have a poorer prognosis
              • High grade ovarian serous carcinomas: WT1+ have a better prognosis, especially when the tumor cells also express estrogen receptor (Gynecol Oncol 2016;140:494)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Urooba Nadeem, M.D., Aliya N. Husain, M.D. and Jeffrey Schulte, M.D.

              Pleura: malignant mesothelioma (H&E and WT1)

              Omental mass: serous carcinoma (H&E and WT1)


              Lymph node: metastatic Wilms (H&E and WT1)

              Brain tumor: glioblastoma (H&E and WT1)

              Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic, WT1

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description
              Sample pathology report
              • Example:
                • This pleural tumor is immunoreactive for WT1, suggestive of an mesothelial versus a lung origin.
              Additional references
              Board review style question #1


                A 60 year old man presents with recurrent pleural effusions. A 2.3 cm solid mass is found on the CT scan. H&E sections are shown in the images. Which stain would be most compatible with the diagnosis?

              1. WT1-, calretinin-, cytokeretain AE1 / AE3+, TTF1+, BAP1 lost
              2. WT1+, calretinin+, cytokeretain AE1 / AE3+, TTF1-, BAP1 lost
              3. WT1+, calretinin+, cytokeratin AE1 / AE3+, TTF1+, BAP1 lost
              4. WT1-, calretinin-, cytokeratin AE1 / AE3-, TTF1-, BAP1 retained
              Board review style answer #1
              B. WT1+, calretinin+, cytokeretain AE1 / AE3+, TTF1-, BAP1 lost. The diagnosis is malignant mesothelioma. The best panel to separate malignant mesothelioma from an adenocarcinoma should include at least 2 mesothelial markers and 2 carcinoma markers. The most specific mesothelial markers are WT1 and calretinin. WT1 staining is nuclear in malignant mesothelioma. Cytokeratin is positive in both mesotheliomas and carcinomas; however, it is important to rule out malignancies from other cell lineages, e.g. melanoma and vascular tumors. BAP1 is mutated / lost in 55 - 66% of malignant mesotheliomas and this can be demonstrated by IHC.

              Comment Here

              Reference: WT1

              YAP1
              Definition / general
              • YAP1 (yes associated protein 1) is a transcriptional regulator that activates gene transcription involved in cellular survival and proliferation and suppresses apoptotic genes
              Essential features
              Terminology
              • YAP
              • YAP2
              • YAP65
              • YKI
              • Protein yorkie homolog
              • COB1
              Pathophysiology
              • When Hippo signaling pathway is on, mammalian STE20-like protein kinase 1 / 2 (MST1 / 2) and salvador family WW domain containing protein 1 (SAV1) are activated
              • LATS1 / 2 kinases phosphorylate YAP or transcriptional coactivator with PDZ binding motif (TAZ) through the interaction with MOB kinase activator 1A / 1B (MOB1A / 1B)
              • As a result, the active phosphorylated YAP / TAZ binds to 14-3-3, leading to cytoplasmic retention and ubiquitin mediated proteasomal degradation
              • Neurofibromin 2 (NF2) can activate LATS1 / 2 through a nonkinase reaction
              • Unknown kinase(s) may phosphorylate LATS1 / 2 in an MST1 / 2 independent fashion
              • When the Hippo signaling pathway is off, YAP / TAZ are not phosphorylated by LATS1 / 2
              • YAP and TAZ translocate to the nucleus and bind to transcription factor TEAD, leading to transcription activation of target genes, including AMOTL2, AREG, BIRC5, CTGF and CYR61, and promoting cell survival and proliferation (Nat Rev Cancer 2015;15:73)
              Diagrams / tables

              Images hosted on other servers:
              Hippo / YAP signaling pathway

              Hippo / YAP signaling pathway

              Clinical features
              Interpretation
              • Cytoplasmic and predominantly nuclear staining
              Uses by pathologists
              Prognostic factors
              Microscopic (histologic) description
              • Small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma of the prostate is negative for YAP1 (see Microscopic images 1, 2, 3)
              • Low risk prostatic adenocarcinoma cells (Gleason score 3+3=6, grade group 1) show focally positive nuclear staining for YAP1 (see Microscopic image 4)
              • In prostatic adenocarcinoma, Gleason score 3+4=7 (grade group 2), many carcinoma cells show positive nuclear staining for YAP1 in the glomeruloid structure (Gleason pattern 4) (see Microscopic image 5)
              • In high risk prostatic adenocarcinoma (Gleason 4+4=8, 4+4=9, 5+5=10), tumor cells are diffusely stained positive for YAP1 (see Microscopic images 6, 7, 8)
              • In benign prostatic tissue, basal cells, fibromuscular stroma and smooth muscles are stained positive for YAP1; benign prostatic luminal cells show negative staining for YAP1 (see Microscopic images 9, 10)
              Microscopic (histologic) images

              Contributed by Y. Albert Yeh, M.D., Ph.D. and Meenakshi Vij Gupta, M.D.
              YAP1 in neuroendocrine carcinoma YAP1 in neuroendocrine carcinoma YAP1 in neuroendocrine carcinoma

              YAP1 in neuroendocrine carcinoma

              YAP1 in prostatic adenocarcinoma YAP1 in prostatic adenocarcinoma

              YAP1 in prostatic adenocarcinoma


              YAP1 in prostatic adenocarcinoma YAP1 in prostatic adenocarcinoma YAP1 in prostatic adenocarcinoma

              YAP1 in prostatic adenocarcinoma

              YAP1 in benign prostate

              YAP1 in benign prostate

              YAP1 in skeletal muscle

              YAP1 in skeletal muscle


              Missing Image

              Prostate

              Small intestine

              Colon: adenocarcinoma

              Positive staining - normal
              Positive staining - disease
              Negative staining
              Molecular / cytogenetics description

              YAP1 gene fusion Tumor type Reference
              YAP1-MAMLD1 Supratentorial ependymoma Cancer Cell 2015;27:728
              YAP1-FAM118B Supratentorial ependymoma Cancer Cell 2015;27:728
              Meningioma Am J Surg Pathol 2021;45:329
              YAP1-MAML2 Pediatric meningioma Acta Neuropathol 2020;139:215
              Poroma and porocarcinoma J Clin Invest 2019;129:3827
              Retiform and composite hemangioendothelioma Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:1677
              Metaplastic thymoma Mod Pathol 2020;33:560
              YAP1-PYGO1 Pediatric meningioma Acta Neuropathol 2020;139:215
              YAP1-LMO1 Pediatric meningioma Acta Neuropathol 2020;139:215
              YAP1-NUTM1 Porocarcinoma J Clin Invest 2019;129:3827
              YAP1-TFE3 Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma Case Rep Gastrointest Med 2019;2019:7530845
              YAP1-KMT2A Sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma Am J Surg Pathol 2020;44:368
              HMGA2-YAP1 Aggressive angiomyxoma BMJ Case Rep 2019;12:e227475
              Molecular / cytogenetics images

              Images hosted on other servers:

              YAP1-TFE3 in
              epithelioid
              hemangioendothelioma

              Sample pathology report
              • Skin, right lower leg, excision:
                • Malignant cutaneous basaloid tumor with YAP1-NUTM1 fusion (see comment)
                • Comment: The skin shows an infiltrating tumor composed of small basaloid cells arranged in anastomosing cords and nests with cystic formation. Tumor cells invade adipose tissue beneath the dermis. Focal tumor necrosis is present. Immunohistochemical stain shows positive nuclear staining of the N terminus of YAP1 but loss of staining of the C terminus. Fluorescence in situ hybridization using YAP1 break apart probe confirms rearrangement of YAP1 gene. RT-PCR testing reveals YAP1-NUTM1 translocation.
              Board review style question #1

              Which of the following biomarker expressions shown in the photomicrograph is lost in neuroendocrine carcinoma?

              1. CD56
              2. Chromogranin
              3. INSM1
              4. YAP1
              Board review style answer #1
              D. YAP1

              Comment Here

              Reference: YAP1
              Back to top
              Recent Stains & CD markers Pathology books

              Dabbs: 2021

              Lin: 2015

              Mody: 2022

              Plaza: 2016

              Rekhtman: 2019



              Find related Pathology books: general surgical pathology, cytopathology, dermatopathology, IHC
              Image 01 Image 02